Skip to main content

Chapter 5

Mathematical Analysis and Linear Algebra

TU BSc past exam questions

Past questions and answers

10 questions set from this chapter. Most repeated first.

  • 2082 · MAT : 401 · 10 marks

Define a binary operation on a set SS. Write whether the set Z\mathbb{Z} of integers with usual multiplication forms a group. Justify your answer. Let Q+\mathbb{Q}^+ be set of positive rational numbers. For a,b,∈Q+a, b, \in \mathbb{Q}^+, define a∗b=ab2a * b = \frac{ab}{2} is (Q+,∗)(\mathbb{Q}^+, *) Q\mathbb{Q} group? under this operation, solve 3∗x=63 * x = 6.

Answer

1. Binary operation on a set (S)

A binary operation () on a non-empty set (S) is a rule that assigns to every ordered pair ((a,b)\in S\times S) a unique element (ab\in S).

That is, [ *:S\times S\to S ] so the set (S) must be closed under the operation.


2. Is ((\mathbb{Z}, \times)) a group?

No. The set of integers (\mathbb{Z}) with usual multiplication is not a group.

Justification:

  • Closure: For (a,b\in\mathbb{Z}), (ab\in\mathbb{Z}). So closure holds.
  • Associativity: ((ab)c=a(bc)) for all integers. So associativity holds.
  • Identity: (1\in\mathbb{Z}) satisfies (a\cdot 1=1\cdot a=a). So identity exists.
  • Inverse: For (a\in\mathbb{Z}), the multiplicative inverse would be (\frac{1}{a}). But (\frac{1}{a}\in\mathbb{Z}) only for (a=1) or (a=-1).
    For example, (2\in\mathbb{Z}), but (\frac12\notin\mathbb{Z}).

Hence the inverse axiom fails. Therefore ((\mathbb{Z}, \times)) is not a group.


3. Is ((\mathbb{Q}^+, )) a group, where (ab=\frac{ab}{2})?

Yes, ((\mathbb{Q}^+, *)) is a group.

Let (a,b,c\in\mathbb{Q}^+).

Closure

[ a*b=\frac{ab}{2}\in\mathbb{Q}^+ ] since (\mathbb{Q}^+) is closed under multiplication and division by (2).

Associativity

[ (ab)c=\left(\frac{ab}{2}\right)c =\frac{\frac{ab}{2}\cdot c}{2} =\frac{abc}{4} ] Also, [ a(bc)=a\left(\frac{bc}{2}\right) =\frac{a\cdot \frac{bc}{2}}{2} =\frac{abc}{4} ] So, [ (ab)c=a(bc) ]

Identity element

Let (e\in\mathbb{Q}^+) be the identity. Then [ a*e=a ] [ \frac{ae}{2}=a ] [ e=2 ] Thus (2\in\mathbb{Q}^+) is the identity element.

Inverse element

For (a\in\mathbb{Q}^+), let its inverse be (b). Then [ a*b=2 ] [ \frac{ab}{2}=2 ] [ ab=4 ] [ b=\frac{4}{a} ] Since (a\in\mathbb{Q}^+), (\frac{4}{a}\in\mathbb{Q}^+).
So every element has an inverse.

Therefore, ((\mathbb{Q}^+, *)) is a group.


4. Solve (3*x=6)

Using the operation, [ 3*x=\frac{3x}{2} ] So, [ \frac{3x}{2}=6 ] [ 3x=12 ] [ x=4 ]

Hence, [ \boxed{x=4} ]

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2082 · MAT : 401 · 10 marks

Define a permutation group and an isomorphism between groups. Prove that a group is isomorphic to a group of permutations. Write a group, which is isomorphic to the group {1,w,w2}\{1, w, w^2\} where ww is a cube roots of unity. How do they correspond?

Answer

1. Definitions

Permutation group:
Let (X) be a non-empty set. A bijection (f:X\to X) is called a permutation of (X). The set of all permutations of (X), denoted (S_X), forms a group under composition of mappings. Any subgroup of (S_X) is called a permutation group or a group of permutations.
If (X) has (n) elements, then (S_X) is denoted by (S_n), the symmetric group of degree (n).

Isomorphism between groups:
Let ((G,\cdot)) and ((H,*)) be two groups. A mapping
[ \phi:G\to H ] is called an isomorphism if:

  1. (\phi) is bijective,
  2. (\phi(ab)=\phi(a)*\phi(b)) for all (a,b\in G).

If such a mapping exists, then (G) and (H) are said to be isomorphic, written [ G\cong H. ]


2. Proof that every group is isomorphic to a group of permutations

This is Cayley’s theorem.

Let (G) be any group. For each (a\in G), define a mapping [ L_a:G\to G ] by [ L_a(x)=ax,\qquad x\in G. ] This is called left multiplication by (a).

First, (L_a) is a permutation of (G).
If (L_a(x)=L_a(y)), then [ ax=ay. ] By left cancellation in (G), [ x=y. ] So (L_a) is injective.
Also, for any (y\in G), choose (x=a^{-1}y). Then [ L_a(x)=a(a^{-1}y)=y. ] So (L_a) is surjective. Hence (L_a) is a bijection, i.e. a permutation of (G). Therefore [ L_a\in S_G. ]

Now define [ \phi:G\to S_G ] by [ \phi(a)=L_a. ] For (a,b\in G), [ \phi(ab)(x)=L_{ab}(x)=(ab)x=a(bx)=L_a(L_b(x))=(L_a\circ L_b)(x). ] Thus [ \phi(ab)=\phi(a)\circ\phi(b). ] So (\phi) is a homomorphism.

If (\phi(a)=\phi(b)), then (L_a=L_b). In particular, taking (x=e), [ L_a(e)=L_b(e) ] so [ a e=b e, ] hence [ a=b. ] Therefore (\phi) is injective. Thus (\phi) is an isomorphism from (G) onto its image (\phi(G)).

But (\phi(G)={L_a:a\in G}) is a subgroup of (S_G), and hence a permutation group. Therefore [ G\cong \phi(G). ] So every group is isomorphic to a group of permutations.
If (|G|=n), then (G) is isomorphic to a subgroup of (S_n).


2. Group isomorphic to ({1,w,w^2})

Let [ G={1,w,w^2}, ] where (w) is a primitive cube root of unity, so [ w^3=1,\qquad w\neq 1. ] This is a cyclic group of order (3).

By Cayley’s theorem, (G) is isomorphic to the subgroup of (S_3) given by its left regular representation. Label the elements as [ 1,\ w,\ w^2 ] and write them in positions (1,2,3), respectively.

Define [ \phi:G\to S_3 ] by [ \phi(a)=L_a,\qquad L_a(x)=ax. ]

Now compute:

[ L_1(x)=1\cdot x=x. ] So [ \phi(1)=\text{identity permutation}=(1)(2)(3). ]

[ L_w(1)=w,\qquad L_w(w)=w^2,\qquad L_w(w^2)=w^3=1. ] Thus [ \phi(w)=(1\ 2\ 3). ]

[ L_{w^2}(1)=w^2,\qquad L_{w^2}(w)=w^3=1,\qquad L_{w^2}(w^2)=w^4=w. ] Thus [ \phi(w^2)=(1\ 3\ 2). ]

Therefore [ G\cong A_3={ \operatorname{id},\ (1\ 2\ 3),\ (1\ 3\ 2)}\le S_3. ]

The correspondence is:

[ \begin{array}{c|c} G & A_3 \ \hline 1 & \operatorname{id}=(1)(2)(3)\ w & (1\ 2\ 3)\ w^2 & (1\ 3\ 2) \end{array} ]

This correspondence preserves multiplication. For example, [ w\cdot w=w^2 ] corresponds to [ (1\ 2\ 3)(1\ 2\ 3)=(1\ 3\ 2). ] Also, [ w\cdot w^2=1 ] corresponds to [ (1\ 2\ 3)(1\ 3\ 2)=\operatorname{id}. ] Hence ({1,w,w^2}) is isomorphic to the permutation group (A_3).

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2082 · MAT : 401 · 10 marks

Define a homomorphism between groups the Kernel and the image of the homomorphism. Let C\mathbb{C} be the set of complex numbers if ϕ:C→C\phi : \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C} is defined by ϕ(x+iy)=y ∀(x+iy)∈C\phi(x + iy) = y \ \forall (x + iy) \in \mathbb{C}, is it a homomorphism? If yes, find Kernel and image. Prove that homomorphism between groups is injective if and only if the Kernel contains identity only. OR Let G be a group, H be a normal subgroup of G, σ:G→GH\sigma : G \to \frac{G}{H} be defined by σ(a)=aH ∀a,b∈G\sigma(a) = aH \ \forall a, b \in G. Prove (i) GH\frac{G}{H} is a group (ii) σ\sigma is a homomorphism onto GH\frac{G}{H} whose Kernel is H.

Answer

Definitions

Let (G,∗)(G,*) and (G′,∘)(G',\circ) be groups.

A map

ϕ:G→G′\phi:G\to G'

is called a homomorphism if

ϕ(a∗b)=ϕ(a)∘ϕ(b)∀a,b∈G.\phi(a*b)=\phi(a)\circ\phi(b)\qquad \forall a,b\in G.

The kernel of ϕ\phi is

ker⁡ϕ={a∈G:ϕ(a)=e′},\ker\phi=\{a\in G:\phi(a)=e'\},

where e′e' is the identity element of G′G'.

The image of ϕ\phi is

Im⁡ϕ=ϕ(G)={ϕ(a):a∈G}⊆G′.\operatorname{Im}\phi=\phi(G)=\{\phi(a):a\in G\}\subseteq G'.

Check whether ϕ:C→C\phi:\mathbb C\to\mathbb C, ϕ(x+iy)=y\phi(x+iy)=y, is a homomorphism

Take C\mathbb C as the additive group of complex numbers. Let

z1=x1+iy1,z2=x2+iy2.z_1=x_1+iy_1,\qquad z_2=x_2+iy_2.

Then

z1+z2=(x1+x2)+i(y1+y2).z_1+z_2=(x_1+x_2)+i(y_1+y_2).

So

ϕ(z1+z2)=y1+y2=ϕ(z1)+ϕ(z2).\phi(z_1+z_2)=y_1+y_2=\phi(z_1)+\phi(z_2).

Hence ϕ\phi is a homomorphism.

Kernel

ker⁡ϕ={x+iy:ϕ(x+iy)=0}={x+iy:y=0}={x:x∈R}.\ker\phi=\{x+iy:\phi(x+iy)=0\} =\{x+iy:y=0\} =\{x:x\in\mathbb R\}.

Thus

ker⁡ϕ=R\boxed{\ker\phi=\mathbb R}

i.e. the set of all real numbers.

Image

For any real number rr, choose z=0+irz=0+ir. Then

ϕ(z)=r.\phi(z)=r.

Therefore every real number is in the image, and no non-real number can be in the image. Hence

Im⁡ϕ=R\boxed{\operatorname{Im}\phi=\mathbb R}

as a subset of C\mathbb C.


Prove: A group homomorphism is injective if and only if its kernel contains only the identity

Let ϕ:G→G′\phi:G\to G' be a group homomorphism. Let ee and e′e' be the identities of GG and G′G' respectively.

Part 1: If ϕ\phi is injective, then ker⁡ϕ={e}\ker\phi=\{e\}

Suppose ϕ\phi is injective. Let a∈ker⁡ϕa\in\ker\phi. Then

ϕ(a)=e′.\phi(a)=e'.

Also,

ϕ(e)=e′.\phi(e)=e'.

So

ϕ(a)=ϕ(e).\phi(a)=\phi(e).

Since ϕ\phi is injective, we get

a=e.a=e.

Thus ker⁡ϕ⊆{e}\ker\phi\subseteq\{e\}. But always e∈ker⁡ϕe\in\ker\phi, because

ϕ(e)=e′.\phi(e)=e'.

Hence

ker⁡ϕ={e}.\ker\phi=\{e\}.

Part 2: If ker⁡ϕ={e}\ker\phi=\{e\}, then ϕ\phi is injective

Suppose ker⁡ϕ={e}\ker\phi=\{e\}. Let a,b∈Ga,b\in G such that

ϕ(a)=ϕ(b).\phi(a)=\phi(b).

Then

ϕ(a)∘ϕ(b)−1=e′.\phi(a)\circ \phi(b)^{-1}=e'.

Since ϕ\phi is a homomorphism,

ϕ(a)∘ϕ(b)−1=ϕ(a)∘ϕ(b−1)=ϕ(ab−1).\phi(a)\circ \phi(b)^{-1}=\phi(a)\circ \phi(b^{-1}) =\phi(ab^{-1}).

Therefore

ϕ(ab−1)=e′.\phi(ab^{-1})=e'.

So

ab−1∈ker⁡ϕ={e}.ab^{-1}\in\ker\phi=\{e\}.

Hence

ab−1=e,ab^{-1}=e,

which gives

a=b.a=b.

Thus ϕ\phi is injective.

Therefore,

ϕ is injective  ⟺  ker⁡ϕ={e}.\boxed{\phi\text{ is injective}\iff \ker\phi=\{e\}.}

OR

Let GG be a group and HH a normal subgroup of GG. Define

σ:G→GH,σ(a)=aH.\sigma:G\to \frac GH,\qquad \sigma(a)=aH.

(i) Prove that GH\frac GH is a group

The elements of GH\frac GH are the left cosets of HH in GG:

GH={aH:a∈G}.\frac GH=\{aH:a\in G\}.

Define the operation by

(aH)(bH)=abH.(aH)(bH)=abH.

Well-defined:
Suppose aH=a′HaH=a'H and bH=b′HbH=b'H. Then

a′=ah1,b′=bh2a'=ah_1,\qquad b'=bh_2

for some h1,h2∈Hh_1,h_2\in H. Hence

a′b′=ah1bh2.a'b'=ah_1bh_2.

Since HH is normal, b−1h1b∈Hb^{-1}h_1b\in H. Therefore

a′b′=ab(b−1h1b)h2∈abH.a'b'=ab(b^{-1}h_1b)h_2\in abH.

So

a′b′H=abH.a'b'H=abH.

Thus the operation is well-defined.

Closure:
For aH,bH∈GHaH,bH\in\frac GH, we have

(aH)(bH)=abH∈GH.(aH)(bH)=abH\in\frac GH.

Associativity:

(aH⋅bH)⋅cH=(abH)(cH)=abcH,(aH\cdot bH)\cdot cH=(abH)(cH)=abcH,

and

aH⋅(bH⋅cH)=aH(bcH)=abcH.aH\cdot(bH\cdot cH)=aH(bcH)=abcH.

So the operation is associative.

Identity:
The coset H=eHH=eH is the identity, because

(aH)(H)=aH,(H)(aH)=aH.(aH)(H)=aH,\qquad (H)(aH)=aH.

Inverse:
For aH∈GHaH\in\frac GH, the element a−1Ha^{-1}H is its inverse, since

(aH)(a−1H)=aa−1H=H,(aH)(a^{-1}H)=aa^{-1}H=H,

and

(a−1H)(aH)=a−1aH=H.(a^{-1}H)(aH)=a^{-1}aH=H.

Hence GH\frac GH is a group.


(ii) Prove that σ\sigma is a homomorphism onto GH\frac GH whose kernel is HH

For a,b∈Ga,b\in G,

σ(ab)=abH=(aH)(bH)=σ(a)σ(b).\sigma(ab)=abH=(aH)(bH)=\sigma(a)\sigma(b).

So σ\sigma is a homomorphism.

For any coset aH∈GHaH\in\frac GH, we have

σ(a)=aH.\sigma(a)=aH.

Thus every element of GH\frac GH is the image of some element of GG. Hence σ\sigma is onto.

Now,

a∈ker⁡σ  ⟺  σ(a)=H  ⟺  aH=H  ⟺  a∈H.a\in\ker\sigma \iff \sigma(a)=H \iff aH=H \iff a\in H.

Therefore,

ker⁡σ=H.\boxed{\ker\sigma=H.}

Thus σ\sigma is an onto homomorphism from GG to GH\frac GH with kernel HH.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2082 · MAT : 401 · 10 marks

Define a ring and a field. Let Q\mathbb{Q} be the set of rationales, with usual '+' & '.' show that Q(2)={a+b2:a,b∈Q}\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}) = \{a + b\sqrt{2} : a, b \in \mathbb{Q}\} forms a field.

Answer

Ring. A non-empty set RR together with two binary operations ++ (addition) and ⋅\cdot (multiplication) is called a ring if:

  1. (R,+)(R, +) is an abelian group, i.e.
    • a+(b+c)=(a+b)+ca + (b + c) = (a + b) + c for all a,b,c∈Ra, b, c \in R (associativity),
    • there exists 0∈R0 \in R with a+0=0+a=aa + 0 = 0 + a = a (additive identity),
    • for each a∈Ra \in R there exists −a∈R-a \in R with a+(−a)=0a + (-a) = 0 (additive inverse),
    • a+b=b+aa + b = b + a for all a,b∈Ra, b \in R (commutativity).
  2. Multiplication is associative: a(bc)=(ab)ca(bc) = (ab)c for all a,b,c∈Ra, b, c \in R.
  3. Distributive laws hold: a(b+c)=ab+ac,(a+b)c=ac+bcfor all a,b,c∈R.a(b + c) = ab + ac, \qquad (a + b)c = ac + bc \quad \text{for all } a, b, c \in R.

If in addition ab=baab = ba for all a,b∈Ra, b \in R, the ring is called a commutative ring; if there exists 1∈R1 \in R, 1≠01 \neq 0, with a⋅1=1⋅a=aa\cdot 1 = 1 \cdot a = a for all aa, it is called a ring with unity.

Field. A commutative ring with unity FF in which every non-zero element has a multiplicative inverse is called a field. That is, for every a∈Fa \in F, a≠0a \neq 0, there exists a−1∈Fa^{-1} \in F such that a a−1=a−1a=1.a\,a^{-1} = a^{-1}a = 1. Equivalently, in a field the non-zero elements form an abelian group under multiplication. Examples: Q\mathbb{Q}, R\mathbb{R}, C\mathbb{C} are fields; Z\mathbb{Z} is not a field since 2∈Z2 \in \mathbb{Z} has no inverse in Z\mathbb{Z}.


To show: Q(2)={a+b2:a,b∈Q}\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}) = \{a + b\sqrt{2} : a, b \in \mathbb{Q}\} is a field.

Write F=Q(2)F = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}). Clearly F⊆RF \subseteq \mathbb{R} and F≠∅F \neq \varnothing (take a=b=0a = b = 0).

(i) Closure under addition. Let a+b2,  c+d2∈Fa + b\sqrt{2},\; c + d\sqrt{2} \in F. Then (a+b2)+(c+d2)=(a+c)+(b+d)2.(a + b\sqrt{2}) + (c + d\sqrt{2}) = (a + c) + (b + d)\sqrt{2}. Since a+c,  b+d∈Qa + c,\; b + d \in \mathbb{Q}, the sum belongs to FF.

(ii) Associativity and commutativity of addition follow from the corresponding properties of Q\mathbb{Q} (and R\mathbb{R}), because addition is performed coefficient-wise.

(iii) Additive identity. 0=0+02∈F0 = 0 + 0\sqrt{2} \in F, and x+0=xx + 0 = x for every x∈Fx \in F.

(iv) Additive inverse. For a+b2∈Fa + b\sqrt{2} \in F, −(a+b2)=(−a)+(−b)2∈F,-(a + b\sqrt{2}) = (-a) + (-b)\sqrt{2} \in F, since −a,−b∈Q-a, -b \in \mathbb{Q}. Hence (F,+)(F, +) is an abelian group.

(v) Closure under multiplication. For a+b2,  c+d2∈Fa + b\sqrt{2},\; c + d\sqrt{2} \in F, (a+b2)(c+d2)=ac+ad2+bc2+bd(2)2=(ac+2bd)+(ad+bc)2.(a + b\sqrt{2})(c + d\sqrt{2}) = ac + ad\sqrt{2} + bc\sqrt{2} + bd(\sqrt{2})^2 = (ac + 2bd) + (ad + bc)\sqrt{2}. Here ac+2bd∈Qac + 2bd \in \mathbb{Q} and ad+bc∈Qad + bc \in \mathbb{Q}, so the product lies in FF.

(vi) Associativity and commutativity of multiplication hold, being inherited from R\mathbb{R}; also the distributive laws hold in FF since they hold in R\mathbb{R}.

(vii) Multiplicative identity. 1=1+02∈F1 = 1 + 0\sqrt{2} \in F and 1⋅x=x1 \cdot x = x for all x∈Fx \in F.

(viii) Multiplicative inverse. Let a+b2∈Fa + b\sqrt{2} \in F with a+b2≠0a + b\sqrt{2} \neq 0. Then not both aa and bb are zero, so a2−2b2≠0a^2 - 2b^2 \neq 0 (if a2−2b2=0a^2 - 2b^2 = 0 then 2=a/b∈Q\sqrt{2} = a/b \in \mathbb{Q}, impossible). Now 1a+b2=a−b2(a+b2)(a−b2)=a−b2a2−2b2=aa2−2b2−ba2−2b22.\frac{1}{a + b\sqrt{2}} = \frac{a - b\sqrt{2}}{(a + b\sqrt{2})(a - b\sqrt{2})} = \frac{a - b\sqrt{2}}{a^2 - 2b^2} = \frac{a}{a^2 - 2b^2} - \frac{b}{a^2 - 2b^2}\sqrt{2}. Since aa2−2b2∈Q\dfrac{a}{a^2 - 2b^2} \in \mathbb{Q} and −ba2−2b2∈Q\dfrac{-b}{a^2 - 2b^2} \in \mathbb{Q}, this inverse belongs to FF. Also (a+b2)⋅a−b2a2−2b2=a2−2b2a2−2b2=1.(a + b\sqrt{2})\cdot\frac{a - b\sqrt{2}}{a^2 - 2b^2} = \frac{a^2 - 2b^2}{a^2 - 2b^2} = 1.

Thus every non-zero element of FF has a multiplicative inverse in FF.

Since FF is a commutative ring with unity in which every non-zero element is invertible, Q(2)\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}) is a field. ■\blacksquare

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2082 · MAT : 401 · 10 marks

Let R,R′R, R' be rings and ϕ:R→R′\phi : R \to R' be a ring homomorphism, with Kernel I. Prove that i) ϕ\phi carries zero to zero ii) ϕ(−a)=−ϕ(a) ∀a∈R\phi(-a) = -\phi(a) \ \forall a \in R. iii) II is an ideal of RR.

Answer

Theorem. Let (R,R') be rings and (\phi:R\to R') a ring homomorphism with kernel [ I=\ker\phi={a\in R:\phi(a)=0'}. ] Then:

i) (\phi) carries zero to zero, i.e. (\phi(0)=0').

Since (0=0+0) in (R), and (\phi) preserves addition, [ \phi(0)=\phi(0+0)=\phi(0)+\phi(0). ] Now add (-\phi(0)) on both sides in the additive group of (R'): [ \phi(0)-\phi(0)=\phi(0)+\phi(0)-\phi(0). ] Hence [ 0'=\phi(0). ] Therefore (\phi(0)=0').


ii) (\phi(-a)=-\phi(a)) for every (a\in R).

Let (a\in R). Since (-a) is the additive inverse of (a), we have [ a+(-a)=0. ] Applying (\phi), [ \phi(a+(-a))=\phi(0). ] Because (\phi) preserves addition and by part (i), (\phi(0)=0'), we get [ \phi(a)+\phi(-a)=0'. ] Thus (\phi(-a)) is the additive inverse of (\phi(a)) in (R'). Therefore [ \phi(-a)=-\phi(a). ]


iii) (I=\ker\phi) is an ideal of (R).

We prove that (I) is an additive subgroup of (R) and absorbs multiplication on both sides.

First, (I\neq\varnothing), since by part (i), [ \phi(0)=0', ] so (0\in I).

Now let (a,b\in I). Then (\phi(a)=0') and (\phi(b)=0'). Since (\phi) preserves addition and by part (ii), [ \phi(a-b)=\phi(a+(-b))=\phi(a)+\phi(-b) =\phi(a)-\phi(b)=0'-0'=0'. ] Hence (a-b\in I). Therefore (I) is an additive subgroup of (R).

Next, let (r\in R) and (a\in I). Then [ \phi(ra)=\phi(r)\phi(a)=\phi(r)0'=0', ] so (ra\in I). Similarly, [ \phi(ar)=\phi(a)\phi(r)=0'\phi(r)=0', ] so (ar\in I).

Thus (I) is closed under subtraction and under left and right multiplication by elements of (R). Hence (I) is a two-sided ideal of (R).

[ \boxed{I=\ker\phi \text{ is an ideal of } R.} ]

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2082 · MAT : 401 · 10 marks

Why do we extend a field? Justify with a concrete example. Let F be a field, f(x)∈F[x]f(x) \in F[x] be a non constant polynomial. Prove that there is an extension field E such that α∈E\alpha \in E with f(α)=0f(\alpha) = 0. OR Explain why the numbers 2\sqrt{2} and π\pi are algebraic and transcendental respectively? Let K be an extension field of a field F. Prove that α∈K\alpha \in K is algebraic over F if and only if [F(α):F][F(\alpha): F] is finite.

Answer

Answer either option. Model answers for both are given below.


Option I

1. Why do we extend a field?

A field (F) may not contain roots of every polynomial in (F[x]). By extending (F) to a larger field (E), we create a field in which those missing roots exist. This is necessary for:

  • solving polynomial equations,
  • constructing splitting fields,
  • building algebraic closures,
  • studying finite fields and Galois theory.

Concrete example:
Consider (f(x)=x^2-2\in \mathbb{Q}[x]). It has no root in (\mathbb{Q}), because (\sqrt2) is irrational. But in the extension field

[ \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2)={a+b\sqrt2:a,b\in\mathbb{Q}}, ]

the element (\alpha=\sqrt2) satisfies

[ \alpha^2-2=0. ]

Thus extending (\mathbb{Q}) to (\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2)) gives a field containing the required root. Similarly, (x^2+1) has no root in (\mathbb{R}), but it has roots (\pm i) in the extension (\mathbb{C}).


2. Kronecker’s theorem: existence of a root in an extension field

Theorem. Let (F) be a field and (f(x)\in F[x]) be a nonconstant polynomial. Then there exists an extension field (E) of (F) and an element (\alpha\in E) such that

[ f(\alpha)=0. ]

Proof.

Since (F[x]) is a unique factorization domain, (f(x)) has an irreducible factor. Let (p(x)\in F[x]) be an irreducible factor of (f(x)). It is enough to find a field extension of (F) containing a root of (p(x)), because then that element will also be a root of (f(x)).

Consider the principal ideal

[ (p(x))={p(x)q(x):q(x)\in F[x]} ]

in (F[x]). Since (F[x]) is a principal ideal domain and (p(x)) is irreducible, the ideal ((p(x))) is maximal. Therefore the quotient ring

[ E=F[x]/(p(x)) ]

is a field.

Let

[ \alpha=x+(p(x))\in E ]

be the coset of (x). We now show that (\alpha) is a root of (p(x)).

In the quotient field (E), the element (x) satisfies

[ p(x)+(p(x))=0+(p(x)). ]

Therefore

[ p(\alpha)=p(x)+(p(x))=0. ]

Hence (\alpha) is a root of (p(x)) in (E).

Now we must identify (F) as a subfield of (E). Define

[ \phi:F\to E,\qquad \phi(a)=a+(p(x)). ]

If (a\in F) and (\phi(a)=0), then (a\in (p(x))). But (p(x)) is nonconstant, so a nonzero constant polynomial (a) cannot be a multiple of (p(x)). Therefore (\phi(a)=0) implies (a=0). Thus (\phi) is injective. Hence (F) is isomorphic to the subfield (\phi(F)) of (E). Identifying (F) with (\phi(F)), we may regard (E) as an extension field of (F).

Since (p(x)\mid f(x)), we have (f(x)=p(x)q(x)) for some (q(x)\in F[x]). Therefore

[ f(\alpha)=p(\alpha)q(\alpha)=0\cdot q(\alpha)=0. ]

Thus there exists an extension field (E) of (F) containing an element (\alpha) such that (f(\alpha)=0). ∎


OR

Option II

1. (\sqrt2) is algebraic and (\pi) is transcendental

Definitions.
Let (K/F) be a field extension. An element (\alpha\in K) is called algebraic over (F) if there exists a nonzero polynomial (g(x)\in F[x]) such that (g(\alpha)=0). If no such polynomial exists, then (\alpha) is called transcendental over (F).

For (\sqrt2):
We have

[ (\sqrt2)^2-2=0. ]

Thus (\sqrt2) is a root of the polynomial

[ x^2-2\in \mathbb{Q}[x]. ]

Therefore (\sqrt2) is algebraic over (\mathbb{Q}). Its minimal polynomial over (\mathbb{Q}) is (x^2-2), so

[ [\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2):\mathbb{Q}]=2. ]

For (\pi):
The number (\pi) is transcendental over (\mathbb{Q}). This is a deep theorem proved by Lindemann in 1882. It follows from the Lindemann–Weierstrass theorem.

A quick explanation using that theorem is as follows. Suppose, for contradiction, that (\pi) is algebraic over (\mathbb{Q}). Then (i\pi) is also algebraic over (\mathbb{Q}). By the Lindemann–Weierstrass theorem, if (\alpha) is a nonzero algebraic number, then (e^\alpha) is transcendental. Taking (\alpha=i\pi), we get that (e^{i\pi}) is transcendental. But Euler’s identity gives

[ e^{i\pi}=-1, ]

which is algebraic over (\mathbb{Q}). This is a contradiction. Hence (\pi) cannot be algebraic over (\mathbb{Q}). Therefore (\pi) is transcendental over (\mathbb{Q}).


2. Theorem: (\alpha) is algebraic over (F) iff ([F(\alpha):F]) is finite

Theorem. Let (K/F) be a field extension and (\alpha\in K). Then (\alpha) is algebraic over (F) if and only if

[ [F(\alpha):F]<\infty. ]

Proof.

(⇒) Suppose (\alpha) is algebraic over (F).

Then there exists a nonzero polynomial (g(x)\in F[x]) such that (g(\alpha)=0). Among all such polynomials, choose one of least degree. Let this minimal polynomial be

[ m(x)=a_0+a_1x+\cdots+a_nx^n,\qquad a_n\neq 0. ]

Its degree is (n). Since (m(x)) is irreducible over (F), the ideal ((m(x))) is maximal in (F[x]). Hence

[ F[x]/(m(x)) ]

is a field. The map

[ F[x]\to F(\alpha),\qquad h(x)\mapsto h(\alpha) ]

has kernel ((m(x))). Therefore

[ F[x]/(m(x))\cong F[\alpha]. ]

Since the quotient is a field, (F[\alpha]) is a field. But (F(\alpha)) is the smallest field containing (F) and (\alpha), so

[ F(\alpha)=F[\alpha]. ]

Now consider the set

[ {1,\alpha,\alpha^2,\ldots,\alpha^{n-1}}. ]

Spanning: Any element of (F(\alpha)) is of the form (h(\alpha)) for some (h(x)\in F[x]). By the division algorithm in (F[x]),

[ h(x)=q(x)m(x)+r(x), ]

where (\deg r(x)<n). Evaluating at (\alpha),

[ h(\alpha)=q(\alpha)m(\alpha)+r(\alpha)=r(\alpha). ]

Thus (h(\alpha)) is a linear combination of (1,\alpha,\ldots,\alpha^{n-1}) over (F).

Linear independence: Suppose

[ c_0+c_1\alpha+\cdots+c_{n-1}\alpha^{n-1}=0 ]

with (c_i\in F). Then the polynomial

[ r(x)=c_0+c_1x+\cdots+c_{n-1}x^{n-1} ]

has degree (<n) and satisfies (r(\alpha)=0). Since (m(x)) is the minimal polynomial of (\alpha), we must have (r(x)=0). Hence

[ c_0=c_1=\cdots=c_{n-1}=0. ]

Therefore ({1,\alpha,\ldots,\alpha^{n-1}}) is a basis of (F(\alpha)) over (F). Hence

[ [F(\alpha):F]=n<\infty. ]

(⇐) Suppose ([F(\alpha):F]=m<\infty).

Then (F(\alpha)) is an (m)-dimensional vector space over (F). Consider the (m+1) elements

[ 1,\alpha,\alpha^2,\ldots,\alpha^m. ]

Since they are more than the dimension of the space, they must be linearly dependent over (F). Hence there exist (c_0,c_1,\ldots,c_m\in F), not all zero, such that

[ c_0+c_1\alpha+\cdots+c_m\alpha^m=0. ]

Let

[ g(x)=c_0+c_1x+\cdots+c_mx^m\in F[x]. ]

Then (g(x)) is a nonzero polynomial and (g(\alpha)=0). Therefore (\alpha) is algebraic over (F).

Hence (\alpha) is algebraic over (F) if and only if ([F(\alpha):F]) is finite. ∎

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2082 · MAT : 401 · 10 marks

Let H and K be normal subgroups of a group G, K ≤\leq H. Prove that GH≅G/KH/K\frac{G}{H} \cong \frac{G/K}{H/K}. Verify the result in the group of integers, taking multiples of 6 and that of 2 as subgroups. OR Discuss Sylow subgroups of a group of order 15 and using Sylow's theory, prove that this group is cyclic.

Answer

Third Isomorphism Theorem

Let (G) be a group and let (H,K) be normal subgroups of (G) such that
[ K \leq H \leq G. ] We prove that [ \frac{G}{H} \cong \frac{G/K}{H/K}. ]

Since (K\trianglelefteq G), the quotient group (G/K) is well-defined. Also, because (K\leq H), the set [ H/K={hK:h\in H} ] is a subgroup of (G/K). Moreover, (H/K\trianglelefteq G/K), since for any (gK\in G/K) and (hK\in H/K), [ (gK)(hK)(gK)^{-1}=ghg^{-1}K\in H/K, ] because (H\trianglelefteq G).

Now define a map [ \varphi:G/K\to G/H ] by [ \varphi(gK)=gH. ]

1. (\varphi) is well-defined

Suppose (g_1K=g_2K). Then [ g_1^{-1}g_2\in K\leq H. ] Hence (g_1H=g_2H), so (\varphi(g_1K)=\varphi(g_2K)). Thus (\varphi) is well-defined.

2. (\varphi) is a homomorphism

For (g_1K,g_2K\in G/K), [ \varphi((g_1K)(g_2K)) =\varphi(g_1g_2K) =g_1g_2H =(g_1H)(g_2H) =\varphi(g_1K)\varphi(g_2K). ] So (\varphi) is a homomorphism.

3. (\varphi) is onto

For any (gH\in G/H), we have [ \varphi(gK)=gH. ] Hence (\varphi) is surjective.

4. Kernel of (\varphi)

We have [ gK\in \ker\varphi \iff \varphi(gK)=H \iff gH=H \iff g\in H \iff gK\in H/K. ] Therefore, [ \ker\varphi=H/K. ]

By the First Isomorphism Theorem, [ \frac{G/K}{\ker\varphi}\cong G/H, ] that is, [ \frac{G/K}{H/K}\cong \frac{G}{H}. ] Hence [ \boxed{\frac{G}{H}\cong \frac{G/K}{H/K}}. ]


Verification in the group of integers

Take [ G=(\mathbb Z,+),\qquad H=2\mathbb Z,\qquad K=6\mathbb Z. ] Since (6\mathbb Z\leq 2\mathbb Z), we have (K\leq H). Also, every subgroup of an abelian group is normal, so (H,K\trianglelefteq G).

Now [ \frac{G}{H}=\frac{\mathbb Z}{2\mathbb Z}, ] and [ \frac{G}{K}=\frac{\mathbb Z}{6\mathbb Z}. ] Also, [ \frac{H}{K}=\frac{2\mathbb Z}{6\mathbb Z}. ] The subgroup (\frac{2\mathbb Z}{6\mathbb Z}) consists of the elements [ 0+6\mathbb Z,\quad 2+6\mathbb Z,\quad 4+6\mathbb Z. ] Thus the quotient [ \frac{G/K}{H/K}

\frac{\mathbb Z/6\mathbb Z}{2\mathbb Z/6\mathbb Z} ] has exactly two cosets, namely [ {0,2,4}+6\mathbb Z \quad\text{and}\quad {1,3,5}+6\mathbb Z. ] Hence it is isomorphic to (\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z). Therefore, [ \frac{\mathbb Z/6\mathbb Z}{2\mathbb Z/6\mathbb Z} \cong \frac{\mathbb Z}{2\mathbb Z}. ] This agrees with [ \frac{G}{H}=\frac{\mathbb Z}{2\mathbb Z}. ] So the third isomorphism theorem is verified in this case.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2082 · MAT : 401 · 10 marks

Define a Gaussian integer and it's norm. List the norm properties. Prove that the set Z[i]\mathbb{Z}[i] of Gaussian integers is an integral domain. Does it form a Euclidean domain? If yes, how?

Answer

Gaussian integer. A Gaussian integer is a complex number of the form
z=a+bi,a,b∈Z.z=a+bi,\qquad a,b\in\mathbb Z. The set of all Gaussian integers is denoted by
Z[i]={a+bi∣a,b∈Z}.\mathbb Z[i]=\{a+bi\mid a,b\in\mathbb Z\}.

Norm. The norm of a Gaussian integer (z=a+bi) is
N(z)=N(a+bi)=a2+b2=zzˉ,N(z)=N(a+bi)=a^2+b^2=z\bar z, where (\bar z=a-bi). Thus (N(z)) is a nonnegative ordinary integer.


Norm properties

  1. (N(z)\ge 0), and
    N(z)=0  ⟺  z=0.N(z)=0\iff z=0.
  2. Multiplicativity:
    N(zw)=N(z)N(w)∀z,w∈Z[i].N(zw)=N(z)N(w)\qquad \forall z,w\in\mathbb Z[i].
  3. (N(z)=N(\bar z)=N(-z)=N(iz)).
  4. (N(z)=1\iff z\in{\pm1,\pm i}), i.e. (z) is a unit in (\mathbb Z[i]).
  5. If (z\mid w) in (\mathbb Z[i]), then (N(z)\mid N(w)) in (\mathbb Z).
  6. Associates have the same norm: if (w=uz) with (u) a unit, then (N(w)=N(z)).
  7. (N(z)) is the square of the usual modulus:
    N(z)=∣z∣2.N(z)=|z|^2.

(\mathbb Z[i]) is an integral domain

A ring (R) is an integral domain if it is a commutative ring with unity and has no zero divisors.

First, (\mathbb Z[i]) is a subring of (\mathbb C). Indeed, for
α=a+bi,β=c+di∈Z[i],\alpha=a+bi,\qquad \beta=c+di\in\mathbb Z[i], we have
α+β=(a+c)+(b+d)i∈Z[i],\alpha+\beta=(a+c)+(b+d)i\in\mathbb Z[i], and
αβ=(ac−bd)+(ad+bc)i∈Z[i].\alpha\beta=(ac-bd)+(ad+bc)i\in\mathbb Z[i]. Also (0,1\in\mathbb Z[i]), and (-\alpha\in\mathbb Z[i]). Hence (\mathbb Z[i]) is a subring of (\mathbb C). Since multiplication in (\mathbb C) is commutative, (\mathbb Z[i]) is commutative and has unity (1).

Now suppose
αβ=0.\alpha\beta=0. Taking norms,
N(αβ)=N(0)=0.N(\alpha\beta)=N(0)=0. But the norm is multiplicative, so
N(αβ)=N(α)N(β).N(\alpha\beta)=N(\alpha)N(\beta). Thus
N(α)N(β)=0.N(\alpha)N(\beta)=0. Since (N(\alpha)) and (N(\beta)) are nonnegative integers, one of them must be zero. But
N(α)=0  ⟺  α=0,N(\alpha)=0\iff \alpha=0, and similarly for (\beta). Therefore
α=0orβ=0.\alpha=0\quad\text{or}\quad \beta=0. So (\mathbb Z[i]) has no zero divisors. Hence (\mathbb Z[i]) is an integral domain.


Does (\mathbb Z[i]) form a Euclidean domain?

Yes. (\mathbb Z[i]) is a Euclidean domain with Euclidean function
d(z)=N(z)=a2+b2.d(z)=N(z)=a^2+b^2.

A Euclidean domain is an integral domain (R) with a function
d:R∖{0}→Z≥0d:R\setminus\{0\}\to \mathbb Z_{\ge 0} such that for any (\alpha,\beta\in R) with (\beta\ne 0), there exist (q,r\in R) satisfying
α=βq+r,\alpha=\beta q+r, where either (r=0) or
d(r)<d(β).d(r)<d(\beta).

We prove this for (\mathbb Z[i]).

Let
α,β∈Z[i],β≠0.\alpha,\beta\in\mathbb Z[i],\qquad \beta\ne 0. Consider the complex number
αβ=x+iy,x,y∈Q.\frac{\alpha}{\beta}=x+iy,\qquad x,y\in\mathbb Q. Choose integers (m,n) such that
∣x−m∣≤12,∣y−n∣≤12.|x-m|\le \frac12,\qquad |y-n|\le \frac12. Put
q=m+ni∈Z[i].q=m+ni\in\mathbb Z[i]. Then define
r=α−βq.r=\alpha-\beta q. If (r=0), the division algorithm is satisfied. If (r\ne 0), then

r=β(αβ−q)=β((x−m)+i(y−n)).r=\beta\left(\frac{\alpha}{\beta}-q\right) =\beta\bigl((x-m)+i(y-n)\bigr).

Using multiplicativity of the norm,
N(r)=N(β) N(αβ−q).N(r)=N(\beta)\,N\left(\frac{\alpha}{\beta}-q\right). But

N(αβ−q)=(x−m)2+(y−n)2≤14+14=12.N\left(\frac{\alpha}{\beta}-q\right) =(x-m)^2+(y-n)^2 \le \frac14+\frac14=\frac12.

Hence
N(r)≤12N(β)<N(β).N(r)\le \frac12 N(\beta)<N(\beta). Therefore
d(r)=N(r)<N(β)=d(β).d(r)=N(r)<N(\beta)=d(\beta).

Thus the division algorithm holds in (\mathbb Z[i]) with the Euclidean function (d=N). Hence (\mathbb Z[i]) is a Euclidean domain.

Consequently, (\mathbb Z[i]) is also a principal ideal domain and a unique factorization domain.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2082 · MAT : 401 · 10 marks

Write the relation between roots and coefficients of f(x)=x4+p1x3+p2x2+p3x+p4=0f(x) = x^4 + p_1x^3 + p_2x^2 + p_3x + p_4 = 0. Are the relations sufficient to solve the equation? Justify your answer. Solve 2x3+x2−7x−6=02x^3 + x^2 - 7x - 6 = 0, given that the difference between two of the roots is 3.

Answer

Relation between roots and coefficients

Let the roots of
[ f(x)=x^4+p_1x^3+p_2x^2+p_3x+p_4=0 ] be (\alpha,\beta,\gamma,\delta). Then by Vieta’s formulas,

[ \alpha+\beta+\gamma+\delta=-p_1 ]

[ \alpha\beta+\alpha\gamma+\alpha\delta+\beta\gamma+\beta\delta+\gamma\delta=p_2 ]

[ \alpha\beta\gamma+\alpha\beta\delta+\alpha\gamma\delta+\beta\gamma\delta=-p_3 ]

[ \alpha\beta\gamma\delta=p_4 ]

So the coefficients determine the elementary symmetric functions of the roots.

Are these relations sufficient to solve the equation?

They determine the roots uniquely as a set, because the roots of a polynomial are uniquely determined by its coefficients. However, the relations alone are not sufficient as a practical method to find the roots explicitly. They give four nonlinear symmetric equations in four unknowns, and solving them directly is essentially equivalent to solving the original quartic. Additional methods such as factorization, Ferrari’s method, or numerical methods are needed to obtain the roots.


Solve (2x^3+x^2-7x-6=0)

Divide by (2):

[ x^3+\frac12x^2-\frac72x-3=0 ]

Let the roots be (a,\ a+3,\ b), since the difference between two roots is (3).

By Vieta’s formulas for the cubic,

[ a+(a+3)+b=-\frac12 ]

[ 2a+b+3=-\frac12 ]

[ b=-2a-\frac72 ]

Also,

[ a(a+3)+b(a+a+3)=-\frac72 ]

Substitute (b=-2a-\frac72):

[ a^2+3a+\left(-2a-\frac72\right)(2a+3)=-\frac72 ]

[ a^2+3a-4a^2-13a-\frac{21}{2}=-\frac72 ]

[ -3a^2-10a-\frac{21}{2}=-\frac72 ]

[ -3a^2-10a-7=0 ]

[ 3a^2+10a+7=0 ]

[ (3a+7)(a+1)=0 ]

So,

[ a=-1 \quad \text{or} \quad a=-\frac73 ]

Now use the product of roots:

[ a(a+3)b=3 ]

For (a=-1),

[ b=-2(-1)-\frac72=-\frac32 ]

Product:

[ (-1)(2)\left(-\frac32\right)=3 ]

So this is valid.

For (a=-\frac73),

[ b=-2\left(-\frac73\right)-\frac72=\frac76 ]

Product:

[ \left(-\frac73\right)\left(\frac23\right)\left(\frac76\right) =-\frac{49}{27}\neq 3 ]

So this case is rejected.

Hence the roots are

[ \boxed{-\frac32,\ -1,\ 2} ]

Check: the roots (-1) and (2) differ by (3), as required.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2082 · MAT : 401 · 10 marks

Define a reciprocal equation. Write how they look and what is the application of recognizing an equation as a reciprocal equation? Solve 2x5−15x4+37x3−37x2+15x−2=02x^5 - 15x^4 + 37x^3 - 37x^2 + 15x - 2 = 0. OR Explain Cardain's method of solving a cubic equation Solve 9x3−6x2+1=09x^3 - 6x^2 + 1 = 0

Answer

Reciprocal equation. An equation that is unchanged when xx is replaced by 1/x1/x (apart possibly from an overall sign) is called a reciprocal equation.

How they look. The coefficients equidistant from the two ends are equal (first kind) or equal in magnitude and opposite in sign (second kind):

a0xn+a1xn−1+⋯+a1x+a0=0ora0xn+a1xn−1+⋯−a1x−a0=0.a_0x^n+a_1x^{n-1}+\dots+a_1x+a_0=0\quad\text{or}\quad a_0x^n+a_1x^{n-1}+\dots-a_1x-a_0=0 .

  • First kind, odd degree: x=−1x=-1 is a root.
  • Second kind, odd degree: x=1x=1 is a root.
  • Second kind, even degree: both x=1x=1 and x=−1x=-1 are roots.

Application. Recognising the type lets us remove the root ±1\pm1 by factorisation. The remaining even-degree reciprocal equation of degree 2m2m is divided by xmx^m and reduced, with the substitution y=x+1xy=x+\dfrac1x, to an equation of degree mm. Thus a quintic is reduced to a quadratic.

Solve 2x5−15x4+37x3−37x2+15x−2=02x^5-15x^4+37x^3-37x^2+15x-2=0. The coefficients 2,−15,37,−37,15,−22,-15,37,-37,15,-2 are equal and opposite from the ends, and the degree is odd, so x=1x=1 is a root. Synthetic division by (x−1)(x-1) gives

(x−1)(2x4−13x3+24x2−13x+2)=0.(x-1)\left(2x^4-13x^3+24x^2-13x+2\right)=0 .

Divide the quartic by x2x^2:

2(x2+1x2)−13(x+1x)+24=0.2\left(x^2+\frac1{x^2}\right)-13\left(x+\frac1x\right)+24=0 .

Put y=x+1xy=x+\frac1x, so x2+1x2=y2−2x^2+\frac1{x^2}=y^2-2:

2y2−13y+20=0  ⇒  (2y−5)(y−4)=0  ⇒  y=52 or 4.2y^2-13y+20=0\;\Rightarrow\;(2y-5)(y-4)=0\;\Rightarrow\; y=\tfrac52\ \text{or}\ 4 .

  • y=52y=\tfrac52: 2x2−5x+2=0⇒x=2, 122x^2-5x+2=0\Rightarrow x=2,\ \tfrac12.
  • y=4y=4: x2−4x+1=0⇒x=2±3x^2-4x+1=0\Rightarrow x=2\pm\sqrt3.

Roots: x=1, 2, 12, 2+3, 2−3x=1,\ 2,\ \tfrac12,\ 2+\sqrt3,\ 2-\sqrt3.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

Questions from TU 4 Years BSc 4th Yr Plant Pathology (Bachelor Level [4 Yrs.]/Science & Tech. / IV Year · Plant Pathology and Protection [Bot.403] · 2082), TU 4 Years BSc 4th Yr Linear (Bachelor Level (4 Yrs.)/Science & Tech. / IV Year · Linear Programming MAT : 404 · 2082), TU 4 Years BSc 4th Yr Computational (Bachelor Level (4 Yrs.)/Science & Tech./IV Year · Computational Course (COM 408) · 2082), TU 4 Years BSc 4th Yr Computational (Bachelor Level (4 Yrs.) Science & Tech. /IV Year · Computational Course (COM 408) · 2080), TU 4 Yrs BSc 4th Yr Computational (Bachelor Level (4 Yrs.)/Science & Tech./IV Year · Computational Course (COM 408) · 2081), TU 4 Years BSc 4th Yr Mechanics 2082 (Bachelor Level (4 Yrs.) /Science & Tech. / IV Year · Mechanics (MAT : 403) · 2082), TU 4 Years BSc 4th Yr Modern Algebra (Bachelor Level (4 Yrs.) Science & Tech. / IV Year · MAT : 401 · 2082), TU 4 Years BSc 4th Yr Quantum Mechanics (Bachelor Level (4 Yrs.)/Science & Tech. / IV year · PHY-401 (New Course) · 2082), TU 4 Years BSc 4th Yr Spatial and (Bachelor Level [4 Yrs.]/Science & Tech. / IV Year · Spatial and Survey Technology [STAT. 407] (Interdisciplinary Paper) · 2081) and TU 4 Years BSc 4th Yr Econophysics (Bachelor Level (4 Yrs.)/Science & Tech. / IV Year · Econophysics-Interdisciplinary (Phy. 407) · 2078). Answers are written for this site; check them against your class notes.