Skip to main content

Chapter 8

Advanced Accounting: Consolidation, Business Combinations, and Foreign Currency

TU MBS past exam questions

Past questions and answers

15 questions set from this chapter. Most repeated first.

  • 2025 · ACC 519

The combined standard deviation of the Net Present Value to measure the risk

Answer

Combined Standard Deviation of Net Present Value (NPV)

The combined standard deviation of NPV measures the total risk of a project or a portfolio of projects in absolute rupee terms. The basic rule is:

Variances add, not standard deviations.\text{Variances add, not standard deviations.}

So, to find the combined standard deviation, we first combine variances and then take the square root.


1. NPV and Standard Deviation of NPV

(a) NPV of a project

NPV=∑t=1nCFt(1+k)t−I0NPV=\sum_{t=1}^{n}\frac{CF_t}{(1+k)^t}-I_0

where:

  • CFtCF_t = expected cash flow in year tt
  • kk = discount rate / cost of capital
  • I0I_0 = initial investment
  • nn = life of the project

(b) Expected NPV

E(NPV)=∑t=1nE(CFt)(1+k)t−I0E(NPV)=\sum_{t=1}^{n}\frac{E(CF_t)}{(1+k)^t}-I_0

(c) Variance of NPV for a single project

If annual cash flows are correlated, then:

σNPV2=∑t=1nσt2(1+k)2t+2∑t=1n∑s>tnσtσsrts(1+k)t+s\sigma_{NPV}^2= \sum_{t=1}^{n}\frac{\sigma_t^2}{(1+k)^{2t}} +2\sum_{t=1}^{n}\sum_{s>t}^{n} \frac{\sigma_t\sigma_s r_{ts}}{(1+k)^{t+s}}

where:

  • σt\sigma_t = standard deviation of cash flow in year tt
  • rtsr_{ts} = coefficient of correlation between cash flows of years tt and ss

Therefore,

σNPV=∑t=1nσt2(1+k)2t+2∑t=1n∑s>tnσtσsrts(1+k)t+s\sigma_{NPV}= \sqrt{ \sum_{t=1}^{n}\frac{\sigma_t^2}{(1+k)^{2t}} +2\sum_{t=1}^{n}\sum_{s>t}^{n} \frac{\sigma_t\sigma_s r_{ts}}{(1+k)^{t+s}} }

(d) Special case: independent annual cash flows

If cash flows in different years are independent, then:

rts=0for t≠sr_{ts}=0 \quad \text{for } t\neq s

So the covariance terms vanish, and:

σNPV=∑t=1nσt2(1+k)2t\sigma_{NPV}= \sqrt{ \sum_{t=1}^{n}\frac{\sigma_t^2}{(1+k)^{2t}} }

(e) Special case: perfectly correlated annual cash flows

If cash flows are perfectly positively correlated, then:

rts=+1r_{ts}=+1

and the standard deviation becomes:

σNPV=∑t=1nσt(1+k)t\sigma_{NPV}= \sum_{t=1}^{n}\frac{\sigma_t}{(1+k)^t}

This is the maximum possible risk for a single project.


2. Combined Standard Deviation for a Portfolio of Projects

(a) Two projects with weights

Let:

  • wA,wBw_A,w_B = proportion of total investment in projects A and B
  • σA,σB\sigma_A,\sigma_B = standard deviations of NPV of projects A and B
  • rABr_{AB} = coefficient of correlation between NPVs of A and B

Then:

σp=wA2σA2+wB2σB2+2wAwBrABσAσB\sigma_p= \sqrt{ w_A^2\sigma_A^2+w_B^2\sigma_B^2+2w_Aw_B r_{AB}\sigma_A\sigma_B }

If the investments are equal, then wA=wB=0.5w_A=w_B=0.5, and:

σp=σA24+σB24+12rABσAσB\sigma_p= \sqrt{ \frac{\sigma_A^2}{4}+\frac{\sigma_B^2}{4} +\frac{1}{2}r_{AB}\sigma_A\sigma_B }

Equivalently, for equal weights:

σp=12σA2+σB2+2rABσAσB\sigma_p= \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{ \sigma_A^2+\sigma_B^2+2r_{AB}\sigma_A\sigma_B }

(b) General case: nn projects

Let wiw_i be the weight of project ii, σi\sigma_i the standard deviation of its NPV, and rijr_{ij} the correlation between projects ii and jj.

Then:

σp2=∑i=1nwi2σi2+2∑i=1n∑j>inwiwjrijσiσj\sigma_p^2= \sum_{i=1}^{n}w_i^2\sigma_i^2 +2\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sum_{j>i}^{n}w_iw_j r_{ij}\sigma_i\sigma_j

Therefore,

σp=∑i=1nwi2σi2+2∑i=1n∑j>inwiwjrijσiσj\sigma_p= \sqrt{ \sum_{i=1}^{n}w_i^2\sigma_i^2 +2\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sum_{j>i}^{n}w_iw_j r_{ij}\sigma_i\sigma_j }

If all projects are independent, then rij=0r_{ij}=0 for i≠ji\neq j, so:

σp=∑i=1nwi2σi2\sigma_p= \sqrt{ \sum_{i=1}^{n}w_i^2\sigma_i^2 }

3. Effect of Correlation Coefficient

Value of rABr_{AB}Effect on combined risk
r=+1r=+1Maximum risk; σp=wAσA+wBσB\sigma_p=w_A\sigma_A+w_B\sigma_B
0<r<+10<r<+1Risk reduced but not eliminated
r=0r=0σp=wA2σA2+wB2σB2\sigma_p=\sqrt{w_A^2\sigma_A^2+w_B^2\sigma_B^2}
−1<r<0-1<r<0Substantial risk reduction
r=−1r=-1Risk fully eliminated for equal weights; $\sigma_p=

For equal weights and r=−1r=-1:

σp=12∣σA−σB∣\sigma_p=\frac{1}{2}|\sigma_A-\sigma_B|

4. Illustrative Example

Given:

  • Project A: σA=Rs4,000\sigma_A=Rs 4{,}000
  • Project B: σB=Rs3,000\sigma_B=Rs 3{,}000
  • Coefficient of correlation: rAB=+0.5r_{AB}=+0.5
  • Equal investment weights: wA=wB=0.5w_A=w_B=0.5

Required: Combined standard deviation of NPV.

Solution:

σp=wA2σA2+wB2σB2+2wAwBrABσAσB\sigma_p= \sqrt{ w_A^2\sigma_A^2+w_B^2\sigma_B^2+2w_Aw_B r_{AB}\sigma_A\sigma_B } σp=(0.5)2(4000)2+(0.5)2(3000)2+2(0.5)(0.5)(0.5)(4000)(3000)\sigma_p= \sqrt{ (0.5)^2(4000)^2+(0.5)^2(3000)^2 +2(0.5)(0.5)(0.5)(4000)(3000) } σp=4,000,000+2,250,000+3,000,000\sigma_p= \sqrt{ 4{,}000{,}000+2{,}250{,}000+3{,}000{,}000 } σp=9,250,000\sigma_p= \sqrt{9{,}250{,}000} σp=Rs3,041.38\sigma_p=Rs 3{,}041.38

Interpretation: The combined risk is less than the weighted average of individual risks because rAB<+1r_{AB}<+1. Diversification reduces total risk.


5. Steps to Compute Combined Standard Deviation of NPV

  1. Estimate expected cash flows and their standard deviations for each year or project.
  2. Discount each cash flow’s standard deviation to present value using (1+k)t(1+k)^t.
  3. Square each discounted standard deviation and sum them to get the variance contribution.
  4. Add covariance terms if cash flows or projects are correlated.
  5. Take the square root of the total variance to obtain σNPV\sigma_{NPV} or σp\sigma_p.

6. Significance

  • Measures the total absolute risk of a project or portfolio of projects.
  • Used with expected NPV to compute the coefficient of variation:

CV=\frac{\sigma_{NPV}}{E(NPV)}

−HelpscompareprojectswithdifferentexpectedNPVsanddifferentrisks.−Usefulinrisk−adjustedcapitalbudgetingandportfoliodiversificationdecisions.- Helps compare projects with different expected NPVs and different risks. - Useful in risk-adjusted capital budgeting and portfolio diversification decisions.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2025 · ACC 519 · 3+2.5+4.5+2+3 marks

If the probability distribution of net present values is assumed to be normal distribution, find out: (i) The chances of NPV being zero or less (ii) Probability of being NPV is being more than Rs 4,000. (iii) Probability of NPV is being 15% above the mean value.

Answer

If NPV is normally distributed with mean NPVˉ\bar{NPV} and standard deviation σ\sigma, any probability is found by converting to the standard normal variable

Z=X−NPVˉσZ=\frac{X-\bar{NPV}}{\sigma}

and reading the area from the normal table. The question does not state NPVˉ\bar{NPV} and σ\sigma; the method is shown below with the commonly used figures NPVˉ=Rs 8,000\bar{NPV}=\text{Rs }8{,}000 and σ=Rs 5,000\sigma=\text{Rs }5{,}000. Substitute the given values in the same steps.

(i) Probability that NPV is zero or less

Z=0−8,0005,000=−1.6Z=\frac{0-8{,}000}{5{,}000}=-1.6

P(NPV≤0)=P(Z≤−1.6)=0.0548≈5.48%P(NPV\le0)=P(Z\le-1.6)=0.0548\approx5.48\%

(ii) Probability that NPV exceeds Rs 4,000

Z=4,000−8,0005,000=−0.8Z=\frac{4{,}000-8{,}000}{5{,}000}=-0.8

P(NPV>4,000)=P(Z>−0.8)=1−0.2119=0.7881≈78.81%P(NPV>4{,}000)=P(Z>-0.8)=1-0.2119=0.7881\approx78.81\%

(iii) Probability that NPV is 15% above the mean

X=1.15×8,000=Rs 9,200,Z=9,200−8,0005,000=0.24X=1.15\times8{,}000=\text{Rs }9{,}200,\qquad Z=\frac{9{,}200-8{,}000}{5{,}000}=0.24

P(NPV≥9,200)=1−0.5948=0.4052≈40.52%P(NPV\ge9{,}200)=1-0.5948=0.4052\approx40.52\%

General rule: P(NPV≤0)=Φ ⁣(−NPVˉσ)P(NPV\le0)=\Phi\!\left(-\dfrac{\bar{NPV}}{\sigma}\right); P(NPV>X)=1−Φ ⁣(X−NPVˉσ)P(NPV>X)=1-\Phi\!\left(\dfrac{X-\bar{NPV}}{\sigma}\right); and for a value 15% above the mean, Z=0.15 NPVˉσZ=\dfrac{0.15\,\bar{NPV}}{\sigma}.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2025 · ACC 519 · 5 marks

Why NFRS has been introduced in Nepal?

Answer

Why NFRS has been introduced in Nepal [5 marks]

Nepal Financial Reporting Standards (NFRS) were introduced in Nepal to replace the older Nepal Accounting Standards (NAS) and bring the country's financial reporting in line with international practice. The main reasons are:

  1. Adoption of global standards (IFRS convergence). NFRS is based on International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) issued by the IASB. As Nepal's economy opened up, foreign investors, lenders and donors needed financial statements prepared on a basis they could understand and compare. NFRS provides that common language.

  2. Comparability and transparency. A single, uniform set of standards allows the financial statements of different Nepali entities — and of Nepali entities with foreign ones — to be compared meaningfully. This improves transparency and reduces information asymmetry for users.

  3. Investor confidence and access to capital. Foreign direct investment, joint ventures, and borrowing from international banks and multilateral agencies (World Bank, ADB, IMF) require credible, IFRS-based reporting. NFRS helps Nepali companies raise capital abroad and attract FDI.

  4. Better quality of financial information for decision-making. NFRS relies on fair value measurement, substance over form, and more extensive disclosure. This gives more relevant and reliable information to shareholders, creditors, regulators and the government for investment, lending and tax decisions.

  5. Regulatory and legal requirement. The Institute of Chartered Accountants of Nepal (ICAN), with the Nepal Accounting Standards Board, made NFRS mandatory for listed companies and large public-interest entities (effective from fiscal year 2071/72 BS for such entities), aligning Nepal with international regulatory expectations and strengthening the audit and reporting framework.

In short, NFRS was introduced to harmonise Nepal with IFRS, improve transparency and comparability, build investor confidence, and support Nepal's integration into the global economy.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2025 · ACC 519 · 5 marks

Discuss about the determinants of pricing decision.

Answer

Determinants of Pricing Decision

Pricing is one of the most critical decisions in marketing because price directly affects demand, revenue, and profitability. A firm cannot set price arbitrarily; it must consider several internal and external factors. The major determinants of pricing decision are discussed below:

1. Cost of the Product Cost sets the floor (minimum) price below which a firm cannot sell in the long run. It includes fixed costs, variable costs, and semi-variable costs. A firm must cover its total cost and earn a reasonable profit margin. Higher the cost, higher the price, and vice versa.

2. Demand and Price Elasticity Demand sets the ceiling (maximum) price. If demand for the product is high, the firm can charge a higher price. Price elasticity of demand is crucial: for elastic demand (e.g., luxury goods), a small price rise sharply reduces sales, so price must be kept competitive; for inelastic demand (e.g., salt, medicines), the firm has more pricing freedom.

3. Competition The nature and intensity of competition directly influence pricing. Under perfect competition, a firm is a price taker. Under monopolistic competition, price depends on product differentiation. Under oligopoly, prices tend to be rigid due to interdependence. Under monopoly, the firm has greater freedom to set price. Competitors' prices, discounts, and quality must be considered.

4. Objectives of the Firm Pricing is guided by the firm's objectives — profit maximization, sales maximization, market share growth, survival, or prestige/image building. A firm aiming at market penetration sets a low price, while one aiming at skimming sets a high initial price.

5. Marketing Mix and Product Differentiation Price must be consistent with other elements of the marketing mix — product quality, promotion, and distribution. A premium product with unique features (differentiation) can command a higher price, while a standard product must be priced competitively.

6. Government Regulation and Legal Factors Government policies such as price control, ceiling prices, minimum support prices, taxes, subsidies, and anti-profiteering laws directly restrict or guide pricing decisions. For example, in Nepal, the government fixes prices of petroleum products and essential drugs.

7. Distribution Channels and Middlemen The length of the distribution channel affects the final price. More middlemen mean higher mark-ups and a higher final consumer price. The firm must decide whether to use intensive, selective, or exclusive distribution, which in turn affects pricing.

8. Other Factors

  • Buyer's perception of value – price should not exceed what customers perceive the product is worth.
  • Economic conditions – inflation, recession, and purchasing power influence pricing.
  • Company image and goodwill – a reputed brand can charge a higher price.

Conclusion Thus, pricing decision is a complex process determined by both internal factors (cost, objectives, marketing mix) and external factors (demand, competition, government, economy). A firm must carefully balance these determinants to set a price that maximizes profit while remaining acceptable to customers and consistent with legal requirements.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2025 · ACC 519 · 5 marks

Describe merits and demerits of payback period method of investment evaluation criteria.

Answer

Payback Period Method — Merits and Demerits

The payback period is the length of time required to recover the initial cash outlay from the cash inflows generated by a project. It is a traditional, non-discounted technique of capital budgeting.

Merits

  1. Simple and easy to understand. It involves no complex computation; the period is found by accumulating cash inflows until they equal the initial investment. This makes it popular with small firms and managers without a strong finance background.
  2. Emphasis on liquidity. By showing how quickly the investment is recovered, it highlights the project's ability to release funds early. Firms facing tight cash positions or high uncertainty prefer projects with short payback periods.
  3. Minimises risk of obsolescence. A short payback period reduces the chance that technology or products will become obsolete before the investment is recouped. It is useful for industries with rapid technological change.
  4. Serves as a screening device. It is often used as a first-stage filter to eliminate weak proposals before applying more refined discounted methods.
  5. Favours projects with early returns. Since distant cash flows are more uncertain, the method indirectly gives weight to near-term cash flows.

Demerits

  1. Ignores the time value of money. Cash flows occurring in different years are treated as equal in value, which is financially unsound. A rupee received in year 5 is not equal to a rupee received in year 1.
  2. Ignores cash flows after the payback period. All inflows beyond the cutoff are disregarded. A project with a long payback but very large later returns may be wrongly rejected, while one with a quick payback but poor total returns may be wrongly accepted.
  3. No objective decision criterion. The choice of the maximum acceptable payback period is arbitrary and subjective; there is no theoretical basis for setting it.
  4. Measures recovery, not profitability. It tells how fast the investment is recovered, not how much wealth it creates. It is therefore not consistent with the goal of maximising shareholder wealth.
  5. Biased against long-term projects. Projects such as research and development or infrastructure, which yield returns only in later years, are systematically penalised.
  6. Ignores the pattern of cash flows within the payback period. Two projects with the same payback period but different timing of inflows are treated as equally desirable.

Conclusion

The payback period method is useful as a rough measure of liquidity and risk, but because it ignores the time value of money and all cash flows after the payback period, it should be used only as a supplementary screening tool alongside discounted criteria such as NPV, IRR and profitability index.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2025 · ACC 519 · 5 marks

The following data are provided to you:
ParticularsAmount
Operating IncomeRs 300,000
Sales RevenueRs 1,000,000
Invested CapitalRs 2,000,000
Minimum Required rate of return10%
Required: Return on Investment (ROI) and Residual Income (RI)

Answer

Given:

ParticularsAmount
Operating IncomeRs 300,000
Sales RevenueRs 1,000,000
Invested CapitalRs 2,000,000
Minimum Required Rate of Return10%

Required: ROI and RI


Solution:

(a) Return on Investment (ROI)

ROI=Operating IncomeInvested Capital×100\text{ROI} = \frac{\text{Operating Income}}{\text{Invested Capital}} \times 100

=300,0002,000,000×100=15%= \frac{300,000}{2,000,000} \times 100 = 15\%

(b) Residual Income (RI)

Minimum Required Income=Invested Capital×Required Rate of Return\text{Minimum Required Income} = \text{Invested Capital} \times \text{Required Rate of Return}

=2,000,000×10%=Rs 200,000= 2,000,000 \times 10\% = \text{Rs } 200,000

RI=Operating Income−Minimum Required Income\text{RI} = \text{Operating Income} - \text{Minimum Required Income}

=300,000−200,000=Rs 100,000= 300,000 - 200,000 = \text{Rs } 100,000


Answer:

  • Return on Investment (ROI) = 15%
  • Residual Income (RI) = Rs 100,000

Since ROI (15%) exceeds the minimum required rate of return (10%) and RI is positive (Rs 100,000), the division is performing well and creating value above the minimum required return.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2025 · ACC 519 · 5 marks

The following information are extracted from the accounting records of a company, for the fiscal year ending 2081.
ParticularsAmount (Rs)
Sales for the period500,000
Material purchased200,000
Power & fuel20,000
Other manufacturing, selling & administrative cost60,000
Salaries & wages100,000
Income tax25% on profit
Interest paid10,000
Dividend paid10,000
Additional information: Number of employees: 90
Required:
a. Value added statement b. Value added per employee c. Wages distribution ratio.

Answer

(a) Value added statement for the year ending 2081

ParticularsRs
Sales500,000
Less: Material purchased(200,000)
Less: Power and fuel(20,000)
Less: Other manufacturing, selling and administrative costs(60,000)
Value added220,000

Application of value added

Profit before tax =220,000−100,000−10,000=Rs 110,000=220{,}000-100{,}000-10{,}000=\text{Rs }110{,}000; tax at 25% =Rs 27,500=\text{Rs }27{,}500; profit after tax =Rs 82,500=\text{Rs }82{,}500; retained =82,500−10,000=Rs 72,500=82{,}500-10{,}000=\text{Rs }72{,}500.

Applied toRs% of value added
Employees (salaries and wages)100,00045.45
Providers of capital: interest10,0004.55
Providers of capital: dividend10,0004.55
Government (income tax)27,50012.50
Retained in business72,50032.95
Total220,000100.00

(b) Value added per employee

220,00090=Rs 2,444.44\frac{220{,}000}{90}=\text{Rs }2{,}444.44

(c) Wages distribution ratio

WagesValue added×100=100,000220,000×100=45.45%\frac{\text{Wages}}{\text{Value added}}\times100=\frac{100{,}000}{220{,}000}\times100=45.45\%

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2025 · ACC 519

A joint process to produce products A, B and C in a manufacturing company. Each product may be sold at its split-off point or processed further. Joint production costs were Rs 45,750. Relevant data with sales value and additional costs if processed further are as follows:
ProductsUnits ProducedSales Value at Split-off (Rs)Sales Value after Further Processing (Rs)Further Processing Cost (Rs)
A20,00045,00060,00030,000
B15,00075,00098,00020,000
C15,00030,00062,00022,000
Required: Which products should Company subject to further processing? Explain with reason.

Answer

Decision on Further Processing of Products A, B and C

Decision rule: A product should be processed further only if the incremental revenue (sales value after further processing − sales value at split-off) exceeds the incremental (further processing) cost. Joint production cost of Rs 45,750 is a sunk cost at the split-off point and is irrelevant to this decision.

Working: Incremental Revenue vs. Incremental Cost

ParticularsA (Rs)B (Rs)C (Rs)
Sales value after further processing60,00098,00062,000
Less: Sales value at split-off45,00075,00030,000
Incremental revenue15,00023,00032,000
Less: Further processing cost30,00020,00022,000
Incremental profit / (loss)(15,000)3,00010,000

Decision

ProductIncremental profit/(loss)Decision
ARs (15,000)Sell at split-off point
BRs 3,000Process further
CRs 10,000Process further

Reason

  • Product A: Further processing brings in only Rs 15,000 of extra revenue but costs Rs 30,000, giving a net loss of Rs 15,000. Hence A should be sold at the split-off point for Rs 45,000.
  • Product B: Further processing adds Rs 23,000 of revenue at a cost of Rs 20,000, yielding a net gain of Rs 3,000. Hence B should be processed further.
  • Product C: Further processing adds Rs 62,000 − Rs 30,000 = Rs 32,000 of revenue at a cost of only Rs 22,000, yielding the highest net gain of Rs 10,000. Hence C should be processed further.

Conclusion: The company should process B and C further, and sell A at the split-off point. The total joint cost of Rs 45,750 is common to all three products and does not change with the decision, so it is ignored in deciding whether to process further.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2024 · ACC 519

Do you think that company should generate positive cash from operating activities? Justify your answer.

Answer

Yes — a company should generate positive cash from operating activities. Operating activities are the cash flows from its core, day-to-day business: cash received from customers, less cash paid to suppliers, employees, lenders of interest and the government. Positive operating cash flow means the business is self-financing its routine operations, and it is the single most important signal of financial health. The justification rests on the following points:

1. It shows the business is genuinely profitable in cash terms. Profit on the income statement is an accounting figure affected by non-cash items (depreciation, accruals, provisions) and by credit sales. A firm can report profit while running out of cash. Positive operating cash flow confirms that revenues are actually being collected and that the core business converts sales into cash.

2. It is the only sustainable source of funds. A firm can raise cash by borrowing (financing) or selling assets (investing), but neither can continue forever. Debt must be repaid with interest, and assets cannot be sold repeatedly. Only operating cash flow is internally generated and repeatable, so it is the long-run source of a company's survival and growth.

3. It supports debt repayment and interest obligations. Lenders and creditors look at operating cash flow to judge whether the firm can service its loans from its own operations rather than from fresh borrowing. A firm with negative operating cash flow that keeps borrowing to pay interest is merely postponing insolvency.

4. It funds growth and investment without external dependence. Positive operating cash flow can finance capital expenditure, new projects, research and development, and working capital expansion. This reduces reliance on external finance, lowers financial risk, and avoids dilution of ownership or heavy interest burdens.

5. It enables returns to shareholders. Dividends and share buybacks are ultimately paid out of cash. Sustainable dividend policy requires operating cash flow to cover both investment needs and shareholder distributions. Paying dividends out of borrowed money is not sustainable.

6. It is a signal to investors, lenders and rating agencies. Analysts, credit-rating agencies and investors treat operating cash flow as a key indicator of earnings quality and going-concern ability. Persistent positive operating cash flow improves creditworthiness, lowers the cost of borrowing and supports share value. Persistent negative operating cash flow is an early warning of financial distress.

7. It distinguishes healthy growth from reckless growth. A growing firm normally uses more cash for inventory and receivables. If operating cash flow stays positive even while growing, the growth is self-funded. If it turns sharply negative, growth is being financed by outsiders and the firm may face a liquidity crisis.

Qualification (when negative operating cash flow may be acceptable):

  • A start-up or newly expanded firm in a high-growth phase may temporarily have negative operating cash flow while building inventory and receivables, provided it has assured financing and a clear path to positive cash generation.
  • Seasonal businesses may show negative operating cash flow in the off-season, offset by positive flows in the peak season.
  • A one-off large payment (for example, a major tax settlement or a strategic inventory build-up) can cause a temporary negative figure.

Conclusion: Over the long run, a company must generate positive cash from operating activities. Negative operating cash flow is sustainable only for a limited period and only if backed by reliable external financing and a credible plan to turn positive. Therefore, positive operating cash flow should be the norm and the target for every company, because it is the ultimate test of whether the business can survive, repay its obligations, invest for growth and reward its owners on its own strength.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2024 · ACC 519

Why preparation of Cash Flow Statement is essential along with Income Statement and Balance Sheet?

Answer

Why the Cash Flow Statement is Essential Along with the Income Statement and Balance Sheet

1. The basic idea

The Income Statement reports profitability on an accrual basis — revenue is recognised when earned and expenses when incurred, irrespective of when cash actually moves. The Balance Sheet is a static statement showing assets, liabilities and equity at a single date. Neither statement tells where cash came from or where it went. The Cash Flow Statement fills this gap by summarising the actual inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents during a period, classified into operating, investing and financing activities (NAS 3 / IAS 7 in Nepal).

2. Reasons why it is essential

(a) Profit is not cash. A firm may report a healthy net profit yet be unable to pay wages, suppliers or interest, because sales were on credit or funds are locked in inventory and receivables. Conversely, a loss-making firm may still generate cash. Only the cash flow statement reconciles net profit with net cash from operations.

(b) It measures true liquidity and solvency. The balance sheet shows how much cash exists; the cash flow statement shows why it changed and whether the firm can meet short-term obligations, loan instalments and dividend payments as they fall due.

(c) It reveals the quality of earnings. A large and persistent gap between accrual profit and operating cash flow signals aggressive revenue recognition, poor collection or window dressing — a warning that the income statement alone conceals.

(d) It shows the firm's investing and financing decisions. Purchases and sales of fixed assets, investments, issue or redemption of shares and debentures, and long-term borrowings are not visible in the income statement; the cash flow statement discloses them and reveals how growth is financed — internally or through debt.

(e) It supports planning and forecasting. Past cash flow patterns help management prepare cash budgets, decide dividend policy, plan working capital and avoid technical insolvency.

(f) It improves comparability. By eliminating non-cash items (depreciation, provisions, accruals) and accounting-policy differences, it allows meaningful comparison between firms and across years.

(g) It serves the users' information needs. Investors judge dividend-paying capacity; lenders judge debt-servicing ability; creditors judge payment capacity; auditors and regulators use it to detect manipulation. It is therefore a key input to credit rating and investment decisions.

(h) It is a statutory and professional requirement. In Nepal, NAS 3 (Cash Flow Statements) requires every enterprise to present a cash flow statement as an integral part of its financial statements; the Companies Act, SEBON and Nepal Rastra Bank directives also mandate it. Compliance is thus compulsory, not optional.

3. Conclusion

The income statement explains profitability, the balance sheet explains financial position, and the cash flow statement explains cash-generating ability and liquidity. Since profit and cash are not the same, and since a firm survives on cash rather than on profit, the cash flow statement is indispensable for a complete and faithful picture of financial performance and position.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2024 · ACC 519

What is meaning of free cash flow? Do you think that the positive free cash flow is healthy sign of a company?
[12+6+3+4+3+2]

Answer

Free cash flow (FCF) is the cash a firm generates from its operations after spending what is needed to keep the business running and growing — that is, after paying operating expenses and taxes and after making the capital expenditures (and, in the broader definition, the working-capital investments) required to maintain and expand its asset base. It is the discretionary cash left over that belongs to all capital providers (both debt-holders and shareholders) and can be used for paying interest and principal, paying dividends, buying back shares, or investing in new projects. In short:

FCF=Net operating profit after tax (NOPAT)+Depreciation−Capital expenditures−ΔNet working capital\text{FCF}=\text{Net operating profit after tax (NOPAT)}+\text{Depreciation}-\text{Capital expenditures}-\Delta\text{Net working capital}

or, in the more common "free cash flow to the firm" (FCFF) form:

FCFF=EBIT(1−t)+Depreciation−CapEx−ΔNWC\text{FCFF}=\text{EBIT}(1-t)+\text{Depreciation}-\text{CapEx}-\Delta\text{NWC}

A closely related measure, free cash flow to equity (FCFE), is:

FCFE=Net income+Depreciation−CapEx−ΔNWC−Net debt repayment (principal)+Net new debt issued\text{FCFE}=\text{Net income}+\text{Depreciation}-\text{CapEx}-\Delta\text{NWC}-\text{Net debt repayment (principal)}+\text{Net new debt issued}

The key idea is that FCF is free — it is not committed to routine operations or to keeping the existing plant and equipment in working order. It is the discretionary cash flow available for distribution to investors or for discretionary reinvestment. Because it is a cash measure, it is harder to manipulate than accounting profit, which is why analysts, lenders and valuers rely on it heavily. FCF is also the foundation of discounted cash flow (DCF) valuation: the value of a firm is the present value of its expected future free cash flows discounted at the weighted average cost of capital (WACC).

Is positive free cash flow a healthy sign?

Yes — in general, a consistently positive free cash flow is a healthy sign, but with important qualifications. It is healthy because:

  1. Self-financing capacity. The firm generates enough cash to fund its own growth without depending on external debt or equity, reducing financial risk and the cost of capital.
  2. Debt-servicing ability. Positive FCF means the firm can meet interest and principal obligations from internal cash, lowering the chance of default.
  3. Shareholder returns. It can pay dividends or repurchase shares without borrowing, which signals financial strength.
  4. Quality of earnings. Positive FCF confirms that reported profits are backed by actual cash, not by credit sales or accounting accruals.
  5. Cushion in downturns. Cash reserves built from FCF let the firm survive recessions and seize opportunities when competitors are weak.

However, positive FCF is not automatically a sign of health, and negative FCF is not automatically a sign of sickness. Qualifications:

  • Positive FCF may signal under-investment. A firm may generate high FCF simply because it is not investing in new plant, R&D or market expansion. Such a firm may look healthy today but be eroding its future competitiveness. For a growing company, negative FCF is normal and often desirable, because heavy capital expenditure today produces higher cash flows tomorrow.
  • One-off items. FCF can be inflated by delaying payments to suppliers, cutting inventory, selling assets, or deferring maintenance — none of which is sustainable.
  • Stage of life cycle. A start-up or high-growth firm typically has negative FCF; a mature, stable firm typically has positive FCF. The same number means different things at different stages.
  • Comparison matters. FCF should be judged against the firm's size (FCF margin, FCF per share), its peers, its own history, and its cost of capital. A small positive FCF may be inadequate relative to the capital employed.
  • Use of the cash. Positive FCF is healthy only if it is deployed wisely — invested in positive-NPV projects or returned to shareholders — not hoarded or wasted on value-destroying acquisitions.

Conclusion. Free cash flow is the cash available to all capital providers after funding operations and necessary investment. A positive FCF is generally a healthy sign because it shows the firm can finance growth, service debt and reward shareholders from its own resources, and it validates the quality of reported earnings. But it must be interpreted in context: a mature firm with persistently positive FCF is strong, whereas a growth firm with negative FCF may also be strong if it is investing productively. The real test is whether the FCF is sustainable and whether it is being used to create value.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2024 · ACC 519 · 15 marks

Discuss about transfer pricing in decentralization condition in an organization. Explain the different methods of transfer pricing with suitable examples.

Answer

Transfer Pricing in Decentralization

1. Concept of Decentralization and Transfer Pricing

Decentralization is the practice of delegating decision-making authority to lower levels of management. In a decentralized organization, each division or department operates as a semi-autonomous responsibility centre (cost centre, profit centre, or investment centre) and is evaluated on its own performance.

When one such division supplies goods or services to another division within the same organization, a price must be placed on that internal transaction. This price is called the transfer price.

Transfer price is the price at which one division (the selling division) transfers goods or services to another division (the buying division) of the same organization.

Transfer pricing is the process of setting that price. It is essentially a management accounting technique used to coordinate the internal exchange of goods and services and to evaluate divisional performance fairly.

Why transfer pricing becomes important under decentralization

  1. Divisional autonomy — Since managers are free to make their own decisions, a transfer price is needed to record internal transactions and measure divisional profit.
  2. Goal congruence — A correct transfer price aligns the interest of the individual division with the overall interest of the organization. A wrong price may lead a division to act in its own interest at the cost of the firm.
  3. Performance evaluation — Divisional profit, ROI and residual income all depend on the transfer price. An unfair price demotivates managers.
  4. Optimal resource allocation — It guides the buying division to decide whether to buy internally or from outside, and the selling division whether to sell internally or externally.
  5. Autonomy with coordination — It preserves the independence of divisions while ensuring that the total profit of the company is maximized.

Objectives of transfer pricing

  • To provide relevant information for making optimal decisions (make or buy, sell internally or externally).
  • To evaluate divisional performance fairly and motivate divisional managers.
  • To maximize the overall profit of the organization.
  • To maintain divisional autonomy and goal congruence.

The general transfer pricing rule

The minimum transfer price acceptable to the selling division is:

Minimum transfer price=Variable cost per unit+Opportunity cost per unit\text{Minimum transfer price} = \text{Variable cost per unit} + \text{Opportunity cost per unit}

  • If the selling division has spare capacity, opportunity cost = 0, so the minimum price = variable cost.
  • If the selling division is operating at full capacity, opportunity cost = contribution lost on external sales, so the minimum price = variable cost + lost contribution (i.e., the market price).

The maximum transfer price acceptable to the buying division is the lower of the external purchase price and the net realizable value of the finished product less further processing costs.

A transfer price is optimal when it lies between the minimum and maximum, i.e. when it leads the buying division to buy internally exactly when internal buying is in the company's best interest.


2. Methods of Transfer Pricing

(a) Market-Based Transfer Price

The transfer price is set at the prevailing market price of the product, less any internal cost savings (e.g., selling and distribution expenses not incurred on internal sales).

Suitability: When a perfectly competitive market exists for the intermediate product and the selling division is at full capacity.

Example: Division A produces a component whose market price is Rs 500. Selling and distribution cost saved on internal sales is Rs 50. Division B needs the component. Transfer price = Rs 500 − Rs 50 = Rs 450.

Advantages: Objective, simple, fair to both divisions, preserves autonomy, encourages efficient use of resources.

Limitations: No market price may exist for specialized intermediate products; market prices may be temporary or distorted; internal savings may be difficult to measure.

(b) Cost-Based Transfer Price

The transfer price is based on the cost of production of the selling division. It may take three forms:

(i) Full Cost (Absorption Cost) Transfer price = variable cost + fixed cost per unit.

Example: Variable cost Rs 200, fixed cost per unit Rs 80 → transfer price = Rs 280.

Problem: The selling division earns no profit; it may not be motivated. It also passes on the inefficiency of the selling division to the buying division.

(ii) Full Cost Plus Mark-up Transfer price = full cost + a percentage mark-up for profit.

Example: Full cost Rs 280 + 20% mark-up = Rs 280 + 56 = Rs 336.

Advantage: Provides profit to the selling division. Problem: Mark-up is arbitrary; may lead to sub-optimal decisions.

(iii) Variable Cost (Marginal Cost) Transfer price = variable cost per unit only.

Example: Variable cost Rs 200 → transfer price = Rs 200.

Advantage: Useful when the selling division has idle capacity; it maximizes total contribution. Problem: Fixed costs of the selling division remain uncovered; divisional profit is understated and the manager is demotivated.

(c) Negotiated Transfer Price

The two divisional managers negotiate freely and agree on a price between the minimum (seller's variable cost + opportunity cost) and the maximum (buyer's external price).

Example: Selling division's minimum = Rs 200; buying division's maximum = Rs 280. They agree on Rs 240.

Advantages: Preserves autonomy, considers both parties' positions, resolves conflicts through bargaining.

Limitations: Time-consuming; success depends on negotiating skill; may cause conflict; may not be in the company's best interest if one party is stronger.

(d) Dual (Two-Part) Transfer Price

Two different prices are used simultaneously — one credited to the selling division (usually market price) and another charged to the buying division (usually variable cost). The difference is absorbed by the central/head office as a corporate account.

Example: Selling division credited Rs 450 (market price); buying division charged Rs 200 (variable cost); the difference of Rs 250 is borne by head office.

Advantages: Motivates both divisions; encourages internal buying; fair to both.

Limitations: Divisional profit no longer reflects true performance; head office absorbs a loss; may encourage inefficiency; not suitable for external reporting.

(e) Opportunity Cost-Based Transfer Price

The transfer price equals the variable cost plus the opportunity cost of the transfer. This is the general rule stated earlier and is theoretically the most correct method.

Example: Variable cost Rs 200; the selling division can sell externally and earn contribution of Rs 150 per unit but is at full capacity. Minimum transfer price = 200 + 150 = Rs 350.


3. Comparison of Methods

MethodBasisBest suited whenMain drawback
Market-basedMarket price less internal savingsCompetitive market, full capacityMarket price may not exist
Full costAbsorption costCost centres, no marketNo profit to seller
Cost plusFull cost + mark-upProfit centresArbitrary mark-up
Variable costMarginal costIdle capacityFixed cost uncovered
NegotiatedBargainingAutonomous divisionsTime-consuming, conflict
DualTwo pricesMotivation neededDistorts divisional profit
Opportunity costVC + opportunity costTheoretically idealOpportunity cost hard to measure

4. Conclusion

Transfer pricing is the backbone of divisional performance measurement in a decentralized organization. It must be designed so that divisional managers, while pursuing their own interests, automatically act in the best interest of the whole company. No single method is universally applicable — the choice depends on the existence of a market for the intermediate product, the capacity position of the selling division, and the degree of autonomy granted. In practice, firms often use a market-based price when a market exists, a negotiated or dual price to resolve conflicts, and a cost-based price as a fallback — always keeping in view the twin goals of goal congruence and fair divisional evaluation.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2024 · ACC 519 · 15 marks

ABC company wants to assess its financial stability amid fluctuating market conditions. The CFO analyzes liquidity ratios, solvency ratios, profitability ratios, and turnover ratios. What insights can these ratios provide about the company's ability to meet short-term obligations, manage debt, generate profits, and efficiently utilize assets?

Answer

Ratio Analysis and the Assessment of ABC Company's Financial Stability

1. Meaning and Purpose

A ratio expresses one financial statement figure in relation to another and thereby converts raw accounting data into meaningful information. Ratio analysis is the systematic use of these relationships to judge a firm's liquidity, solvency, profitability and operating efficiency, and to compare performance over time (trend analysis) and against competitors or industry averages (cross‑sectional analysis). For ABC Company, whose market conditions are fluctuating, ratios serve as an early‑warning system: they reveal whether the firm can pay its bills as they fall due, whether its debt burden is sustainable, whether it earns enough on its sales and capital, and whether its assets are being worked hard enough.

The four groups are complementary. Liquidity and solvency measure risk; profitability and turnover measure return and efficiency. A firm is financially stable only when risk and return are balanced.

2. Liquidity Ratios — Ability to Meet Short‑term Obligations

RatioFormulaABC (assumed figures)Industry
Current ratioCurrent assets ÷ Current liabilitiesRs 600,000 ÷ Rs 300,000 = 2.002.00
Quick ratio(CA − Inventory) ÷ CLRs 350,000 ÷ Rs 300,000 = 1.171.00
Cash ratio(Cash + Marketable securities) ÷ CLRs 50,000 ÷ Rs 300,000 = 0.170.20

Insights. A current ratio of 2.00 means ABC has Rs 2 of current assets for every rupee of current liability — the conventional 2:1 norm is satisfied, so the cushion against short‑term shocks is adequate. The quick ratio of 1.17 confirms that even after excluding inventory (the least liquid current asset) the firm can cover its current liabilities, indicating that liquidity does not depend on selling stock. The low cash ratio, however, shows that immediate cash is thin; ABC relies on collecting receivables and rolling over inventory to pay creditors. A ratio that is too high would signal idle cash and poor profitability, so 2.00 is efficient rather than excessive. Limitations: ratios are static, can be window‑dressed, and ignore the timing of cash inflows.

3. Solvency / Leverage Ratios — Ability to Manage Debt

RatioFormulaABCIndustry
Debt ratioTotal debt ÷ Total assetsRs 700,000 ÷ Rs 1,500,000 = 46.7%50%
Debt–equity ratioTotal debt ÷ EquityRs 700,000 ÷ Rs 800,000 = 0.8751.00
Times interest earnedEBIT ÷ InterestRs 180,000 ÷ Rs 60,000 = 3.004.50
Debt–service coverage(EBIT + Dep.) ÷ (Interest + Principal)——

Insights. Less than half of ABC's assets are financed by debt, so the firm is not highly geared and lenders still have a substantial equity cushion. The debt–equity ratio of 0.875 is below the industry norm, meaning unused debt capacity and hence room for further borrowing. The critical weakness is the times interest earned ratio of 3.00 against an industry norm of 4.50: EBIT could fall by about two‑thirds before interest cover is lost. In a fluctuating market this is thin, because a modest decline in sales would squeeze the coverage ratio sharply. ABC should therefore either reduce debt or raise EBIT before taking on new loans. The benefit of the existing leverage is that interest is tax‑deductible and shareholders' return is magnified — but so is financial risk.

4. Profitability Ratios — Ability to Generate Profits

RatioFormulaABCIndustry
Gross profit margin(Sales − COGS) ÷ SalesRs 600,000 ÷ Rs 2,400,000 = 25%28%
Net profit marginNet profit ÷ SalesRs 72,000 ÷ Rs 2,400,000 = 3%5%
Return on assetsNet profit ÷ Total assetsRs 72,000 ÷ Rs 1,500,000 = 4.8%8%
Return on equityNet profit ÷ EquityRs 72,000 ÷ Rs 800,000 = 9%14%
EPSNet profit ÷ No. of shares——

Insights. ABC earns a 25% gross margin, only slightly below the industry, so production and pricing are broadly sound. The fall from 25% to a 3% net margin indicates that operating expenses and interest are absorbing most of the gross profit — this is where the real problem lies. ROA of 4.8% and ROE of 9% are both well below industry, so the firm is not generating an adequate return on the capital invested. ROE exceeds ROA only because of financial leverage; without debt the return would be lower still. The Du Pont breakdown makes the diagnosis explicit:

ROE=Net profit margin×Total asset turnover×Equity multiplier=3%×1.6×1.875=9%\text{ROE} = \text{Net profit margin} \times \text{Total asset turnover} \times \text{Equity multiplier} = 3\% \times 1.6 \times 1.875 = 9\%

Both the margin and the turnover are weak; leverage is the only factor holding ROE up. ABC must improve operating cost control and asset productivity rather than borrow more.

5. Turnover / Efficiency Ratios — Utilization of Assets

RatioFormulaABCIndustry
Inventory turnoverCOGS ÷ InventoryRs 1,800,000 ÷ Rs 250,000 = 7.2 times9 times
Inventory holding period365 ÷ 7.250.7 days40.6 days
Receivables turnoverSales ÷ ReceivablesRs 2,400,000 ÷ Rs 300,000 = 8 times10 times
Average collection period365 ÷ 845.6 days36.5 days
Payables turnoverCOGS ÷ PayablesRs 1,800,000 ÷ Rs 200,000 = 9 times—
Payment period365 ÷ 940.6 days—
Total asset turnoverSales ÷ Total assetsRs 2,400,000 ÷ Rs 1,500,000 = 1.6 times2.0 times

Insights. Each rupee of assets produces only Rs 1.60 of sales against an industry average of Rs 2.00 — ABC is over‑invested in assets relative to its sales volume. Inventory turns 7.2 times a year, i.e. stock sits for about 51 days, roughly 10 days longer than competitors, tying up working capital and raising holding costs. Receivables are collected in about 46 days against 36.5 days in the industry, so credit policy is too liberal and the risk of bad debts is higher. The firm pays suppliers in about 41 days while waiting 46 days for its own customers, so it is financing its customers partly out of its own pocket. The cash conversion cycle summarises this:

CCC=50.7+45.6−40.6=55.7 days\text{CCC} = 50.7 + 45.6 - 40.6 = 55.7 \text{ days}

ABC must fund nearly two months of operations from its own resources — a direct drain on liquidity and a reason why the cash ratio is only 0.17.

6. Integrated Insights for ABC Company

  • Short‑term obligations: comfortably covered (current 2.00, quick 1.17), but the low cash ratio and long 55.7‑day cash cycle mean coverage depends on continued collection and inventory turnover. A slowdown in demand would quickly strain liquidity.
  • Debt management: gearing is conservative, but interest coverage of 3.00 times is the weakest link; the firm has unused borrowing capacity but should not use it until EBIT improves.
  • Profit generation: gross margin is near normal, but net margin, ROA and ROE are all below industry — the problem is operating cost and interest burden, not pricing.
  • Asset utilization: total asset turnover of 1.6 and slow inventory and receivable turnover show under‑utilized assets; releasing capital from inventory and receivables would improve both liquidity and return without new financing.
  • Trade‑off: ABC has chosen safety (high current ratio) at the cost of profitability. The optimal policy is to trim inventory and tighten credit, converting idle current assets into either sales or debt repayment.

7. Limitations

Ratios are only as reliable as the underlying statements; they are based on historical cost, are affected by accounting policy choices (inventory valuation, depreciation), can be distorted by window dressing, ignore qualitative factors such as management quality and market position, and require a comparable industry benchmark to be meaningful. A single ratio in isolation proves nothing — only a consistent pattern across the four groups does.

8. Conclusion

Ratio analysis gives ABC Company a clear, structured diagnosis: liquidity is adequate, leverage is moderate but interest coverage is thin, profitability is below par, and assets are not being used efficiently. The firm's financial stability is therefore conditional — it can meet short‑term obligations today, but its low margins and slow asset turnover leave little room to absorb market fluctuations. The priority actions are to control operating expenses, tighten credit and inventory management to shorten the cash conversion cycle, and defer additional borrowing until the times interest earned ratio improves toward the industry norm.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2024 · ACC 519 · 15 marks

Lalitpur Limited is considering adding one more unit in operation to produce solar rice cooker. The project will cost the company an investment Rs 19,000 and this will have a service life of three years. The company expects the following net cash benefits for the three years:
Year 1Year 2Year 3
Cash Flow (Rs)ProbabilityCash Flow (Rs)ProbabilityCash Flow (Rs)Probability
2,0000.104,0000.106,0000.10
5,0000.208,0000.208,0000.20
10,0000.3010,0000.3012,0000.40
12,0000.4014,0000.4016,0000.30
The expected cash flows have perfect correlation over time and company expects a minimum risk-free rate of return of 6%.
Required: (a) The expected cash flow for each year (b) The expected Net Present Value (NPV) and its desirability of the project. (c) The standard deviation of the cahs flow for each year (d) The standard deviation of the Net Present Value to measure the risk (e) If the probability distribution of net present values is assumed to be normal distribution, find out: (i) The chances of NPV is being less than Rs 1,000. (ii) Probability of being NPV is being more than Rs 8,000. (iii) Probability of NPV is being 20% above the mean value. [3+2+5+4.5+2+3]

Answer

(a) Expected cash flow (CFˉt=∑p⋅CF\bar{CF}_t = \sum p\cdot CF)

  • Year 1: 2000(0.1)+5000(0.2)+10000(0.3)+12000(0.4)=200+1000+3000+4800=2000(0.1)+5000(0.2)+10000(0.3)+12000(0.4) = 200+1000+3000+4800 = Rs 9,000
  • Year 2: 400+1600+3000+5600=400+1600+3000+5600 = Rs 10,600
  • Year 3: 600+1600+4800+4800=600+1600+4800+4800 = Rs 11,800

(b) Expected NPV (discounting at the risk-free rate of 6%)

NPV=9,0001.06+10,6001.062+11,8001.063−19,000NPV = \frac{9{,}000}{1.06}+\frac{10{,}600}{1.06^2}+\frac{11{,}800}{1.06^3}-19{,}000

=8,491+9,434+9,908−19,000=Rs 8,832= 8{,}491 + 9{,}434 + 9{,}908 - 19{,}000 = \text{Rs } 8{,}832

The expected NPV is positive, so the project is desirable and should be accepted.

(c) Standard deviation of cash flow for each year (σt=∑p(CF−CFˉ)2\sigma_t=\sqrt{\sum p(CF-\bar{CF})^2})

YearVarianceσt\sigma_t (Rs)
10.1(7000)2+0.2(4000)2+0.3(1000)2+0.4(3000)2=12,000,0000.1(7000)^2+0.2(4000)^2+0.3(1000)^2+0.4(3000)^2 = 12{,}000{,}0003,464
20.1(6600)2+0.2(2600)2+0.3(600)2+0.4(3400)2=10,440,0000.1(6600)^2+0.2(2600)^2+0.3(600)^2+0.4(3400)^2 = 10{,}440{,}0003,231
30.1(5800)2+0.2(3800)2+0.4(200)2+0.3(4200)2=11,560,0000.1(5800)^2+0.2(3800)^2+0.4(200)^2+0.3(4200)^2 = 11{,}560{,}0003,400

(d) Standard deviation of NPV

Since cash flows are perfectly correlated over time, the SD of NPV is the discounted sum of the yearly SDs:

σNPV=∑σt(1+r)t=3,4641.06+3,2311.062+3,4001.063\sigma_{NPV} = \sum \frac{\sigma_t}{(1+r)^t} = \frac{3{,}464}{1.06}+\frac{3{,}231}{1.06^2}+\frac{3{,}400}{1.06^3}

=3,268+2,876+2,855=Rs 8,998= 3{,}268 + 2{,}876 + 2{,}855 = \text{Rs } 8{,}998

(e) Probabilities (NPV normally distributed, mean Rs 8,832, σ\sigma = Rs 8,998; Z=X−NPVˉσZ=\dfrac{X-\bar{NPV}}{\sigma})

(i) NPV less than Rs 1,000: Z=1,000−8,8328,998=−0.87Z=\dfrac{1{,}000-8{,}832}{8{,}998}=-0.87. P(Z<−0.87)=0.5−0.3078=P(Z<-0.87)=0.5-0.3078 = 0.192 (about 19.2%).

(ii) NPV more than Rs 8,000: Z=8,000−8,8328,998=−0.09Z=\dfrac{8{,}000-8{,}832}{8{,}998}=-0.09. P(Z>−0.09)=0.5+0.0359=P(Z>-0.09)=0.5+0.0359 = 0.536 (about 53.6%).

(iii) NPV 20% above the mean: The value is 1.2×8,832=1.2\times 8{,}832 = Rs 10,598. Z=10,598−8,8328,998=0.20Z=\dfrac{10{,}598-8{,}832}{8{,}998}=0.20. P(Z>0.20)=0.5−0.0793=P(Z>0.20)=0.5-0.0793 = 0.421 (about 42.1%).

Conclusion: The project has a positive expected NPV of Rs 8,832, with about a 19% chance that NPV falls below Rs 1,000, so it is acceptable.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

  • 2024 · ACC 519

Dawson Company produces and sells 80,000 boxes of specialty foods each year. Each box contains the same assortment of food. The company has computed the following annual costs:
COST ITEMTOTAL COSTS
Variable production costsRs 400,000
Fixed production costs480,000
Variable selling costs320,000
Fixed selling and administrative costs200,000
Total costsRs 1,400,000
Dawson normally charges Rs 25 per box. A new distributor has offered to purchase 10,000 boxes at a special price of Rs 22 per box. Dawson will incur additional packaging costs of Rs 1 per box to complete this order.

Answer

Decision: Dawson Company should accept the special order.

1. Per-unit cost analysis (normal production of 80,000 boxes)

Cost itemTotal cost (Rs)Per box (Rs)
Variable production costs400,0005.00
Fixed production costs480,0006.00
Variable selling costs320,0004.00
Fixed selling and administrative costs200,0002.50
Total costs1,400,00017.50

2. Relevant cost for the special order (10,000 boxes)

Only variable costs and the additional packaging cost are relevant. Fixed costs remain unchanged whether the order is accepted or not.

Relevant cost itemPer box (Rs)For 10,000 boxes (Rs)
Variable production cost5.0050,000
Variable selling cost4.0040,000
Additional packaging cost1.0010,000
Total relevant cost10.00100,000

3. Incremental revenue and profit

ParticularsAmount (Rs)
Special order revenue: 10,000 × Rs 22220,000
Less: Total relevant cost(100,000)
Incremental profit from special order120,000

4. Conclusion

The special price of Rs 22 per box exceeds the relevant variable cost of Rs 10 per box. The order contributes Rs 12 per box towards fixed costs and profit. Since fixed costs are not affected, accepting the order increases Dawson’s total profit by Rs 120,000.

Therefore, Dawson Company should accept the new distributor’s offer.

Note: This conclusion assumes that Dawson has sufficient idle capacity to produce the additional 10,000 boxes without reducing its regular sales of 80,000 boxes. If the company is already operating at full capacity, accepting the order would require sacrificing regular sales, and the opportunity cost of Rs 16 per box (Rs 25 − Rs 5 − Rs 4) would make the special order unprofitable.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

Loading…

Questions from TU MBS 3rd Semester MGT 522 (MBS/Third Semester · MGT 522 · 2083), TU MBS 3rd Semester FIN 688 Corporate (MBS/Third Semester · FIN 688 Corporate Finance · 2025), TU MBS Third Semester ACC 519 (MBS Third Semester · ACC 519 · 2025), TU MBS 3rd Semester ACC 519 Accounting (MBS/Third Semester · ACC 519 · 2024) and TU MBS 3rd Semester FIN 688 Corporate (MBS/Third Semester · FIN 688 Corporate Finance · 2024). Answers are written for this site; check them against your class notes.