Chapter 5
Human Biology and Physiology
MBBS and BDS entrance past exam questions
Past questions and answers
164 questions set from this chapter. Most repeated first.
- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:
(a) more than that in the carotid.
(b) more than that in the pulmonary vein.
(c) less than that in the venae cavae.
(d) same as that in the aorta.
Answer
(b) more than that in the pulmonary vein.
Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle at about 25/8 mm Hg, while the pulmonary vein returns blood to the left atrium at a lower pressure. It is far lower than the carotid or aorta (about 120/80 mm Hg), and blood pressure falls along the circuit, so the venae cavae have the lowest.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:
(a) Asthma
(b) Respiratory acidosis
(c) Respiratory alkalosis
(d) Emphysema
Answer
(d) Emphysema
Cigarette smoking damages alveolar walls and reduces the respiratory surface, causing emphysema (a chronic obstructive disorder). Asthma is mainly an allergic or inflammatory bronchial condition. Acidosis and alkalosis are blood pH disturbances, not smoking-specific disorders.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?
(a) Insulin - Glucagon
(b) Aldosterone - Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(c) Relaxin - Inhibin
(d) Parathormone - Calcitonin
Answer
(c) Relaxin - Inhibin
Relaxin relaxes the pubic symphysis at parturition, and inhibin suppresses FSH; they do not oppose each other. Insulin/glucagon, aldosterone/ANF (Na+ retention vs loss) and parathormone/calcitonin (raise vs lower blood Ca2+) are antagonistic pairs.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:
(a) Opsin and Retinal
(b) Opsin and Retinol
(c) Transducin and Retinene
(d) Guanosine and Retinol
Answer
(a) Opsin and Retinal
The photopigment rhodopsin (visual purple) of rods consists of the protein opsin bound to retinal, the aldehyde of vitamin A. Retinol is the alcohol form, and transducin is a G-protein in the signalling cascade, not part of the pigment.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because:
(a) Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
(b) Small animals have a lower requirement.
(c) The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.
(d) It is easier to carry a small body weight.
Answer
(a) Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
Small animals have a larger surface area to volume ratio and a higher metabolic rate per unit mass, so they can supply energy quickly for work against gravity. Option (b) is wrong because their O2 need per gram is higher, and muscle efficiency is not size dependent in the way option (c) claims.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Reduction in pH of blood will:
(a) reduce the blood supply to the brain.
(b) decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen.
(c) release bicarbonate ions by the liver.
(d) reduce the rate of heart beat.
Answer
(b) decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen.
A fall in pH (more H+ or CO2) shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right (Bohr effect), lowering Hb affinity for O2 and aiding O2 release to tissues. Acidity actually increases heart rate and brain blood flow, so (a) and (d) are wrong.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:
(a) Fatigue
(b) Tetanus
(c) Tonus
(d) Spasm
Answer
(b) Tetanus
When stimuli arrive so rapidly that the muscle cannot relax between them, contractions fuse into a sustained contraction called tetanus. Fatigue is the loss of ability to contract after prolonged activity; tonus is the partial contraction at rest.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?
(a) Ileocaecal valve
(b) Pyloric sphincter
(c) Sphincter of Oddi
(d) Semilunar valve
Answer
(c) Sphincter of Oddi
The sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of the hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum. The pyloric sphincter lies between stomach and duodenum, the ileocaecal valve between ileum and caecum, and the semilunar valves are in the heart.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the:
(a) parietal cells
(b) peptic cells
(c) acidic cells
(d) gastrin secreting cells
Answer
(a) parietal cells
Parietal (oxyntic) cells of the gastric glands secrete HCl and intrinsic factor. Peptic (chief) cells secrete pepsinogen, and G cells secrete gastrin; "acidic cells" do not exist.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?
(a) Dorsal Aorta
(b) Hepatic Vein
(c) Hepatic Portal Vein
(d) Renal Vein
Answer
(b) Hepatic Vein
Urea is synthesised in the liver by the ornithine cycle, so the blood leaving the liver through the hepatic vein carries the most urea. The hepatic portal vein brings blood from the intestine before urea is formed, and the renal vein carries blood after the kidney has removed urea.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for synthesis of:
(a) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine
(b) Estrogen and Progesterone
(c) Cortisol and Cortisone
(d) Melatonin and Serotonin
Answer
(d) Melatonin and Serotonin
Tryptophan is the precursor of serotonin and melatonin. Thyroid hormones are made from tyrosine, while sex steroids and corticoids (cortisol, cortisone) are derived from cholesterol.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
(a) Insulin and glucagon
(b) Angiotensin and epinephrine
(c) Gastrin and insulin
(d) Cholecystokinin and secretin
Answer
(d) Cholecystokinin and secretin
Secretin stimulates bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice and CCK stimulates enzyme secretion and gall bladder contraction. Insulin, glucagon, angiotensin and epinephrine do not regulate pancreatic juice secretion.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is:
(a) less than that of carbon dioxide
(b) equal to that in the blood
(c) more than that in the blood
(d) less than that in the blood
Answer
(c) more than that in the blood
Alveolar pO2 is about 104 mm Hg whereas deoxygenated blood arriving has about 40 mm Hg, so O2 diffuses from alveoli into blood. Alveolar pCO2 is only about 40 mm Hg, far lower than pO2, so (a) is wrong.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Choose the correct statement.
(a) Receptors do not produce graded potentials.
(b) Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure.
(c) Meissner's corpuscles are thermoreceptors.
(d) Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarized during darkness and become hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus.
Answer
(d) Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarized during darkness and become hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus.
In darkness, photoreceptors have open Na+ channels (dark current) and release neurotransmitter; light closes the channels and causes hyperpolarization. Receptors do produce graded potentials, nociceptors sense pain, and Meissner's corpuscles are touch receptors.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Graves' disease is caused due to:
(a) hypersecretion of adrenal gland
(b) hyposecretion of thyroid gland
(c) hypersecretion of thyroid gland
(d) hyposecretion of adrenal gland
Answer
(c) hypersecretion of thyroid gland
Graves' disease is an autoimmune form of hyperthyroidism (exophthalmic goitre) with excess thyroid hormone. Hyposecretion of the thyroid causes cretinism or myxoedema, and adrenal disorders cause Addison's or Cushing's.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle contraction.
(a) Potassium
(b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium
(d) Sodium
Answer
(b) Calcium
Ca2+ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds troponin C, moving tropomyosin and unmasking the active sites on actin for myosin heads to form cross-bridges.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.
(a) Thrombocytes
(b) Erythrocytes
(c) Leucocytes
(d) Neutrophils
Answer
(a) Thrombocytes
Thrombocytes (platelets) release clotting factors and form the platelet plug, so low numbers (thrombocytopenia) cause clotting disorders and excessive bleeding. Erythrocytes carry gases and leucocytes defend the body.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization.
(a) Gastrin
(b) Insulin
(c) Glucagon
(d) Secretin
Answer
(b) Insulin
Insulin, a peptide hormone from pancreatic beta cells, acts mainly on hepatocytes and adipocytes, enhancing glucose uptake and utilisation and lowering blood glucose. Glucagon does the opposite, while gastrin and secretin act on the digestive system.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to:
(a) accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints
(b) immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue
(c) high concentration of and
(d) decreased level of estrogen
Answer
(d) decreased level of estrogen
Osteoporosis is the age-related loss of bone mass, and the decreased estrogen after menopause is a major cause. Uric acid accumulation causes gout, and fatigue from a neuromuscular immune disorder is myasthenia gravis.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Serum differs from blood in:
(a) lacking antibodies
(b) lacking globulins
(c) lacking albumins
(d) lacking clotting factors
Answer
(d) lacking clotting factors
Serum is plasma without fibrinogen and other clotting factors; it still contains antibodies, globulins and albumins.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because:
(a) pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure
(b) there is a negative pressure in the lungs
(c) there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
(d) there is a positive intrapleural pressure
Answer
(c) there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
The pleural fluid and the sealed thoracic cavity keep intrapleural pressure slightly below atmospheric, which holds the lungs expanded against the chest wall. Hence some air (residual volume) always stays in the lungs. Option (a) is wrong because intrapulmonary pressure equals atmospheric pressure at rest. Option (d) is wrong because a positive intrapleural pressure would collapse the lungs.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true' endocrine gland because:
(a) it secretes enzymes
(b) it is provided with a duct
(c) it only stores and releases hormones
(d) it is under the regulation of hypothalamus
Answer
(c) it only stores and releases hormones
The neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary) does not synthesise its hormones. Oxytocin and vasopressin are made in the hypothalamus and only stored and released from here. Option (d) is true of the gland but does not make it 'not true'; the anterior pituitary is also hypothalamus-regulated. Endocrine glands are ductless, so (b) is wrong.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is:
(a) descending limb of Henle's loop
(b) distal convoluted tubule
(c) proximal convoluted tubule
(d) Bowman's capsule
Answer
(c) proximal convoluted tubule
About 70 percent of filtered Na is reabsorbed in the PCT, largely by active transport (Na/K ATPase) with water following. The descending limb of Henle's loop is permeable mainly to water, the DCT reabsorbs only a regulated smaller fraction (aldosterone), and Bowman's capsule only filters.
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- 2016 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?
(a) Efferent ductules → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis
(b) Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas deferens
(c) Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent ductules → Vas deferens
(d) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Efferent ductules → Epididymis
Answer
(b) Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas deferens
Sperms leave the seminiferous tubules into the rete testis, pass through the efferent ductules (vasa efferentia) into the epididymis, then to the vas deferens. All other options reverse some step of this sequence.
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- 2015 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following joints would allow no movement?
(a) Fibrous joint
(b) Cartilaginous joint
(c) Synovial joint
(d) Ball and Socket joint
Answer
(a) Fibrous joint
Fibrous joints, such as skull sutures, have bones united by dense fibrous tissue and permit no movement. Cartilaginous joints allow slight movement, and synovial joints (including ball and socket) allow free movement.
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- 2015 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which one of the following hormones is not involved in sugar metabolism?
(a) Cortisone
(b) Aldosterone
(c) Insulin
(d) Glucagon
Answer
(b) Aldosterone
Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid that regulates Na and K balance (and water), not sugar metabolism. Cortisone/cortisol (gluconeogenesis), insulin (lowers glucose) and glucagon (raises glucose) all act on sugar metabolism.
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- 2015 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
(a) Production of erythrocytes
(b) Storage of minerals
(c) Production of body heat
(d) Locomotion
Answer
(c) Production of body heat
The skeleton makes blood cells (red marrow), stores calcium and phosphate, and supports locomotion with muscles. Body heat is produced mainly by muscle and metabolic activity, not by the skeletal system.
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- 2015 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which one of the following hormones though synthesized elsewhere, is stored and released by the master gland?
(a) Antidiuretic hormone
(b) Luteinizing hormone
(c) Prolactin
(d) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
Answer
(a) Antidiuretic hormone
ADH (vasopressin) is synthesised in the hypothalamus and stored and released from the posterior pituitary, the 'master gland'. LH, prolactin and MSH are made in the anterior/intermediate pituitary itself.
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- 2015 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord would result in loss of:
(a) sensory impulses
(b) voluntary motor impulses
(c) commissural impulses
(d) integrating impulses
Answer
(b) voluntary motor impulses
The anterior (ventral) horn of the spinal cord contains motor neurons whose axons leave via the ventral root to supply skeletal muscle. Their destruction causes loss of voluntary motor output. Sensory input enters via the dorsal horn.
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- 2015 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The primary dentition in human differs from permanent dentition in not having one of the following type of teeth:
(a) Canine
(b) Premolars
(c) Molars
(d) Incisors
Answer
(b) Premolars
Milk dentition has 20 teeth: incisors, canines and molars (dental formula ). Premolars appear only in the permanent dentition (32 teeth).
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- 2015 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Human urine is usually acidic because:
(a) the sodium transporter exchanges one hydrogen ion for each sodium ion, in peritubular capillaries.
(b) excreted plasma proteins are acidic.
(c) potassium and sodium exchange generates acidity.
(d) hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the filtrate.
Answer
(d) hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the filtrate.
The PCT, DCT and collecting duct secrete H (and K) into the filtrate and reabsorb bicarbonate, which acidifies urine to about pH 6. Plasma proteins are not normally excreted.
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- 2015 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
In mammalian eye, the 'fovea' is the center of the visual field, where:
(a) high density of cones occur, but has no rods.
(b) the optic nerve leaves the eye.
(c) only rods are present.
(d) more rods than cones are found.
Answer
(a) high density of cones occur, but has no rods.
The fovea centralis in the macula lutea has only cones, giving the sharpest daylight vision. The blind spot, where the optic nerve leaves, has no photoreceptors, and rods are mostly in the periphery.
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- 2015 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls.
(a) Pleurisy
(b) Emphysema
(c) Pneumonia
(d) Asthma
Answer
(b) Emphysema
In emphysema the alveolar walls are damaged (commonly by smoking), so the respiratory surface area is drastically reduced. Pleurisy affects the pleura, pneumonia fills alveoli with fluid by infection, and asthma narrows bronchi.
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- 2015 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The enzyme that is not present in succus entericus is:
(a) maltase
(b) nucleases
(c) nucleosidase
(d) lipase
Answer
(d) lipase
Succus entericus (intestinal juice) contains disaccharidases (maltase, etc.), nucleases and nucleosidases, and some lipase is also described in older texts. In the NCERT list the enzyme not included is lipase, which is the key answer. Pancreatic juice supplies the main lipase.
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- 2015 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when:
(a) AV valves open up
(b) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria
(c) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles
(d) AV node receives signal from SA node
Answer
(c) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles
The first sound (lub) is due to closure of the AV valves at the start of ventricular systole. The second sound (dub) is due to closure of the semilunar valves at the start of ventricular diastole. AV valve opening is silent.
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- 2014 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system:
Type of joint : Example
(a) Gliding joint : between carpals
(b) Cartilaginous joint : between frontal and parietal
(c) Pivot joint : between third and fourth cervical vertebrae
(d) Hinge joint : between humerus and pectoral girdle
Answer
(a) Gliding joint : between carpals
Gliding joints occur between carpals. Skull sutures (frontal-parietal) are fibrous, not cartilaginous. Atlas-axis is the pivot joint, not C3-C4, and the humerus-pectoral girdle joint is ball and socket, not hinge.
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- 2014 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt:
(a) regulation of body temperature.
(b) short-term memory.
(c) co-ordination during locomotion.
(d) executive functions, such as decision making.
Answer
(a) regulation of body temperature.
The hypothalamus contains the thermoregulatory centre, along with hunger, thirst and other homeostatic centres. Short-term memory is limbic/hippocampal, locomotor coordination is cerebellar, and decision making is cortical.
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- 2014 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function:
(a) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall - increases the blood pressure.
(b) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands.
(c) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle.
(d) Progesterone - corpus luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs.
Answer
(c) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle.
The pineal gland secretes melatonin, which regulates the diurnal rhythm. ANF comes from the atria and lowers blood pressure, oxytocin causes contraction (not mammary growth), and progesterone supports pregnancy and endometrial maintenance.
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- 2014 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is:
(a) Vasa efferentia
(b) Urethra
(c) Ureter
(d) Vas deferens
Answer
(b) Urethra
In the male the urethra carries both urine (from the bladder) and semen (via the ejaculatory duct), so it is the shared terminal duct. The vasa efferentia and vas deferens are only reproductive, and the ureter is only urinary.
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- 2014 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?
(a) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases.
(b) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output.
(c) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output.
(d) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase.
Answer
(b) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output.
Parasympathetic (vagal) stimulation reduces the rate of SA node firing and conduction, lowering heart rate. Since cardiac output = heart rate stroke volume, it also falls. Sympathetic signals do the opposite.
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- 2014 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has:
(a) both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies.
(b) both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.
(c) both A and B antibodies in the plasma.
(d) no antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma.
Answer
(b) both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.
Group AB RBCs carry both A and B antigens, so the plasma has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies. With nothing to attack donor cells, an AB person can receive blood of any ABO group (universal recipient). Option (a) is wrong because antigens sit on the RBC surface, not in plasma.
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- 2014 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of:
(a) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.
(b) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate.
(c) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway.
(d) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Answer
(d) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
In fight-or-flight, the sympathetic system stimulates the adrenal medulla to release adrenaline and noradrenaline. These raise heart rate, blood glucose and alertness. Option (a) is wrong because blood sugar rises, not falls, and (c) is wrong because the renin-angiotensin pathway is activated, not suppressed.
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- 2014 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called:
(a) co-transport mechanism
(b) active transport
(c) facilitated transport
(d) simple diffusion
Answer
(c) facilitated transport
Fructose is absorbed by facilitated diffusion through carrier proteins (GLUT5), moving down its concentration gradient without using energy. Glucose and amino acids use Na+ co-transport (active), which is why (a) and (b) are tempting but apply to other nutrients. Fructose is too large and polar for simple diffusion.
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- 2014 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Approximately seventy percent of carbon-dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs:
(a) as carbamino-haemoglobin
(b) as bicarbonate ions
(c) in the form of dissolved gas molecules
(d) by binding to R.B.C
Answer
(b) as bicarbonate ions
About 70% of CO2 is carried as bicarbonate: in RBCs carbonic anhydrase converts CO2 and water to H2CO3, which dissociates to and H+. Roughly 20-25% travels as carbamino-haemoglobin and about 7% dissolves in plasma, so (a) and (c) are minor fractions.
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- 2014 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at:
(a) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
(b) the neuromuscular junction
(c) the transverse tubules
(d) the myofibril
Answer
(b) the neuromuscular junction
A motor neuron stimulates a muscle fibre at the neuromuscular (motor end plate) synapse, where acetylcholine is released. The impulse then spreads along the sarcolemma and T-tubules to the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which releases Ca2+ for contraction. So (a), (c) and (d) act after the stimulation, not at the site of stimulation.
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- 2014 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by:
(a) Pepsin
(b) Lipase
(c) Trypsin
(d) Rennin
Answer
(d) Rennin
Rennin (in the gastric juice of infants) acts first on milk, curdling the soluble casein into insoluble calcium paracaseinate so that it stays longer for pepsin to act. Pepsin and trypsin then digest proteins, and lipase acts on fats, but these are not the initial step in milk digestion. This follows the standard key.
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- 2014 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only.
(b) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photo pigments.
(c) In retina the rods have the photopigment rhodopsin while cones have three different photopigments.
(d) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin C.
Answer
(d) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin C.
Retinal is derived from vitamin A, not vitamin C, so this statement is false. The other statements are correct: rhodopsin (opsin plus retinal) is the purplish-red pigment of rods only, retinal absorbs light, and cones have three photopigments for red, green and blue.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2014 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?
(a) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels
(b) Increase in aldosterone levels
(c) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
(d) Decrease in aldosterone levels
Answer
(b) Increase in aldosterone levels
Aldosterone from the adrenal cortex acts on the DCT and collecting duct to increase Na+ reabsorption (and water follows). ADH mainly increases water reabsorption, not sodium, and a decrease in aldosterone would reduce sodium reabsorption.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2013 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to:
(a) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band
(b) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band
(c) The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band
(d) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band
Answer
(b) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band
The H-zone is the central part of the A-band that has only thick (myosin) filaments, because the thin actin filaments from the two sides do not reach it. It is the region between the ends of actin filaments. Option (c) is wrong because the actin filaments do not extend into the H-zone, and it is not a place without myofibrils.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2013 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column I with their absorption site and mechanism in column II.
(a) Glycine, glucose : Small intestine, active absorption
(b) Fructose, : Small intestine passive absorption
(c) Glycerol, fatty acids : Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
(d) Cholesterol, maltose : Large intestine, active absorption
Answer
(a) Glycine, glucose : Small intestine, active absorption
Amino acids (glycine) and glucose are absorbed in the small intestine by active (Na+ co-transport) mechanisms. Fructose is absorbed by facilitated diffusion (and Na+ actively), so (b) is wrong. Fatty acids and glycerol are first incorporated into micelles, and chylomicrons form in the intestinal cells and enter lacteals, so (c) is wrong. Cholesterol and maltose are not absorbed in the large intestine.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2013 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of:
(a) Deficiency of iodine in diet
(b) Low secretion of growth hormone
(c) Cancer of the thyroid gland
(d) Over secretion of pars distalis
Answer
(a) Deficiency of iodine in diet
Iodine deficiency in the mother causes low thyroxine in the foetus, which results in cretinism: stunted growth, mental retardation, low IQ and abnormal skin. Low growth hormone alone causes dwarfism without mental retardation, and thyroid cancer or an over-secreting pars distalis is not the cause.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2013 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
In the standard ECG of a normal person, the P-wave represents the:
(a) Contraction of both the atria
(b) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
(c) Beginning of the systole
(d) End of systole
Answer
(a) Contraction of both the atria
The P-wave represents atrial depolarisation, which leads to atrial contraction. The QRS complex marks the start of ventricular contraction (the beginning of systole), and the T-wave marks ventricular repolarisation (the end of systole).
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2013 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans:
(a) A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people.
(b) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation.
(c) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.
(d) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint.
Answer
(b) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation.
This is gout. Osteoporosis in the elderly is linked with decreased oestrogen, not progesterone. Humans have 12 thoracic vertebrae, not 10. The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint, not fibrous.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2013 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is:
(a) Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements : Knee joints
(b) Fluid filled between two joints, provides cushion : Skull bones
(c) Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones : Joint between atlas and axis
(d) Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement : Gliding joint between carpals
Answer
(c) Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones : Joint between atlas and axis
A synovial joint has a fluid-filled synovial cavity between the bones, allowing considerable movement. The atlas-axis joint is a pivot joint of this type. The knee is a synovial joint but not "fluid cartilage"; skull sutures are fibrous joints; and the cavity holds synovial fluid, not lymph.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2013 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following statement is correct in relation to the endocrine system?
(a) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.
(b) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones.
(c) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular messenger are known as hormones.
(d) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland.
Answer
(c) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular messenger are known as hormones.
This is the modern definition of a hormone. The adenohypophysis is controlled by hypothalamic hormones through the portal system, not direct neural control. The GI tract, heart, kidney and liver do produce hormones. Releasing and inhibiting hormones come from the hypothalamus, not the pituitary.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2013 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom:
(a) Anterior pituitary : Oxytocin : Stimulates uterus contraction during child birth
(b) Posterior pituitary : Growth Hormone (GH) : Oversecretion stimulates abnormal growth
(c) Thyroid gland : Thyroxine : Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre
(d) Corpus luteum : Testosterone : Stimulates spermatogenesis
Answer
(c) Thyroid gland : Thyroxine : Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre
Thyroxine needs iodine, and its deficiency causes a thyroid enlargement (simple goitre). Oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary, growth hormone from the anterior pituitary, and the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, whereas testosterone comes from the testes.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
An athlete while running fell on the track. She used her hands to sustain minimal injury. In the process, her hands received the maximum blow on the joints. Which combination of joints would be badly affected in this accident ?
(a) Fibrous and cartilaginous joints
(b) Fibrous and synovial joints
(c) Cartilaginous and synovial joints
(d) Cartilaginous and synaptic joints
Answer
(c) Cartilaginous and synovial joints
A fall on outstretched hands sends the force through the wrist, elbow and shoulder, which are synovial joints. The shock also travels up to the vertebral column, whose intervertebral discs are cartilaginous joints. Fibrous joints (skull sutures) are not loaded by this blow, so options with fibrous joints are wrong, and 'synaptic' is not a type of joint.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following ossicles is adhered to tympanic membrane of middle ear ?
(a) Incus
(b) Stapes
(c) Utricle
(d) Malleus
Answer
(d) Malleus
The three ear ossicles run malleus, incus, stapes from outside inward. The malleus handle is attached to the tympanic membrane, and the stapes sits against the oval window. The utricle is part of the membranous labyrinth, not an ossicle.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Trace the correct path of sperm from seminiferous tubules :
(a) Rete testis epididymis vasa efferentia vas deferens
(b) Vasa efferentia rete testis vas deferens epididymis
(c) Epididymis vasa efferentia rete testis vas deferens
(d) Rete testis vasa efferentia epididymis vas deferens
Answer
(d) Rete testis → vasa efferentia → epididymis → vas deferens
Sperm formed in the seminiferous tubules pass into the rete testis, leave the testis through the vasa efferentia, are stored and matured in the epididymis, and then travel along the vas deferens. The other options break this order.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
A large amount of about 180 L of fluid is filtered by the human kidneys per day. Which one of the following renal corpuscle features does not justify this ?
(a) The glomerular capillaries have a large surface area.
(b) The glomerular capillaries are fenestrated and hence leakier than other capillaries.
(c) The glomerular capillaries have a higher blood pressure than the other capillaries of the body.
(d) The efferent arteriole is wider than the afferent arteriole causing easier outflow of blood from the glomerulus.
Answer
(d) The efferent arteriole is wider than the afferent arteriole causing easier outflow of blood from the glomerulus.
This statement is false. The efferent arteriole is narrower than the afferent arteriole, which builds up high hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus and drives filtration. The large capillary surface area, fenestrations and high pressure all do justify the roughly 180 L/day filtrate.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following cannot be measured by spirometry ?
(a) Tidal volume
(b) Inspiratory reserve volume
(c) Residual volume
(d) Vital capacity
Answer
(c) Residual volume
A spirometer measures only air that moves in and out, giving tidal volume, IRV, ERV and vital capacity. Residual volume stays in the lungs after maximal expiration and cannot be exhaled, so it needs other methods such as helium dilution.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Air pollution can result in Emphysema, which is :
(a) Chronic damage to air sacs or alveoli leading to abnormal reduction in respiratory surface area
(b) Persistant inflammation and damage to the cells lining the bronchi and bronchioles
(c) An allergic reaction causing muscle spasms in the bronchial walls
(d) Damage to any Lung tissue causing increase in elasticity of the air sacs
Answer
(a) Chronic damage to air sacs or alveoli leading to abnormal reduction in respiratory surface area
Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged, reducing the respiratory surface. Option (b) describes chronic bronchitis and (c) describes asthma, which are tempting but different. Option (d) is wrong because elasticity is lost, not increased.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following type of muscle fibres will be the first one to undergo fatigue ?
(a) Slow oxidative fibres
(b) Fast oxidative - glycolytic fibres
(c) Fast glycolytic fibres
(d) Aerobic fibres
Answer
(c) Fast glycolytic fibres
Fast glycolytic (white) fibres have few mitochondria and little myoglobin and depend on anaerobic glycolysis, so lactic acid builds up quickly and they fatigue first. Slow oxidative (red) fibres use aerobic respiration and resist fatigue for long periods.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
All the components of the conducting system can generate an action potential for the contraction of heart muscle, but the sino-atrial node acts as the pacemaker because :
(a) All the other components in heart cannot conduct the action potential.
(b) Only the sino-atrial node is auto-excitable and auto-rhythmic.
(c) The sino-atrial node has a higher inherent rate of depolarisation.
(d) The sino-atrial node has a lower inherent rate of depolarisation.
Answer
(c) The sino-atrial node has a higher inherent rate of depolarisation.
Many conducting tissues are auto-excitable, but the SA node depolarises fastest (about 70-75 per minute), so it reaches threshold first and sets the pace for the whole heart. Option (b) is wrong because other parts are also auto-excitable, only slower.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Thymosin is responsible for :
(a) Inhibiting the production of antibodies
(b) Decreasing the blood calcium level in old individuals
(c) Increased production of T-lymphocytes
(d) Decreased production of T-lymphocytes
Answer
(c) Increased production of T-lymphocytes
Thymosin from the thymus promotes differentiation and maturation of T-lymphocytes, supporting cell-mediated immunity. It does not inhibit antibodies. The thymus degenerates with age, so thymosin output falls in older people.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The Pacinian corpuscle responds to rapid changes in :
(a) gravity
(b) pressure
(c) temperature
(d) light intensity
Answer
(b) pressure
The Pacinian corpuscle is a mechanoreceptor in the dermis with concentric layers around a nerve ending. It senses rapid changes in pressure and vibration, not temperature, light or gravity.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Cholecystokinin acts on :
(a) Gastric glands and liver
(b) Pancreas and duodenum
(c) Pancreas and intestine
(d) Pancreas and gall bladder
Answer
(d) Pancreas and gall bladder
Cholecystokinin (CCK), secreted by the duodenal mucosa in response to fats and proteins, stimulates the pancreas to release pancreatic juice and the gall bladder to release bile.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The table gives the amounts of some substances (in grams) in the glomerular filtrate, the amount reabsorbed and the amount in urine.
Substance Glomerular Filtrate Reabsorbed Urine (i) Proteins 2 g 1.9 g 0.1 g (ii) Glucose 162 g 162 g 0 g (iii) Urea 54 g 24 g 30 g (iv) Creatinine 1.6 g 0 g 1.7 g
(i) Glucose is completely reabsorbed
(ii) Urea is partially reabsorbed
(iii) Proteins are secreted into urine
(iv) Creatinine is secreted into urine
Which of the following options, in view of above statements is correct ?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Glucose filtered 162 g and reabsorbed 162 g, so it is completely reabsorbed. Urea 54 g filtered with 24 g reabsorbed is partial reabsorption. Creatinine appears in urine (1.7 g) at more than the filtered 1.6 g with nothing reabsorbed, so it is secreted. Statement (iii) is wrong: proteins are mostly reabsorbed (1.9 of 2 g), not secreted.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
In the heart, as the action potential reaches the AV node from the SA node, there is a delay of the action potential. This delay is important because :
(a) It allows atria to rest.
(b) It allows a stronger right atrial contraction.
(c) It allows ventricles to receive all the blood from the atria.
(d) It allows right atria to receive the blood from vena cava.
Answer
(c) It allows ventricles to receive all the blood from the atria.
The AV nodal delay of about 0.1 s lets the atria finish contracting and empty fully into the ventricles before ventricular systole begins. Atria do not need rest for this purpose, and the delay has nothing to do with venous return.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following statements is not true ?
(a) Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to solutes.
(b) Distal convoluted tubule functions in , homeostasis.
(c) Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
(d) Loop of Henle is largely responsible for concentrated urine.
Answer
(c) Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
This is false: the descending limb is permeable to water and nearly impermeable to electrolytes, so water leaves and the filtrate becomes concentrated. The ascending limb is the one impermeable to water. The DCT regulates Na+ and K+, and the loop of Henle helps produce concentrated urine.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2017 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The difference between Marasmus and Kwashiorkor is that :
(a) Marasmus is caused by deficiency of Vitamin B while Kwashiorkor is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin D.
(b) Marasmus is caused by a calorie deficiency while Kwashiorkor is caused by protein deficiency.
(c) Marasmus is a simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories while Kwashiorkor is due to just protein deficiency unaccompanied by calorie deficiency.
(d) Marasmus is a deficiency of just proteins while Kwashiorkor is due to a deficiency of both proteins and calories.
Answer
(b) Marasmus is caused by a calorie deficiency while Kwashiorkor is caused by protein deficiency.
Marasmus arises from overall energy (calorie) deficiency in infants, with severe wasting, while kwashiorkor arises from protein deficiency with relatively adequate calories, producing oedema and a swollen belly. Vitamin B and D deficiencies cause other disorders, so (a) is wrong, and (c) and (d) misstate the causes.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively ?
(a) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(b) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
(c) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
(d) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
Answer
(c) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
Asthma is inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles with difficulty in breathing, while emphysema is damage to alveolar walls that decreases the respiratory surface. The order in the question is asthma first, then emphysema.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :
Column I Column II a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium and left ventricle b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle
(a) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(b) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(c) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
(d) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
Answer
(c) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
The tricuspid valve lies between right atrium and right ventricle, the bicuspid (mitral) valve between left atrium and left ventricle, and the semilunar valves guard the pulmonary artery and aorta exits (here, right ventricle to pulmonary artery).
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :
Column I Column II a. Tidal volume i. 2500 - 3000 mL b. Inspiratory Reserve volume ii. 1100 - 1200 mL c. Expiratory Reserve volume iii. 500 - 550 mL d. Residual volume iv. 1000 - 1100 mL
(a) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(b) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(c) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(d) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Answer
(b) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Tidal volume is 500-550 mL, IRV 2500-3000 mL, ERV 1000-1100 mL and residual volume 1100-1200 mL.
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
(a) smooth muscles attached to the iris
(b) ligaments attached to the iris
(c) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
(d) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
Answer
(c) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
The lens is held in position by suspensory ligaments (zonules of Zinn) attached to the ciliary body. The ciliary muscles change its curvature for accommodation, but the lens is not attached to the iris.
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone ?
(a) Estradiol
(b) Ecdysone
(c) Epinephrine
(d) Estriol
Answer
(c) Epinephrine
Epinephrine (adrenaline) is derived from the amino acid tyrosine. Estradiol and estriol are steroids from cholesterol, and ecdysone is an insect steroid hormone.
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis ?
(a) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
(b) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(c) Aldosterone and Prolactin
(d) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
Answer
(a) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
Estrogen maintains bone density, and its fall after menopause leads to osteoporosis. Parathyroid hormone raises blood calcium by mobilising it from bone, so excess causes bone loss. Aldosterone, progesterone and prolactin are not the main bone regulators.
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function ?
(a) Hypothalamus : production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.
(b) Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.
(c) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.
(d) Corpus callosum : band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.
Answer
(b) Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.
This pairing is wrong. The limbic system, with the hypothalamus, controls emotions, motivation, memory and behaviour such as sexual behaviour, not movement. The other three pairings are correct.
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :
Column I Column II a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in glomeruli d. Glomerular nephritis iv. Presence of glucose in urine
(a) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(b) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(c) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(d) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
Answer
(d) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
Glycosuria is glucose in urine, gout is uric acid accumulation in joints, renal calculi are masses of crystallised salts in the kidney, and glomerular nephritis is inflammation of the glomeruli.
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :
Column I (Function) Column II (Part of Excretory System) a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop b. Concentration of urine ii. Ureter c. Transport of urine iii. Urinary bladder d. Storage of urine iv. Malpighian corpuscle v. Proximal convoluted tubule
(a) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(b) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(c) a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-iii
(d) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
Answer
(b) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
Ultrafiltration occurs in the Malpighian corpuscle, urine is concentrated in Henle's loop, the ureter transports urine, and the urinary bladder stores it. The proximal convoluted tubule, though listed, is not the answer to any item.
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis ?
(a) Goblet cells
(b) Mucous cells
(c) Chief cells
(d) Parietal cells
Answer
(d) Parietal cells
Parietal (oxyntic) cells secrete HCl and intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is needed to absorb vitamin B in the ileum, and B is required for maturation of red blood cells, so these cells help erythropoiesis indirectly. Chief cells secrete pepsinogen, and goblet and mucous cells secrete protective mucus, so none of them affects RBC formation.
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :
Column I Column II a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism
(a) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(b) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(c) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(d) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
Answer
(d) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
Fibrinogen is the plasma protein that is converted to fibrin in blood clotting. Globulins include the antibodies (gamma globulins) and so serve in defence. Albumin is the most abundant plasma protein and maintains osmotic balance.
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder ?
(a) Botulism
(b) Silicosis
(c) Anthracis
(d) Emphysema
Answer
(b) Silicosis
Silicosis is caused by inhaling silica dust, as in mining, quarrying and stone cutting, so it is an occupational lung disorder with fibrosis. Emphysema is mainly caused by smoking and is not job-specific. Botulism is food poisoning, and anthrax (the word "Anthracis" here is a distractor) is an infectious disease.
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it
(a) detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
(b) activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
(c) binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
(d) prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
Answer
(c) binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
Ca released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to troponin C. This shifts tropomyosin and exposes the myosin-binding sites on actin, so cross-bridges can form. Myosin head detachment needs fresh ATP, and Ca does not prevent cross-bridge formation, so (a) and (d) are wrong. Myosin ATPase activity is a property of the myosin head, and Ca acts on troponin, not on myosin.
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
(a) Nucleic acids and SER
(b) DNA and RNA
(c) Proteins and lipids
(d) Free ribosomes and RER
Answer
(d) Free ribosomes and RER
Nissl bodies (Nissl granules) are the granular masses in the cell body and dendrites of neurons. They are clusters of ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum and are the site of protein synthesis in the neuron. They are not made of SER, and they are not just nucleic acids.
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- 2018 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following terms describe human dentition ?
(a) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
(b) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(c) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(d) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
Answer
(b) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
In humans the teeth are set in sockets of the jaw bone (thecodont). Two sets appear, milk teeth and then permanent teeth (diphyodont). There are four kinds of teeth, incisors, canines, premolars and molars (heterodont). Pleurodont (teeth fused to the side of the jaw) and homodont (all teeth alike) do not describe humans.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match the following structures with their respective location in organs :
Structure Location (a) Crypts of Lieberkühn (i) Pancreas (b) Glisson's Capsule (ii) Duodenum (c) Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small intestine (d) Brunner's Glands (iv) Liver
Select the correct option from the following :
(a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(c) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
Answer
(c) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Crypts of Lieberkühn are glands in the small intestine. Glisson's capsule is the connective tissue sheath covering the liver. The islets of Langerhans are the endocrine part of the pancreas. Brunner's glands are mucus-secreting glands in the duodenal submucosa.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation ?
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Corpus callosum
(d) Medulla oblongata
Answer
(b) Hypothalamus
The hypothalamus contains the thermoregulatory centre, which senses blood temperature and triggers sweating, vasodilation or shivering. The medulla controls respiration, heart rate and blood pressure. The cerebrum handles higher functions, and the corpus callosum only connects the two hemispheres.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited ?
(a) Tetany
(b) Muscular dystrophy
(c) Myasthenia gravis
(d) Botulism
Answer
(b) Muscular dystrophy
Muscular dystrophy (for example Duchenne, which is X-linked recessive) is a genetic disorder with progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle. Myasthenia gravis is autoimmune, tetany is caused by low Ca, and botulism is caused by a bacterial toxin, so none of them is inherited.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match the Column - I with Column - II :
Column - I Column - II (a) P - wave (i) Depolarisation of ventricles (b) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation of ventricles (c) T - wave (iii) Coronary ischemia (d) Reduction in the size of T - wave (iv) Depolarisation of atria (v) Repolarisation of atria
Select the correct option.
(a) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(b) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)
(c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii)
(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iv)
Answer
(a) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
The P wave is atrial depolarisation, the QRS complex is ventricular depolarisation, and the T wave is ventricular repolarisation. Atrial repolarisation is hidden by the QRS complex, so it does not appear as its own wave. A reduced T wave points to coronary ischemia.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
How does steroid hormone influence the cellular activities ?
(a) Changing the permeability of the cell membrane.
(b) Binding to DNA and forming a gene-hormone complex.
(c) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell membrane.
(d) Using aquaporin channels as second messenger.
Answer
(b) Binding to DNA and forming a gene-hormone complex.
Steroid hormones are lipid soluble, so they cross the plasma membrane and bind to intracellular receptors. The hormone-receptor complex then binds to DNA and regulates gene expression. Water-soluble peptide hormones act through membrane receptors and second messengers such as cAMP, which is why (c) is wrong for steroids.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system.
(a) Testis Epididymis Vasa efferentia Rete testis Inguinal canal Urethra
(b) Seminiferous tubules Rete testis Vasa efferentia Epididymis Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Urethra Urethral meatus
(c) Seminiferous tubules Vasa efferentia Epididymis Inguinal canal Urethra
(d) Testis Epididymis Vasa efferentia Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Inguinal canal Urethra Urethral meatus
Answer
(b) Seminiferous tubules Rete testis Vasa efferentia Epididymis Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Urethra Urethral meatus
Sperms form in the seminiferous tubules and pass to the rete testis, then through the vasa efferentia into the epididymis. From there they go through the vas deferens, which joins the seminal vesicle duct to form the ejaculatory duct, then into the urethra and out at the urethral meatus. The other options skip steps or place the epididymis before the vasa efferentia.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to :
(a) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity.
(b) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
(c) proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls.
(d) reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes.
Answer
(b) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
Wheezing with difficulty in breathing is the feature of asthma, which is inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles in response to allergens and pollutants. Fibrosis with damage of alveolar walls is emphysema, and reduced surfactant is respiratory distress syndrome of newborns. A benign growth in the nasal cavity is a nasal polyp.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL ?
(a) 50 beats per minute
(b) 75 beats per minute
(c) 100 beats per minute
(d) 125 beats per minute
Answer
(c) 100 beats per minute
Stroke volume = EDV ESV mL. Cardiac output = stroke volume heart rate, so heart rate beats per minute.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine ?
(a) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone.
(b) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys.
(c) Secretion of erythropoietin by Juxtaglomerular complex.
(d) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filtration.
Answer
(b) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys.
The counter-current mechanism of the loop of Henle and vasa recta keeps the medullary interstitium increasingly hyperosmolar. When ADH is present, water leaves the collecting duct by osmosis to this gradient and concentrated urine forms. Low ADH gives dilute urine, erythropoietin is about RBC production, and hydrostatic pressure drives filtration but does not concentrate urine.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL ?
(a) 1500 mL
(b) 1700 mL
(c) 2200 mL
(d) 2700 mL
Answer
(a) 1500 mL
Expiratory capacity (EC) = tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume mL. Residual volume is not part of EC, so the 1200 mL is a distractor. Adding it would give functional residual capacity plus TV, which is not asked.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent ?
(a) GLUT I
(b) GLUT II
(c) GLUT III
(d) GLUT IV
Answer
(d) GLUT IV
GLUT IV is the insulin-dependent glucose transporter found in skeletal muscle, heart and adipose tissue. Insulin moves it to the cell surface. GLUT I, II and III work without insulin: for example GLUT II is in liver, pancreatic beta cells and kidney, and GLUT III is in neurons.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in :
(i) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
(ii) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
(iii) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract
(iv) Reduced RBC production
Which of the following options is the most appropriate ?
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Haemodialysis removes nitrogenous wastes and excess K, so (i) and (ii) are wrong. But the artificial kidney cannot replace the endocrine functions of the kidney. Less erythropoietin means reduced RBC production, and less active vitamin D (calcitriol) means reduced calcium absorption from the gut.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Cornea is an external, transparent and protective proteinacious covering of the eye-ball.
(b) Cornea consists of dense connective tissue of elastin and can repair itself.
(c) Cornea is convex, transparent layer which is highly vascularised.
(d) Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen and is the most sensitive portion of the eye.
Answer
(d) Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen and is the most sensitive portion of the eye.
The cornea is the transparent, avascular front part of the fibrous coat, made of dense collagen matrix, and it is rich in pain nerve endings. It is not made of elastin, and it is not vascularised (so (c) is wrong). The external covering of the eyeball is the sclera, which is also proteinaceous.
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match the following hormones with the respective disease :
Hormone Disease (a) Insulin (i) Addison's disease (b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus (c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly (d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre (v) Diabetes mellitus
Select the correct option.
(a) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(c) (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Answer
(c) (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Insulin deficiency causes diabetes mellitus, thyroxin deficiency causes goitre, and a shortage of corticoids causes Addison's disease. Growth hormone excess in adults causes acromegaly (iii), but the printed option (c) pairs it with (ii). Diabetes insipidus is caused by lack of ADH. Option (c) is the only one with the first three pairs right, and option (d) wrongly pairs insulin with diabetes insipidus, so (c) is the intended key (the last pair appears to be a typo in the source).
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- 2019 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Select the correct option.
(a) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum.
(b) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
(c) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum.
(d) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs.
Answer
(d) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs.
Of the 12 pairs of ribs, the first 7 are true ribs (vertebrosternal) joined directly to the sternum. The 8th, 9th and 10th are vertebrochondral (false ribs) joined through cartilage to the 7th rib. The 11th and 12th are floating (vertebral) ribs with no ventral attachment, so (a), (b) and (c) are wrong.
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- 2020 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.
(a) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of .
(b) Partial pressure of can interfere with binding with haemoglobin.
(c) Higher conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(d) Low in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
Answer
(c) Higher conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
This is the wrong statement. Alveoli have high , low , lower (higher pH) and lower temperature, and these favour oxyhaemoglobin formation. A high concentration shifts the curve right (Bohr effect) and favours dissociation of oxygen, as in tissues.
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- 2020 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.
(i) Contraction of diaphragm
(ii) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(iii) Pulmonary volume decreases
(iv) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) only (iv)
Answer
(a) (i) and (ii)
Inspiration occurs when the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract. This increases thoracic volume and pulmonary volume, so intra-pulmonary pressure falls below atmospheric pressure and air flows in. Statements (iii) and (iv) describe the opposite, so they are wrong.
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- 2020 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.
(a) Ileum opens into small intestine.
(b) Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal.
(c) Ileum is a highly coiled part.
(d) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.
Answer
(c) Ileum is a highly coiled part.
The small intestine has three parts, the duodenum, jejunum and the long, highly coiled ileum. The ileum opens into the large intestine, not the small intestine. Serosa is the outermost layer of the alimentary canal. The vermiform appendix arises from the caecum.
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- 2020 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?
(a) Uremia and Ketonuria
(b) Uremia and Renal Calculi
(c) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(d) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
Answer
(c) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
In diabetes mellitus, insulin deficiency or resistance raises blood glucose above the renal threshold, so glucose appears in urine (glycosuria). Fat breakdown also produces ketone bodies in urine (ketonuria). Uremia and renal calculi are kidney problems, not specific indicators of diabetes.
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- 2020 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of :
(a) protein into polypeptides
(b) trypsinogen into trypsin
(c) caseinogen into casein
(d) pepsinogen into pepsin
Answer
(b) trypsinogen into trypsin
Enterokinase from the intestinal mucosa activates inactive trypsinogen from the pancreas into trypsin. Trypsin then activates other pancreatic zymogens. Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by HCl, and caseinogen is converted to casein by rennin.
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- 2020 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column - I Column - II (a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle ear and pharynx (b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth (c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval window (d) Stapes (iv) Located on the basilar membrane
(a) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(b) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(d) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Answer
(c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
The organ of Corti lies on the basilar membrane. The cochlea is the coiled part of the labyrinth. The Eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the pharynx. The stapes is attached to the oval window.
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- 2020 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis ?
(a) More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
(b) Reabsorption of and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
(c) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
(d) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
Answer
(b) Reabsorption of and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
Diuresis is increased urine output. Aldosterone increases and water reabsorption, which reduces urine volume. Undersecretion of ADH causes more water loss, not more reabsorption, so (a) is wrong. ANF causes vasodilation, not vasoconstriction. Reduced renin lowers aldosterone and promotes diuresis.
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- 2020 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column - I Column - II (a) Placenta (i) Androgens (b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) (c) Bulbo-urethral glands (iii) Layer of the ovum (d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the Penis
(a) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(b) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(c) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Answer
(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
The placenta secretes hCG. The zona pellucida is a layer of the ovum. The bulbo-urethral glands lubricate the penis. Leydig cells secrete androgens.
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- 2020 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents :
(a) Repolarisation of auricles
(b) Depolarisation of auricles
(c) Depolarisation of ventricles
(d) Repolarisation of ventricles
Answer
(c) Depolarisation of ventricles
The P wave is atrial depolarisation, the QRS complex is ventricular depolarisation (and contraction begins), and the T wave is ventricular repolarisation. Atrial repolarisation is hidden within the QRS complex.
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- 2020 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column - I Column - II (a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis (c) Neutrophils (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes (d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules containing histamine
(a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(b) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(c) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Answer
(a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Eosinophils release histaminase and destructive enzymes in allergic reactions. Basophils release granules containing histamine. Neutrophils are phagocytes. Lymphocytes mediate the immune response.
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- 2020 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column - I Column - II (a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave's disease (b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus (c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus (d) Pancreas (iv) Addison's disease
(a) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(b) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(c) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Answer
(c) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
ADH deficiency from the pituitary causes diabetes insipidus. Thyroid hyperactivity gives Grave's disease. Adrenal cortex hypofunction gives Addison's disease. Insulin deficiency in the pancreas gives diabetes mellitus.
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- 2020 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Select the correct statement.
(a) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
(b) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(c) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
(d) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
Answer
(a) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
Cortisol promotes gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis. Glucagon causes hyperglycaemia, not hypoglycaemia. Insulin is hypoglycaemic and acts mainly on hepatocytes and adipocytes, not pancreatic cells.
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- 2020 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column - I Column - II (a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between second and seventh ribs (b) Acromion (ii) Head of the Humerus (c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum
(a) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(b) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(c) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Answer
(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Floating ribs (11th and 12th) do not connect with the sternum. The acromion articulates with the clavicle. The scapula is a flat triangular bone located between the second and seventh ribs. The glenoid cavity of the scapula receives the head of the humerus.
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- 2022 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood.
Statement II: Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Fatty acids and glycerol are insoluble in water, so they are not absorbed directly into blood. They are packed into micelles, re-esterified in the intestinal mucosa and coated with protein to form chylomicrons. Chylomicrons enter the lacteals (lymph capillaries of villi) and reach the blood through the lymphatic vessels, so both statements hold.
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- 2022 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?
(a) Lubrication of oral cavity
(b) Digestion of disaccharides
(c) Control bacterial population in mouth
(d) Digestion of complex carbohydrates
Answer
(b) Digestion of disaccharides
Salivary amylase acts on starch (complex carbohydrates) giving maltose, and saliva lubricates the mouth and has lysozyme to control bacteria. Disaccharides are digested later by intestinal enzymes (maltase, sucrase, lactase), not by saliva.
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- 2022 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures.
Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(b) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer
(a) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Osteoporosis means decreased bone mass and higher fracture risk, so A is correct. Its common cause is decreased estrogen levels (as after menopause), not increased, so R is false.
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- 2022 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.
Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer
(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
A blood clot (coagulum) is a network of fibrin threads in which blood cells are trapped; thrombin is the enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin, not the threads. The spleen stores RBCs and destroys old ones, hence is called the graveyard of erythrocytes.
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- 2022 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver ________ ml of to the tissues.
(a) 4 ml
(b) 10 ml
(c) 2 ml
(d) 5 ml
Answer
(d) 5 ml
Oxygenated arterial blood carries about 20 ml O per 100 ml, while mixed venous blood returns with about 15 ml. So every 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers about ml of O to tissues under normal conditions.
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- 2022 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?
(a) Myasthenia gravis – Genetic disorder resulting in weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle
(b) Muscular dystrophy – An auto immune disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
(c) Arthritis – Inflammed joints
(d) Tetany – High level causing rapid spasms.
Answer
(c) Arthritis – Inflammed joints
Arthritis is inflammation of joints. Myasthenia gravis is autoimmune (not genetic), muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder (not autoimmune), and tetany is rapid muscle spasm due to low Ca, not high.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2022 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?
(a) Temperature of inhaled air is brought to body temperature
(b) Provides surface for diffusion of and
(c) It clears inhaled air from foreign particles
(d) Inhaled air is humidified
Answer
(b) Provides surface for diffusion of O and CO
The conducting part (nostrils to terminal bronchioles) warms, humidifies and filters air. Gas exchange occurs only in the respiratory part, the alveoli.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2022 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone?
(a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption
(b) Decreases level in blood
(c) Reabsorption of by renal tubules
(d) Decreases the absorption of from digested food
(e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) (a) and (e) only
(b) (b) and (c) only
(c) (a) and (c) only
(d) (b), (d) and (e) only
Answer
(d) (b), (d) and (e) only
PTH raises blood Ca by stimulating bone resorption, increasing renal tubular reabsorption and increasing Ca absorption from food. So decreasing blood Ca (b), decreasing absorption (d) and increasing carbohydrate metabolism (e) are not its effects.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2022 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :
(a) Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters
(b) Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse.
(c) The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse.
(d) Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.
Answer
(b) Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse.
Transmission at a chemical synapse is slower because of neurotransmitter release, diffusion and receptor binding. Electrical synapses, with closely placed membranes and direct current flow, are faster.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2022 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
(b) Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.
(c) The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
(d) The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria
Answer
(a) Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
In joint diastole all chambers relax, the AV valves are open and blood flows passively from atria into ventricles. The SA node (not AVN) initiates atrial contraction, semilunar valves close when ventricular pressure falls, and AV valves open as ventricular pressure drops below atrial pressure.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth canal.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
Answer
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
The vas deferens receives a duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into the urethra as the ejaculatory duct. The cervical canal together with the vagina forms the birth canal.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match List I with List II.
List I (Type of Joint) List II (Found between) A. Cartilaginous Joint I. Between flat skull bones B. Ball and Socket Joint II. Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column C. Fibrous Joint III. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb D. Saddle Joint IV. Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(c) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(d) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Answer
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Cartilaginous joints lie between adjacent vertebrae, the ball and socket joint is between humerus and pectoral girdle, fibrous joints are the sutures between flat skull bones, and the saddle joint is between carpal and metacarpal of the thumb.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match List I with List II.
List I List II A. CCK I. Kidney B. GIP II. Heart C. ANF III. Gastric gland D. ADH IV. Pancreas
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(b) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(d) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Answer
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
CCK is secreted by the intestine and acts on the pancreas; GIP inhibits gastric secretion/motility (gastric gland); ANF is secreted by the heart; ADH acts on the kidney.
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match List I with List II. (with respect to human eye)
List I List II A. Fovea I. Visible coloured portion of eye that regulates diameter of pupil. B. Iris II. External layer of eye formed of dense connective tissue. C. Blind spot III. Point of greatest visual acuity or resolution. D. Sclera IV. Point where optic nerve leaves the eyeball and photoreceptor cells are absent.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(d) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Answer
(a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
The fovea has the greatest visual acuity, the iris is the coloured portion regulating pupil diameter, the blind spot is where the optic nerve leaves and photoreceptors are absent, and the sclera is the outer dense connective tissue layer.
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Vital capacity of lung is _________.
(a) IRV + ERV
(b) IRV + ERV + TV + RV
(c) IRV + ERV + TV – RV
(d) IRV + ERV + TV
Answer
(d) IRV + ERV + TV
Vital capacity is the maximum air that can be exhaled after a maximum inspiration: . Residual volume is not included, since it stays in the lungs.
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match List I with List II.
List I List II A. P-wave I. Beginning of systole B. Q-wave II. Repolarisation of ventricles C. QRS complex III. Depolarisation of atria D. T-wave IV. Depolarisation of ventricles
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer
(a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
The P-wave is atrial depolarisation, the Q-wave marks the beginning of ventricular systole, the QRS complex is ventricular depolarisation, and the T-wave is ventricular repolarisation.
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented by
(a) Sphincter of Oddi
(b) Ileo-caecal valve
(c) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
(d) Pyloric sphincter
Answer
(b) Ileo-caecal valve
The ileo-caecal valve at the junction of ileum and caecum prevents backflow of material from the caecum. The sphincter of Oddi guards the hepatopancreatic duct, the gastro-oesophageal sphincter the stomach entrance, and the pyloric sphincter the stomach exit.
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match List I with List II.
List I (Cells) List II (Secretion) A. Peptic cells I. Mucus B. Goblet cells II. Bile juice C. Oxyntic cells III. Proenzyme pepsinogen D. Hepatic cells IV. HCl and intrinsic factor for absorption of vitamin B12
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(b) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer
(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Peptic (chief) cells secrete pepsinogen, goblet cells secrete mucus, oxyntic (parietal) cells secrete HCl and intrinsic factor for vitamin B12 absorption, and hepatic cells secrete bile.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex and medulla.
Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer
(c) A is true but R is false
Nephrons are cortical or juxta-medullary by position, so A is true. The reasoning is reversed: juxta-medullary nephrons have long loops of Henle that run deep into the medulla, while cortical nephrons have short loops.
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The parts of human brain that helps in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of excitement, pleasure, rage, fear etc. are:
(a) Limbic system and hypothalamus
(b) Corpora quadrigemina and hippocampus
(c) Brain stem and epithalamus
(d) Corpus callosum and thalamus
Answer
(a) Limbic system and hypothalamus
The limbic system, together with the hypothalamus, controls sexual behaviour, emotional expression (excitement, pleasure, rage, fear) and motivation. Corpora quadrigemina handle visual and auditory reflexes. The brain stem, epithalamus, corpus callosum and thalamus do not regulate these emotional behaviours.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone?
A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle
D. Development of immune system
E. Support the process of RBCs formation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and D only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) D and E only
Answer
(c) C and D only
Thyroid hormones regulate BMR, support RBC formation and maintain water and electrolyte balance (A, B, E). The sleep-wake rhythm is controlled by melatonin from the pineal gland (C). Immune system development is linked to thymosin from the thymus (D). So C and D are not under thyroid control.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.
B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.
C. ANF causes vasodilation.
D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and E only
(d) C, D and E only
Answer
(b) B, C and D only
ADH promotes water reabsorption and so prevents diuresis (B), and it causes vasoconstriction, which raises blood pressure (D). ANF causes vasodilation (C). A is wrong because loss of body fluid activates (not switches off) osmoreceptors. E is wrong because ADH helps restore blood volume and does not decrease GFR.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle?
A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle.
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions.
C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin proteins.
D. M line is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B and C only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) C and D only
Answer
(b) B and C only
The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores Ca (B). Striations arise from the arrangement of actin and myosin (C). A is wrong because the connective tissue layer around bundles is fascia and the bundle itself is the fascicle. D is wrong because the functional unit of contraction is the sarcomere, between two Z lines. The M line is only the middle of the A band.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2023 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response
D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus
E. Basophils are agranulocytes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) D and E only
(b) C and E only
(c) B and C only
(d) A and B only
Answer
(c) B and C only
Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin and take part in inflammatory responses (B, C). A is wrong because neutrophils are the most abundant WBCs. D is wrong because the kidney-shaped nucleus belongs to monocytes. E is wrong because basophils are granulocytes.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2024 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes.
Statement II: The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Answer
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
The descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to water and almost impermeable to electrolytes, so Statement I is reversed. The PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush-border epithelium, not columnar, so Statement II is also false.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2024 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A: FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male.
Reason R: Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A is false but R is true
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(d) A is true but R is false
Answer
(a) A is false but R is true
FSH acts on ovarian follicles in females but on Sertoli cells in males. Leydig (interstitial) cells are acted on by LH. So A is false. R is true, since growing follicles secrete estrogen and interstitial cells secrete androgens.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2024 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?
(a) Low and High temperature
(b) High and High
(c) High and Lesser concentration
(d) Low and High concentration
Answer
(c) High and Lesser concentration
In alveoli, high , low , low H (higher pH) and lower temperature favour binding of O to haemoglobin. Options with high temperature, high or high H shift the curve right and favour release of oxygen, as in tissues.
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- 2024 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match List I with List II.
List I List II A. Expiratory capacity I. Expiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume B. Functional residual capacity II. Tidal volume + Expiratory reserve volume C. Vital capacity III. Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume D. Inspiratory capacity IV. Expiratory reserve volume + Residual volume
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(c) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Expiratory capacity = TV + ERV. Functional residual capacity = ERV + RV. Vital capacity = ERV + TV + IRV. Inspiratory capacity = TV + IRV. This matches A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.
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- 2024 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Following are the stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart
A. AV bundle
B. Purkinje fibres
C. AV node
D. Bundle branches
E. SA node
Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the options given below
(a) E-A-D-B-C
(b) E-C-A-D-B
(c) A-E-C-B-D
(d) B-D-E-C-A
Answer
(b) E-C-A-D-B
The impulse starts at the SA node, passes to the AV node, then the AV bundle (bundle of His), then the left and right bundle branches, and finally the Purkinje fibres in the ventricular walls.
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- 2024 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following is not a component of Fallopian tube?
(a) Ampulla
(b) Uterine fundus
(c) Isthmus
(d) Infundibulum
Answer
(b) Uterine fundus
The Fallopian tube has the infundibulum (with fimbriae), ampulla and isthmus. The fundus is a part of the uterus, not of the tube.
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- 2024 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match List I with List II.
List I List II A. Fibrous joints I. Adjacent vertebrae, limited movement B. Cartilaginous joints II. Humerus and Pectoral girdle, rotational movement C. Hinge joints III. Skull, don't allow any movement D. Ball and socket joints IV. Knee, help in locomotion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(b) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(c) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Answer
(a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Fibrous joints (skull sutures) allow no movement. Cartilaginous joints (between adjacent vertebrae) allow limited movement. Hinge joints (knee) help locomotion. Ball and socket joints (humerus with pectoral girdle) allow rotational movement.
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- 2024 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?
(a) Glucagon
(b) Cortisol
(c) Testosterone
(d) Progesterone
Answer
(a) Glucagon
Glucagon is a peptide (protein) hormone. Cortisol, testosterone and progesterone are steroid hormones derived from cholesterol.
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- 2024 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match List I with List II.
List I List II A. Pons I. Provides additional space for Neurons, regulates posture and balance. B. Hypothalamus II. Controls respiration and gastric secretions. C. Medulla III. Connects different regions of the brain. D. Cerebellum IV. Neuro secretory cells
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Answer
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
The pons connects different regions of the brain. The hypothalamus has neurosecretory cells. The medulla controls respiration and gastric secretions. The cerebellum has a convoluted surface giving extra space for neurons and regulates posture and balance.
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- 2024 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match List I with List II.
List I List II A. P wave I. Heart muscles are electrically silent. B. QRS complex II. Depolarisation of ventricles. C. T wave III. Depolarisation of atria. D. T-P gap IV. Repolarisation of ventricles.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(b) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(c) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Answer
(c) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
The P wave is atrial depolarisation. The QRS complex is ventricular depolarisation. The T wave is ventricular repolarisation. The T-P gap is the period when the heart muscles are electrically silent.
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- 2024 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match List I with List II.
List I List II A. Exophthalmic goiter I. Excess secretion of cortisol, moon face & hyperglycemia. B. Acromegaly II. Hypo-secretion of thyroid hormone and stunted growth. C. Cushing's syndrome III. Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone & protruding eye balls. D. Cretinism IV. Excessive secretion of growth hormone.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(c) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer
(a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Exophthalmic goitre is hyperthyroidism with protruding eyeballs. Acromegaly is excess growth hormone in adults. Cushing's syndrome is excess cortisol, with moon face and hyperglycaemia. Cretinism is hypothyroidism in childhood with stunted growth.
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- 2024 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron.
(a) Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.
(b) Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.
(c) Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
(d) Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla.
Answer
(d) Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla.
Juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of Henle extending deep into the medulla. They are fewer than cortical nephrons (a is wrong). Their corpuscles lie in the inner cortex near the medulla, not in the outer medulla (c is wrong). Columns of Bertini are extensions of the cortex between pyramids and are not the location of these nephrons (b is wrong).
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- 2024 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum.
Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Answer
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
The corpus callosum connects the two cerebral hemispheres. The brain stem consists of the midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata, not the cerebrum, so Statement II is wrong.
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- 2025 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II A. Heart I. Erythropoietin B. Kidney II. Aldosterone C. Gastro-intestinal tracts III. Atrial natriuretic factor D. Adrenal Cortex IV. Secretin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(d) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer
(d) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
The heart secretes atrial natriuretic factor (ANF), which lowers blood pressure. The kidney (juxtaglomerular cells) secretes erythropoietin, the gastrointestinal tract secretes secretin and other peptides, and the adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone.
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- 2025 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones:
A. It causes pupilary constriction
B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone
C. It causes piloerection
D. It increases the strength of heart contraction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C and D Only
(b) B, C and D Only
(c) A, C and D Only
(d) D Only
Answer
(b) B, C and D Only
Adrenaline and noradrenaline (adrenal medulla) raise heart rate and strength of contraction, cause piloerection and are hyperglycemic (stimulate glycogenolysis). They cause pupillary dilation, not constriction, so A is wrong.
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- 2025 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?
(a) Human body will elicit strong immune response
(b) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
(c) Because of structural variation
(d) Its bioavailability will be increased
Answer
(b) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
Insulin is a protein (polypeptide) hormone. Given orally it would be broken down by proteolytic enzymes such as pepsin and trypsin in the GI tract before absorption, so it must be injected. Bioavailability would be decreased, not increased, so (d) is wrong.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2025 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?
(a) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(b) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
(c) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
(d) Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
Answer
(b) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
ADH (vasopressin) and oxytocin are synthesized by neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus and stored and released from the posterior pituitary. LH, FSH and ACTH are made in the anterior pituitary under the control of hypothalamic releasing hormones.
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- 2025 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II A. Progesterone I. Pars intermedia B. Relaxin II. Ovary C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone III. Adrenal Medulla D. Catecholamines IV. Corpus luteum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(b) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(d) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Answer
(a) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum. Relaxin comes from the ovary. MSH is secreted by the pars intermedia of the pituitary, and catecholamines (adrenaline and noradrenaline) from the adrenal medulla.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2021 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :
(a) Arthritis
(b) Muscular dystrophy
(c) Myasthenia gravis
(d) Gout
Answer
(c) Myasthenia gravis
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder in which antibodies attack acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, causing fatigue, weakness and paralysis of skeletal muscle. Muscular dystrophy is genetic, and arthritis and gout affect joints.
Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026
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- 2021 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
(a) High , low , less , lower temperature
(b) Low , high , more , higher temperature
(c) High , high , less , higher temperature
(d) Low , low , more , higher temperature
Answer
(a) High , low , less , lower temperature
At the alveoli, these conditions shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the left and favour binding of to haemoglobin. The opposite conditions (low , high , more , higher temperature, as in tissues) favour release of .
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- 2021 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Sphincter of oddi is present at :
(a) Ileo-caecal junction
(b) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
(c) Gastro-oesophageal junction
(d) Junction of jejunum and duodenum
Answer
(b) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
The sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of the common hepato-pancreatic duct into the duodenum, regulating the flow of bile and pancreatic juice. The ileo-caecal valve and the gastro-oesophageal (cardiac) sphincter are different structures.
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- 2021 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen () and carbon dioxide () at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are :
(a) and
(b) and
(c) and
(d) and
Answer
(a) and
Alveolar air has mm Hg and mm Hg. Option (b) is deoxygenated blood and tissues, and (d) is atmospheric air ( and ). Option (c) is not the standard NCERT value.
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- 2021 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Succus entericus is referred to as :
(a) Pancreatic juice
(b) Intestinal juice
(c) Gastric juice
(d) Chyme
Answer
(b) Intestinal juice
Succus entericus is the intestinal juice secreted by the glands of the small intestine (crypts of Lieberkuhn and Brunner's glands), containing enzymes such as maltase, lactase and peptidases. Pancreatic juice and gastric juice are separate secretions, and chyme is partly digested food.
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- 2021 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to :
(a) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
(b) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
(c) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
(d) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
Answer
(d) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
AB blood has both A and B antigens on the RBCs but no anti-A or anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Hence it can receive blood from any ABO group without agglutination, making AB a universal recipient.
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- 2021 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by :
(a) Alpha cells of pancreas
(b) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
(c) The cells of bone marrow
(d) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
Answer
(d) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
Low oxygen levels stimulate the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney to release erythropoietin, which stimulates erythropoiesis in bone marrow. Bone marrow is the target, not the source.
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- 2021 · NEET-UG (India) · 4 marks
Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II (a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints (b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone (c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints (d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Answer
(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
The scapula is a triangular flat bone, and the cranial bones are joined by fibrous (suture) joints. The sternum is a flat bone, and the vertebral column has cartilaginous joints between vertebrae.
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Questions from NEET-UG 2013 (India), question paper (NTA NEET-UG 2013 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus), AIPMT 2014 (NEET-UG, India), Code R (NTA NEET-UG 2014 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus), NEET-UG 2015 (India), Re-exam Code B (NTA NEET-UG 2015 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus), NEET-UG 2016 (India), Phase 1 Code B (NTA NEET-UG 2016 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus), NEET-UG 2016 (India), Phase 2 Code BB (NTA NEET-UG 2016 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus), NEET-UG 2017 (India), Code A (NTA NEET-UG 2017 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus), NEET-UG 2018 (India), Code AA (NTA NEET-UG 2018 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus), NEET-UG 2019 (India), Code P1 (NTA NEET-UG 2019 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus), NEET-UG 2020 (India), Code E1 (NTA NEET-UG 2020 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus), NEET-UG 2021 (India), Paper code M4 (NTA NEET-UG 2021 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus), NEET-UG 2022 (India), Paper code S3 (NTA NEET-UG 2022 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus), NEET-UG 2023 (India), Paper code E1 (NTA NEET-UG 2023 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus), NEET-UG 2024 (India), Paper code S3 (NTA NEET-UG 2024 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus) and NEET-UG 2025 (India), Paper code 45 (NTA NEET-UG 2025 question paper; only questions on topics in Nepal's MBBS entrance syllabus). Answers are written for this site; check them against your class notes.