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Chapter 9

Financial Accounting Fundamentals

TU MBS past exam questions

Past questions and answers

9 questions set from this chapter. Most repeated first.

  • 2021 · ACC 517

Contribution margin ratio and BEP in Rupees.

Answer

Contribution Margin Ratio and BEP in Rupees

Contribution Margin Ratio (C/M Ratio or P/V Ratio)

The contribution margin ratio expresses contribution margin as a percentage of sales revenue. It shows how much of each rupee of sales is available to cover fixed costs and then contribute to profit.

C/M Ratio=Contribution MarginSales×100\text{C/M Ratio} = \frac{\text{Contribution Margin}}{\text{Sales}} \times 100

where:

Contribution Margin (CM)=Sales−Variable Costs\text{Contribution Margin (CM)} = \text{Sales} - \text{Variable Costs}

Alternative formulas:

C/M Ratio=Change in ProfitChange in Sales×100\text{C/M Ratio} = \frac{\text{Change in Profit}}{\text{Change in Sales}} \times 100

C/M Ratio=1−Variable CostSales=1−Variable Cost Ratio\text{C/M Ratio} = 1 - \frac{\text{Variable Cost}}{\text{Sales}} = 1 - \text{Variable Cost Ratio}

Break-Even Point (BEP) in Rupees

The BEP in rupees is the sales revenue at which total contribution equals total fixed cost, so profit is zero.

BEP (in Rs)=Fixed CostC/M Ratio\text{BEP (in Rs)} = \frac{\text{Fixed Cost}}{\text{C/M Ratio}}

Equivalently:

BEP (in Rs)=Fixed Cost1−Variable CostSales\text{BEP (in Rs)} = \frac{\text{Fixed Cost}}{1 - \dfrac{\text{Variable Cost}}{\text{Sales}}}

Illustration

Fixed cost = Rs 40,000; Selling price per unit = Rs 20; Variable cost per unit = Rs 12.

Contribution margin per unit = Rs 20 − Rs 12 = Rs 8

C/M Ratio=820×100=40%\text{C/M Ratio} = \frac{8}{20} \times 100 = 40\%

BEP (in Rs)=40,0000.40=Rs 1,00,000\text{BEP (in Rs)} = \frac{40{,}000}{0.40} = \text{Rs } 1{,}00{,}000

Interpretation

  • A C/M ratio of 40% means 40 paisa of every sales rupee covers fixed cost and profit.
  • At Rs 1,00,000 sales, total contribution = Rs 40,000, which exactly equals fixed cost, so profit is nil.
  • Sales above Rs 1,00,000 yield profit; sales below it yield loss.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2021 · ACC 517

If the volume of sales is Rs 2,500,000, what will be the before-tax profit?

Answer

The question as printed does not give the cost structure, so before-tax profit cannot be found from sales alone. We need the variable cost ratio (or variable cost) and the fixed cost.

Before-tax profit=Sales−Variable cost−Fixed cost=S(1−V)−F\text{Before-tax profit} = \text{Sales} - \text{Variable cost} - \text{Fixed cost} = S(1 - V) - F

where SS = sales, VV = variable cost ratio and FF = fixed cost.

Illustration (assumed data: variable cost 60% of sales, fixed cost Rs 300,000):

Contribution=2,500,000×0.40=Rs 1,000,000\text{Contribution} = 2{,}500{,}000 \times 0.40 = \text{Rs } 1{,}000{,}000

Before-tax profit=1,000,000−300,000=Rs 700,000\text{Before-tax profit} = 1{,}000{,}000 - 300{,}000 = \text{Rs } 700{,}000

If the original paper gives a different variable cost ratio or fixed cost, substitute those values into the same formula.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2021 · ACC 517

How many units must be sold to earn an after-tax profit of Rs 210,000 if the tax rate is 30%? (2+2+2+2=8)

Answer

The question does not state the selling price, variable cost or fixed cost, so the method is given first and then applied to assumed data.

Method

Pre-tax profit required=After-tax profit1−tax rate=210,0001−0.30=210,0000.70=Rs 300,000\text{Pre-tax profit required} = \frac{\text{After-tax profit}}{1 - \text{tax rate}} = \frac{210{,}000}{1 - 0.30} = \frac{210{,}000}{0.70} = \text{Rs } 300{,}000

Required units=Fixed cost+Pre-tax profit requiredContribution per unit\text{Required units} = \frac{\text{Fixed cost} + \text{Pre-tax profit required}}{\text{Contribution per unit}}

Illustration (assumed: selling price Rs 100, variable cost Rs 60 per unit, fixed cost Rs 200,000)

Contribution per unit=100−60=Rs 40\text{Contribution per unit} = 100 - 60 = \text{Rs } 40

Required units=200,000+300,00040=12,500 units\text{Required units} = \frac{200{,}000 + 300{,}000}{40} = 12{,}500 \text{ units}

Therefore 12,500 units must be sold to earn an after-tax profit of Rs 210,000. With the actual figures of the original paper, use the same steps. Sales value needed is units ×\times selling price (here Rs 1,250,000).

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2021 · ACC 517

A manufacturing company produces three products A, B, and C. The details regarding these products, their overhead cost and related cost drivers for a period are as follows:
ProductsOutput UnitsMaterial Cost per unit (Rs)Direct Labour hour per unitMachine hour per unitNumber of orders
A4,000802.504.5010
B5,0001203.006.5020
C8,0001504.008.2530
Other data for the period are:
Cost itemsCost (Rs)Cost drivers
Machine related cost288,000Machine hours
Indirect labour cost200,000Direct labour hours
Scheduling cost170,000Production run
Material procurement cost125,000Number of orders
Direct labour cost per hour is Rs 30. The three products were produced in a production run of 500 units each.
Required: Statement of total cost and cost per unit based on:
a. Traditional costing approach using DLH.
b. Activity-based costing approach using cost drivers.
c. "Activity-based costing approach is comparatively more appropriate than traditional costing approach for apportionment of overheads to products." Explain. [4+3]

Answer

Working notes

ProductUnitsTotal DLHTotal machine hoursProduction runs (500 units each)Orders
A4,00010,00018,000810
B5,00015,00032,5001020
C8,00032,00066,0001630
Total57,000116,5003460

Total overhead =288,000+200,000+170,000+125,000== 288{,}000 + 200{,}000 + 170{,}000 + 125{,}000 = Rs 783,000.

(a) Traditional costing (overhead on DLH)

Overhead rate=783,00057,000=Rs 13.7368 per DLH\text{Overhead rate} = \frac{783{,}000}{57{,}000} = \text{Rs } 13.7368 \text{ per DLH}

ParticularsA (Rs)B (Rs)C (Rs)Total (Rs)
Material320,000600,0001,200,0002,120,000
Direct labour (DLH ×\times Rs 30)300,000450,000960,0001,710,000
Overhead (DLH ×\times 13.7368)137,368206,053439,579783,000
Total cost757,3681,256,0532,599,5794,613,000
Units4,0005,0008,000
Cost per unit (Rs)189.34251.21324.95

(b) Activity-based costing

ActivityCost (Rs)DriverQuantityRate
Machine related288,000Machine hours116,500Rs 2.4721 per MH
Indirect labour200,000DLH57,000Rs 3.5088 per DLH
Scheduling170,000Production runs34Rs 5,000 per run
Material procurement125,000Orders60Rs 2,083.33 per order
OverheadA (Rs)B (Rs)C (Rs)Total (Rs)
Machine related44,49880,343163,159288,000
Indirect labour35,08852,632112,280200,000
Scheduling40,00050,00080,000170,000
Procurement20,83341,66762,500125,000
Total overhead140,419224,642417,939783,000
ParticularsA (Rs)B (Rs)C (Rs)Total (Rs)
Material320,000600,0001,200,0002,120,000
Direct labour300,000450,000960,0001,710,000
Overhead (ABC)140,419224,642417,939783,000
Total cost760,4191,274,6422,577,9394,613,000
Cost per unit (Rs)190.10254.93322.24

(c) Why ABC is more appropriate

  1. Multiple cost drivers: traditional costing spreads all overhead on one volume base (DLH), while ABC uses a driver for each activity (machine hours, runs, orders).
  2. More accurate product cost: here the total is the same (Rs 4,613,000) but the split differs. Product C is charged Rs 324.95 per unit traditionally and Rs 322.24 under ABC, while A rises from Rs 189.34 to Rs 190.10 and B from Rs 251.21 to Rs 254.93. Traditional costing over-costs products with high DLH and under-costs those that use many runs and orders.
  3. Cause-and-effect link: overhead follows the activities that actually consume resources.
  4. Better decisions: reliable costs support pricing, product mix and make-or-buy decisions.
  5. Better cost control: ABC shows which activities (scheduling, procurement) are costly and can be reduced.
  6. Fits modern production: where overhead is large relative to labour, DLH is a poor base.

Hence ABC gives more accurate and decision-useful product costs than the traditional approach.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2021 · ACC 517

"Management accounting provides economic information to facilitate the management process of planning, decision making and control." Explain and illustrate this statement.
Group "C"
Concept Based Short Answer Questions
[4 × 3 = 12]
Answer any FOUR questions:

Answer

Management accounting is the branch of accounting that collects, analyses, interprets and communicates economic information to internal management so that the managerial functions of planning, decision making and control can be performed efficiently. Unlike financial accounting, which reports to outsiders, management accounting serves managers inside the organisation. The statement can be explained by taking each of the three management processes in turn.

1. Planning. Planning means setting objectives and deciding in advance how to achieve them. Management accounting supplies the economic information needed to prepare budgets, forecasts and standards. For example, a company planning next year's production prepares a sales budget from past sales data, market trends and cost estimates. The budget quantifies the plan in rupees and units, and also provides the yardstick against which actual performance will later be compared.

2. Decision making. Managers must choose among alternatives — make or buy, accept or reject a special order, continue or discontinue a product, replace or retain a machine. Management accounting provides relevant cost and revenue data for such choices. For example, if a firm can buy a component for Rs 80 per unit while its own variable cost of manufacture is Rs 95 (fixed costs being unavoidable), the relevant cost analysis shows that buying saves Rs 15 per unit, so the decision is to buy. Techniques such as marginal costing, CVP analysis and differential costing are used here.

3. Control. Control means comparing actual performance with the planned standards and taking corrective action. Management accounting supplies performance reports, variance analysis and responsibility accounting information. For example, if the standard material cost of producing 1,000 units is Rs 50,000 but the actual cost is Rs 56,000, the material cost variance of Rs 6,000 (adverse) is reported to the production manager, who investigates the causes — price rise or wastage — and takes corrective steps. Budgetary control and standard costing are the main tools.

Illustration (combined example): A company budgets sales of 10,000 units at Rs 100 each with a variable cost of Rs 60 per unit and fixed cost of Rs 2,00,000, giving a planned profit of Rs 2,00,000. During the year actual sales are only 9,000 units. The management accounting report shows a sales volume variance of Rs 40,000 adverse (1,000 units × Rs 40 contribution). On the basis of this information management (a) plans a revised sales target, (b) decides to increase advertising by Rs 30,000 to push sales, and (c) controls operations by fixing responsibility on the sales manager for the shortfall. Thus the same economic information serves planning, decision making and control.

Conclusion. Management accounting is not an end in itself but a means of supplying economic information — costs, revenues, budgets, variances and forecasts — that makes planning realistic, decision making rational and control effective. Hence the statement is fully justified.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2021 · ACC 517

In a manufacturing company in the month of Ashad, 2078, 1,000 units of finished products were as follows:
Direct materials cost: Rs 150,000 @ Rs 50 per kg. Direct labour cost: Rs 49,500 @ Rs 55 per hour.
The standard quantities of materials and time allotted to the labour per unit of finished products were as follows:
Direct materials: 5 kg @ Rs 60 per kg. Direct labour: 2 hours @ Rs 50 per hour.
Required:
i. Material price, use and cost variance.
ii. Labour rate and efficiency variance.

Answer

Working data

  • Actual material: Rs 150,000 ÷\div Rs 50 = 3,000 kg (AQ, AR = Rs 50)
  • Actual labour: Rs 49,500 ÷\div Rs 55 = 900 hours (AH, AR = Rs 55)
  • Standard for 1,000 units: materials SQ =1,000×5=5,000= 1{,}000 \times 5 = 5{,}000 kg at Rs 60; labour SH =1,000×2=2,000= 1{,}000 \times 2 = 2{,}000 hours at Rs 50

i. Material variances

MPV=AQ×(SR−AR)=3,000×(60−50)=Rs 30,000 (F)\text{MPV} = AQ \times (SR - AR) = 3{,}000 \times (60 - 50) = \text{Rs } 30{,}000 \text{ (F)}

MUV=SR×(SQ−AQ)=60×(5,000−3,000)=Rs 120,000 (F)\text{MUV} = SR \times (SQ - AQ) = 60 \times (5{,}000 - 3{,}000) = \text{Rs } 120{,}000 \text{ (F)}

MCV=SQ×SR−AQ×AR=300,000−150,000=Rs 150,000 (F)\text{MCV} = SQ \times SR - AQ \times AR = 300{,}000 - 150{,}000 = \text{Rs } 150{,}000 \text{ (F)}

Check: 30,000 + 120,000 = 150,000.

ii. Labour variances

LRV=AH×(SR−AR)=900×(50−55)=Rs 4,500 (A)\text{LRV} = AH \times (SR - AR) = 900 \times (50 - 55) = \text{Rs } 4{,}500 \text{ (A)}

LEV=SR×(SH−AH)=50×(2,000−900)=Rs 55,000 (F)\text{LEV} = SR \times (SH - AH) = 50 \times (2{,}000 - 900) = \text{Rs } 55{,}000 \text{ (F)}

LCV=100,000−49,500=Rs 50,500 (F)\text{LCV} = 100{,}000 - 49{,}500 = \text{Rs } 50{,}500 \text{ (F)}

Check: −4,500+55,000=50,500-4{,}500 + 55{,}000 = 50{,}500.

VarianceAmount (Rs)Nature
Material price30,000Favourable
Material usage120,000Favourable
Material cost150,000Favourable
Labour rate4,500Adverse
Labour efficiency55,000Favourable
Labour cost50,500Favourable

Materials were bought cheaper and used far less than standard, and labour was efficient, though paid a higher rate than standard.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2021 · ACC 517

The details of manufacturing cost of goods sold at different levels of production and sales activities of a manufacturing company have been given below:
Production and sales unitsManufacturing cost of goods sold (Rs)
1,00020,000
2,00030,000
4,00050,000
5,00060,000
8,00090,000
Required:
i. Segregation of manufacturing cost of goods sold by using least square method
ii. Coefficient of determination (r2r^2).
iii. Standard error of regression.

Answer

Let XX = units (in thousands) and YY = manufacturing cost of goods sold (Rs in thousands). Here n=5n = 5.

XYXYX²Y²
120201400
230604900
450200162,500
560300253,600
890720648,100
202501,30011015,500

i. Least square method (Y=a+bXY = a + bX)

b=n∑XY−∑X∑Yn∑X2−(∑X)2=5(1,300)−20(250)5(110)−400=1,500150=10b = \frac{n\sum XY - \sum X \sum Y}{n\sum X^2 - (\sum X)^2} = \frac{5(1{,}300) - 20(250)}{5(110) - 400} = \frac{1{,}500}{150} = 10

a=Yˉ−bXˉ=50−10(4)=10a = \bar{Y} - b\bar{X} = 50 - 10(4) = 10

So Y=10+10XY = 10 + 10X: fixed cost = Rs 10,000 and variable cost = Rs 10 per unit.

ii. Coefficient of determination

r=n∑XY−∑X∑Y[n∑X2−(∑X)2][n∑Y2−(∑Y)2]=1,500150×(77,500−62,500)=1,500150×15,000=1,5001,500=1r = \frac{n\sum XY - \sum X\sum Y}{\sqrt{[n\sum X^2 - (\sum X)^2][n\sum Y^2 - (\sum Y)^2]}} = \frac{1{,}500}{\sqrt{150 \times (77{,}500 - 62{,}500)}} = \frac{1{,}500}{\sqrt{150 \times 15{,}000}} = \frac{1{,}500}{1{,}500} = 1

r2=1 (100%)r^2 = 1 \text{ (100\%)}

All the variation in cost is explained by the number of units; the points lie exactly on the line.

iii. Standard error of regression

Se=∑Y2−a∑Y−b∑XYn−2=15,500−10(250)−10(1,300)3=03=0S_e = \sqrt{\frac{\sum Y^2 - a\sum Y - b\sum XY}{n - 2}} = \sqrt{\frac{15{,}500 - 10(250) - 10(1{,}300)}{3}} = \sqrt{\frac{0}{3}} = 0

The standard error is zero, so the fitted line predicts cost without error. The estimated cost at any activity level is Rs 10,000 + Rs 10 ×\times units.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2021 · ACC 517

A manufacturing company provides the following information:
The normal capacity of the company is 40,000 units. The company produced 38,000 units in a year. Sales during the year: 42,000 units. Selling price per unit: Rs 40 Closing stock of goods on hand at the end of the year: 2,000 units. Direct material cost per unit: Rs 10. Direct labour cost per unit: Rs 5. Variable manufacturing overhead per unit: Rs 4. Fixed manufacturing overhead for the period: Rs 120,000. Variable selling overhead per unit: Rs 2. Fixed administrative and selling overhead: Rs 200,000 for the period.
Required:
i. Income statement under absorption costing
ii. Reconciled profit under variable costing.

Answer

Opening stock == Sales ++ Closing stock −- Production =42,000+2,000−38,000== 42{,}000 + 2{,}000 - 38{,}000 = 6,000 units

Working notes

Fixed overhead absorption rate=120,00040,000=Rs 3 per unit\text{Fixed overhead absorption rate} = \frac{120{,}000}{40{,}000} = \text{Rs } 3 \text{ per unit}

Cost per unitAbsorption (Rs)Variable (Rs)
Direct material1010
Direct labour55
Variable manufacturing overhead44
Fixed manufacturing overhead3-
Total2219

Fixed overhead absorbed =38,000×3== 38{,}000 \times 3 = Rs 114,000, so under-absorbed overhead =120,000−114,000== 120{,}000 - 114{,}000 = Rs 6,000.

i. Income statement under absorption costing

ParticularsRs
Sales (42,000 ×\times Rs 40)1,680,000
Cost of production (38,000 ×\times Rs 22)836,000
Add: Opening stock (6,000 ×\times Rs 22)132,000
Less: Closing stock (2,000 ×\times Rs 22)(44,000)
Cost of goods sold924,000
Add: Under-absorbed fixed overhead6,000
Total cost of sales930,000
Gross profit750,000
Less: Variable selling overhead (42,000 ×\times Rs 2)84,000
Less: Fixed administrative and selling overhead200,000
Net profit466,000

ii. Profit under variable costing (with reconciliation)

ParticularsRs
Sales1,680,000
Opening stock (6,000 ×\times Rs 19)114,000
Add: Production (38,000 ×\times Rs 19)722,000
Less: Closing stock (2,000 ×\times Rs 19)(38,000)
Variable cost of goods sold798,000
Variable selling overhead84,000
Contribution798,000
Less: Fixed manufacturing overhead120,000
Less: Fixed administrative and selling overhead200,000
Net profit (variable costing)478,000

Reconciliation

ParticularsRs
Profit under absorption costing466,000
Less: Fixed overhead deferred in closing stock (2,000 ×\times Rs 3)(6,000)
Add: Fixed overhead released from opening stock (6,000 ×\times Rs 3)18,000
Profit under variable costing478,000

Since sales exceed production, stock falls, and absorption costing shows Rs 12,000 less profit than variable costing.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2021 · ACC 517

The information regarding a manufacturing company is as follows:
Direct material cost: Rs 18 per unit and direct labor cost: Rs 15 per unit. Indirect material cost for 5,000 units: Rs 10,000; 100% variable. Indirect labour cost for 5,000 units: Rs 25,000; 60% variable. Repair and maintenance cost for 5,000 units is Rs 40,000 and for 10,000 units is Rs 60,000.

Answer

Step 1: Separate the mixed costs

Repair and maintenance (high-low method):

Variable cost per unit=60,000−40,00010,000−5,000=Rs 4\text{Variable cost per unit} = \frac{60{,}000 - 40{,}000}{10{,}000 - 5{,}000} = \text{Rs } 4

Fixed cost=40,000−4×5,000=Rs 20,000\text{Fixed cost} = 40{,}000 - 4 \times 5{,}000 = \text{Rs } 20{,}000

ItemVariable per unitFixed (Rs)
Direct material18-
Direct labour15-
Indirect material (10,000 ÷\div 5,000, all variable)2-
Indirect labour (60% of 25,000 = 15,000 variable)310,000
Repair and maintenance420,000
Total4230,000

Step 2: Total cost

Total cost =30,000+42×units= 30{,}000 + 42 \times \text{units}

Particulars5,000 units (Rs)10,000 units (Rs)
Direct material90,000180,000
Direct labour75,000150,000
Indirect material10,00020,000
Indirect labour25,00040,000
Repair and maintenance40,00060,000
Total cost240,000450,000
Cost per unitRs 48Rs 45

Cost per unit falls from Rs 48 to Rs 45 because the fixed cost of Rs 30,000 is spread over more units.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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Questions from TU MBS 2nd Semester Human Resource (MBS · MGT 513 Human Resource Management · 2081) and TU MBS 2nd Semester Management (MBS · ACC 517 · 2021). Answers are written for this site; check them against your class notes.