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Chapter 2

Mathematics and Quantitative Aptitude

Lok Sewa Aayog (Public Service Commission) past exam questions

Past questions and answers

7 questions set from this chapter. Most repeated first.

  • 2081 · Banking, Accounting, Mathematics and Computer · 5 marks

The marked price of an article is Rs. 75,000. Allowing 15% discount and including same percentage of VAT, the article is sold. Find the cost that has to be paid by the customer.

Answer

Marked price = Rs 75,000
Discount = 15%

Selling price after discount: =75,000×85100=Rs 63,750= 75{,}000 \times \frac{85}{100} = Rs\ 63{,}750

VAT = 15% on Rs 63,750: =63,750×15100=Rs 9,562.50= 63{,}750 \times \frac{15}{100} = Rs\ 9{,}562.50

Amount paid by customer: =63,750+9,562.50=Rs 73,312.50= 63{,}750 + 9{,}562.50 = Rs\ 73{,}312.50

The customer has to pay Rs 73,312.50.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2081 · Banking, Accounting, Mathematics and Computer · 5 marks

Hari borrowed a sum of money at the rate of 5% simple interest for 2 years and invested it in annual compound interest at the same rate and for the same duration of time. In this transaction if he gained Rs. 20, find that amount.

Answer

Let the borrowed sum be Rs PP.

Simple interest for 2 years at 5%:

ISI=P×5×2100=0.10PI_{SI} = \frac{P \times 5 \times 2}{100} = 0.10P

Amount to be repaid:

ASI=P+0.10P=1.10PA_{SI} = P + 0.10P = 1.10P

Compound amount for 2 years at 5%:

ACI=P(1+5100)2=P(1.05)2=1.1025PA_{CI} = P\left(1+\frac{5}{100}\right)^2 = P(1.05)^2 = 1.1025P

Gain in the transaction:

ACI−ASI=20A_{CI} - A_{SI} = 20

1.1025P−1.10P=201.1025P - 1.10P = 20

0.0025P=200.0025P = 20

P=200.0025=8000P = \frac{20}{0.0025} = 8000

Therefore, the borrowed sum is Rs 8,000.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2081 · Banking, Accounting, Mathematics and Computer · 5 marks

Find the standard deviation from the following figure.
Class interval6-88-1010-1212-14
Frequency856550100

Answer

Let the assumed mean be (A=10).

Class intervalMid-value (x)Frequency (f)(d=x-A)(fd)(fd^2)
6–8785−3−255765
8–10965−1−6565
10–12115015050
12–14131003300900
Total(N=300)(\sum fd=30)(\sum fd^2=1780)

Mean: [ \bar{x}=A+\frac{\sum fd}{N} =10+\frac{30}{300} =10+0.1=10.1 ]

Standard deviation: [ \sigma=\sqrt{\frac{\sum fd^2}{N}-\left(\frac{\sum fd}{N}\right)^2} ]

[ \sigma=\sqrt{\frac{1780}{300}-\left(\frac{30}{300}\right)^2} ]

[ \sigma=\sqrt{5.9333-0.01} =\sqrt{5.9233} =2.43 ]

[ \boxed{\text{Standard deviation }(\sigma)=2.43} ]

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2083 · 1st · 5 marks

Two taps, A and B, can fill an empty tank in 30 hours and 15 hours respectively. They both were turned on to fill the tank, but tap A was turned off after some time, and tap B took 12 hours to fill the tank. Find out after how much time tap A was turned off?

Answer

Given:

  • Tap A fills the tank in 30 hours.
  • Tap B fills the tank in 15 hours.
  • Both taps were opened together for some time, then A was closed.
  • B alone filled the remaining tank in 12 hours.

To find: After how much time was tap A turned off?

Solution:

Work done by A in 1 hour =130= \frac{1}{30}

Work done by B in 1 hour =115= \frac{1}{15}

Work done by both taps in 1 hour:

130+115=1+230=330=110\frac{1}{30}+\frac{1}{15} = \frac{1+2}{30} = \frac{3}{30} = \frac{1}{10}

Let tap A be turned off after tt hours.

Work done by both taps in tt hours =t10= \frac{t}{10}

Work done by B alone in 12 hours:

12×115=1215=4512 \times \frac{1}{15} = \frac{12}{15} = \frac{4}{5}

Since the tank is completely filled,

t10+45=1\frac{t}{10}+\frac{4}{5}=1 t10=1−45\frac{t}{10}=1-\frac{4}{5} t10=15\frac{t}{10}=\frac{1}{5} t=2t=2

Therefore, tap A was turned off after 2 hours.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2083 · 1st · 5 marks

Arjun bought two bicycles and he sold the first bicycle at a profit of 40% and the second bicycle at a loss of 15%. If the selling price of both the bicycles is equal i.e. Rs. 7140, what is his overall profit or loss percentage? Find.

Answer

Let the cost prices of the two bicycles be Rs CP1CP_1 and Rs CP2CP_2.

First bicycle: sold at 40% profit, SP = Rs 7140
SP1=CP1×140100SP_1 = CP_1 \times \frac{140}{100} 7140=CP1×1.47140 = CP_1 \times 1.4 CP1=71401.4=Rs 5100CP_1 = \frac{7140}{1.4} = Rs\,5100

Second bicycle: sold at 15% loss, SP = Rs 7140
SP2=CP2×85100SP_2 = CP_2 \times \frac{85}{100} 7140=CP2×0.857140 = CP_2 \times 0.85 CP2=71400.85=Rs 8400CP_2 = \frac{7140}{0.85} = Rs\,8400

Total cost price: CP=5100+8400=Rs 13500CP = 5100 + 8400 = Rs\,13500

Total selling price: SP=7140+7140=Rs 14280SP = 7140 + 7140 = Rs\,14280

Since SP>CPSP > CP, there is an overall profit.

Profit=14280−13500=Rs 780\text{Profit} = 14280 - 13500 = Rs\,780

Overall profit percent=78013500×100\text{Overall profit percent} = \frac{780}{13500} \times 100 =5.777…%=579%≈5.78%= 5.777\ldots\% = 5\frac{7}{9}\% \approx 5.78\%

Therefore, Arjun made an overall profit of approximately 5.78%.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2083 · 1st · 4 marks

Divide Rs. 840 in the ratio 2:3:7.

Answer

Given: Total amount = Rs. 840 Ratio = 2 : 3 : 7

Steps:

Sum of ratio terms: 2+3+7=122 + 3 + 7 = 12

Value of one part: 84012=Rs. 70\frac{840}{12} = \text{Rs. } 70

Shares:

First part: 2×70=Rs. 1402 \times 70 = \text{Rs. } 140

Second part: 3×70=Rs. 2103 \times 70 = \text{Rs. } 210

Third part: 7×70=Rs. 4907 \times 70 = \text{Rs. } 490

Check: 140+210+490=840✓140 + 210 + 490 = 840 \checkmark

Answer: The amounts are Rs. 140, Rs. 210 and Rs. 490 respectively.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2083 · 1st · 5 marks

A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn is blue? Find.

Answer

Given:

  • Red balls = 2
  • Green balls = 3
  • Blue balls = 2
  • Total balls = 2+3+2=72+3+2=7
  • Two balls are drawn at random.

To find: Probability that none of the drawn balls is blue.

Non-blue balls = Red + Green = 2+3=52+3=5

Total ways of drawing 2 balls from 7: n(S)=(72)=7×62=21n(S)={7 \choose 2}=\frac{7\times6}{2}=21

Favourable ways of drawing 2 balls from the 5 non-blue balls: n(E)=(52)=5×42=10n(E)={5 \choose 2}=\frac{5\times4}{2}=10

Therefore, P(E)=n(E)n(S)=1021P(E)=\frac{n(E)}{n(S)}=\frac{10}{21}

Alternative method: P(none blue)=57×46=2042=1021P(\text{none blue})=\frac{5}{7}\times\frac{4}{6}=\frac{20}{42}=\frac{10}{21}

Answer: The probability that none of the balls drawn is blue is 1021\boxed{\frac{10}{21}}.

Answer checked by Claude Haiku · Oct 21, 2026

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