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Chapter 3

Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology)

+2 college entrance (after SEE) past exam questions

Past questions and answers

1357 questions set from this chapter, 13 of them more than once; 11 are most repeated (set, or a close variant set, in 3 or more exams). Most repeated first.

  • Most repeated · 3 of 29 exams
  • Asked 2 times
  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark
  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

One of the characteristics of all living beings is that they (a) Require oxygen for respiration (b) Originate from pre-existing life (c) Carry on heterotrophic nutrition (d) Carry on autotrophic nutrition

Similar questions: One of the characteristics of all living things (2018 Practice Test 1)

Answer

(b) Originate from pre-existing life

All living beings arise from pre-existing life (reproduction). Oxygen need and the mode of nutrition vary among organisms.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • Most repeated · 3 of 29 exams
  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

One of the characteristics of all living things is that they (a) Require oxygen for respiration (b) Originate from pre-existing life (c) Carry on heterotrophic nutrition (d) Carry on autotrophic nutrition

Similar questions: One of the characteristics of all living beings (2018 Practice Test 2)

Answer

(b) Originate from pre-existing life

Every living thing arises from existing living things by reproduction. Respiration type and mode of nutrition vary between organisms.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • Most repeated · 3 of 29 exams
  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Of the following terms, which one includes all the others? (a) Species (b) Order (c) Class (d) Phylum

Similar questions: Of the following terms, which one includes all t (2018 Practice Test 5) · Of the following terms, which one includes other (2018 Practice MCQs (Botany))

Answer

(d) Phylum

The hierarchy runs Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species. Phylum is the highest of the four options, so it includes the others.

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  • Most repeated · 3 of 29 exams
  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. If speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 10⁸ m/s then what is the speed of light in diamond? (a) 1.5 × 10⁸ m/s (b) 1.24 × 10⁸ m/s (c) 2 × 10⁸ m/s (d) 2.42 × 10⁸ m/s

Similar questions: The refractive index of glycerine is 1.47, If sp (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5) · The refractive index of glass is 1.5, If speed o (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6)

Answer

(b) 1.24×1081.24 \times 10^{8} m/s

n=cv ⇒ v=cn=3×1082.42≈1.24×108 m/sn=\frac{c}{v}\ \Rightarrow\ v=\frac{c}{n}=\frac{3\times10^{8}}{2.42}\approx1.24\times10^{8}\ \text{m/s}

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  • Most repeated · 3 of 29 exams
  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which one of the following physical quantity has the fundamental units; kg.m² .s⁻² ? (a) Force (b) Pressure (c) Work done (d) Power

Similar questions: Which one of the following physical quantity has (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6) · Which one of the following physical quantity has (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7)

Answer

(c) Work done

Work=F×d=(kg m s−2)(m)=kg m2s−2\text{Work}=F\times d=(\text{kg m s}^{-2})(\text{m})=\text{kg m}^2\text{s}^{-2}, which is the joule. Force is kg m s−2^{-2} and power is kg m2^2 s−3^{-3}.

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  • Most repeated · 3 of 29 exams
  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

The refractive index of glycerine is 1.47, If speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 10⁸ m/s then what is the speed of light in glycerine ? (a) 1.24 × 10⁸ m/s (b) 1.5 × 10⁸ m/s (c) 2.04 × 10⁸ m/s (d) 2.42 × 10⁸ m/s

Similar questions: The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. If spee (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4) · The refractive index of glass is 1.5, If speed o (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6)

Answer

(c) 2.04 × 10⁸ m/s

v=cn=3×1081.47=2.04×108 m/sv=\frac{c}{n}=\frac{3\times10^8}{1.47}=2.04\times10^8\text{ m/s}

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  • Most repeated · 3 of 29 exams
  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which one of the following physical quantity has the fundamental units; kg.m⁻¹ .s⁻² ? (a) Force (b) Pressure (c) Work done (d) Power

Similar questions: Which one of the following physical quantity has (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5) · Which one of the following physical quantity has (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7)

Answer

(b) Pressure

Pressure =forcearea=kg m s−2m2=kg m−1s−2=\dfrac{\text{force}}{\text{area}} = \dfrac{\text{kg m s}^{-2}}{\text{m}^2} = \text{kg m}^{-1}\text{s}^{-2} (that is, pascal).

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  • Most repeated · 3 of 29 exams
  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Where should an object be placed in front of convex lens to have magnification equals to 1? (a) At 2F (b) between F & 2F (c) Exactly at F (d) between F & O

Similar questions: Where should an object be placed in front of con (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3) · Where should an object be placed in front of con (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5)

Answer

(a) At 2F

At u=2Fu = 2F the image forms at 2F2F on the other side, real, inverted and the same size as the object, so m=vu=1m = \dfrac{v}{u} = 1.

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  • Most repeated · 3 of 29 exams
  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

The refractive index of glass is 1.5, If speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 10⁸ m/s then what is the speed of light in glass ? (a) 1.24 × 10⁸ m/s (b) 1.5 × 10⁸ m/s (c) 2× 10⁸ m/s (d) 2.42 × 10⁸ m/s

Similar questions: The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. If spee (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4) · The refractive index of glycerine is 1.47, If sp (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5)

Answer

(c) 2×1082\times10^{8} m/s

v=cn=3×1081.5=2×108 m/s.v=\frac{c}{n}=\frac{3\times10^{8}}{1.5}=2\times10^{8}\ \text{m/s}.

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  • Most repeated · 3 of 29 exams
  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which one of the following physical quantity has the fundamental units; kg.m² .s⁻³ ? (a) Force (b) Pressure (c) Work done (d) Power

Similar questions: Which one of the following physical quantity has (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5) · Which one of the following physical quantity has (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6)

Answer

(d) Power

Power =worktime=kg m2s−2s=kg m2s−3=\dfrac{\text{work}}{\text{time}}=\dfrac{\text{kg}\,\text{m}^2\text{s}^{-2}}{\text{s}}=\text{kg}\,\text{m}^2\text{s}^{-3} (watt).

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  • Most repeated · 3 of 29 exams
  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

What will be the change in the gravitational force between two bodies when distance between their center is made one-fourth ? (a) Force increases by four times (b) Force decreases by four times . (c) Force increases by sixteen times . (d) Force decreases by sixteen times .

Similar questions: What will be the change in the gravitational for (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5) · What will be the change in the gravitational for (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6)

Answer

(c) Force increases by sixteen times.

Since F∝1d2F\propto\dfrac{1}{d^2}, making d→d4d\to\dfrac d4 gives F′=F(1/4)2=16FF'=\dfrac{F}{(1/4)^2}=16F.

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  • Asked 2 times
  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark
  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

In a monohybrid cross, the two parental genotypes are AA and aa. The genotype of all F1 plants is Aa. If the F1 plants are crossed to get F2 generation, what percentage of the F2 generation will have the dominant phenotype? (a) 100% (b) 75% (c) 50% (d) 25%

Answer

(b) 75%

Aa×AaAa\times Aa gives AA:Aa:aa=1:2:1AA:Aa:aa=1:2:1. The dominant phenotype appears in AAAA and AaAa, i.e. 3/4=75%3/4=75\% (a 3:1 phenotypic ratio).

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  • Asked 2 times
  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark
  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

In a plain community, the population with greatest biomass would be (a) Foxes (b) Hawks (c) Grasses (d) Beetles

Answer

(c) Grasses

In an ecological pyramid of biomass, producers form the base and have the greatest biomass. Biomass decreases at each higher trophic level, so grasses exceed beetles, hawks and foxes.

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  • Asked 2 times
  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark
  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Double fertilization and triple fusion is characteristic of (a) All Plants (b) Angiosperms (c) Gymnosperms (d) Pteridophytes

Answer

(b) Angiosperms

Double fertilization (syngamy and triple fusion) occurs only in flowering plants. One male gamete fuses with the egg and the other with the two polar nuclei, giving a triploid endosperm.

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  • Asked 2 times
  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark
  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Which of the following is human haploid chromosome number? (a) 10 (b) 23 (c) 46 (d) 92

Answer

(b) 23

Human body cells are diploid with 2n=462n = 46, so a gamete (haploid) has n=46/2=23n = 46/2 = 23 chromosomes.

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  • Asked 2 times
  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark
  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

A body exerts a force of magnitude 5 N and gets 5 N as reaction. Then, the total force the body experiences (a) 10 N (b) 5 N (c) 0 N (d) 25 N

Answer

(b) 5 N

Action and reaction act on different bodies, so they do not cancel on one body. The body experiences only the 5 N reaction exerted on it. The 5 N it exerts acts on the other body.

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  • Asked 2 times
  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark
  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

If a body is completely immersed in a liquid. Its …….. should be equal to that of displaced liquid. (a) mass (b) density (c) volume (d) weight

Answer

(c) volume

A completely immersed body pushes aside a volume of liquid equal to its own volume, so the volume of the body equals the volume of liquid displaced.

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  • Asked 2 times
  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark
  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

The value of 3 N force in CGS system is …… (a) 3 dyne (b) 300 dyne (c) 30,000 dyne (d) 3,00,000 dyne

Answer

(d) 3,00,000 dyne

1 N=1051\ \mathrm{N}=10^5 dyne, so 3 N=3×105 dyne=3,00,000 dyne.3\ \mathrm{N}=3\times10^5\ \text{dyne}=3{,}00{,}000\ \text{dyne}.

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  • Asked 2 times
  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark
  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Maximum electrons in d orbital are : (a) 6 (b) 10 (c) 2 (d) 14

Answer

(b) 10

A d subshell has five orbitals, and each holds a maximum of 22 electrons, so 5×2=105\times2=10.

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  • Asked 2 times
  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark
  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Ordinary blackboard chalk is made of : (a) Limestone (b) Gypsum (c) Fluorspar (d) Calcium phosphate

Answer

(b) Gypsum

Ordinary blackboard chalk is made of gypsum, calcium sulphate dihydrate, CaSO4⋅2H2OCaSO_4\cdot2H_2O. (Natural geological chalk is calcium carbonate, but classroom chalk is gypsum.)

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  • Asked 2 times
  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark
  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Oxidation number of oxygen in H2_2O2_2 is : (a) −1-1 (b) +1+1 (c) 0 (d) +2+2

Answer

(a) −1-1

In peroxides the O–O bond joins two oxygen atoms, and each hydrogen is +1+1. So 2(+1)+2x=02(+1)+2x=0, giving x=−1x=-1.

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  • Asked 2 times
  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark
  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which catalyst is used in the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process? (a) nickel (b) sodium (c) iron fillings (d) copper

Answer

(c) iron fillings

In the Haber process, N2+3H2⇌2NH3N_2+3H_2\rightleftharpoons 2NH_3 is carried out at about 450 to 500 °C and 200 atm, using finely divided iron as the catalyst with molybdenum as the promoter.

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  • Asked 2 times
  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark
  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Chromosome is made up of protein & __________. (a) Carbohydrate (b) Lipid (c) Gene (d) Hormone

Answer

(c) Gene. Chromosomes consist of DNA (carrying genes) wound around histone proteins; among the options, gene is the correct one.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

What is the name of the process by which the cytoplasm of a cell divides to form two daughter cells? (a) Cytokinesis (b) Interphase (c) Prophase (d) Karyokinesis

Similar questions: What is process by which the cytoplasm of a cell (2018 Practice MCQs (Botany))

Answer

(a) Cytokinesis

Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm after nuclear division, producing two daughter cells. Karyokinesis is division of the nucleus; interphase and prophase are stages of the cell cycle.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

The process of loss of water vapour from the aerial parts of plants is called transpiration. The opening and closing of stomata is controlled by (a) Stomatal cells (b) Guard cells (c) Xylem cells (d) Phloem cells

Similar questions: The process of loss of water vapor from the aeri (2018 Practice MCQs (Botany))

Answer

(b) Guard cells

Each stoma is bordered by a pair of guard cells. Changes in their turgor open or close the pore, regulating transpiration and gas exchange.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following plants mentioned below is not characterized by the presence of reticulate veins in its leaves? (a) Sunflower (b) Tomato (c) Maize (d) Cuscuta

Similar questions: Which of the plants mentioned below is not chara (2018 Practice MCQs (Botany))

Answer

(c) Maize

Maize is a monocot, which has parallel venation. Sunflower and tomato are dicots with reticulate venation.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Sieve tubes, phloem parenchyma, bast fibers, and …………. are the elements of phloem. (a) Vessels (b) Tracheids (c) Wood fibers (d) Companion cells

Similar questions: Sieve tubes, parenchyma, bast fibers, and ______ (2018 Practice MCQs (Botany))

Answer

(d) Companion cells

The phloem consists of sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma and phloem (bast) fibres. Vessels, tracheids and wood fibres are elements of xylem.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

A student studied two different groups of cells and made the following observations:
TraitCell ICell II
Cell wallPresentPresent
RibosomesPresentPresent
NucleusAbsentPresent
Ability to photosynthesizePresentPresent
Cell respirationPresentPresent
Which of the following conclusions is best supported by these observations? (a) Cell I is more complex in its organization than cell II (b) Cell I is a prokaryote (c) Cell II does not have a nucleus (d) The ancestors of cell II appeared earlier in the fossil record than the ancestors of cell II

Similar questions: A student studied two different groups of cells (2018 Practice MCQs (Botany))

Answer

(b) Cell I is a prokaryote

Cell I has a cell wall and ribosomes and respires and photosynthesizes, but has no nucleus, so it is a prokaryote (e.g. a cyanobacterium). Cell II has a nucleus, so it is eukaryotic. Prokaryotes are the simpler cells, and their ancestors appeared earlier in the fossil record.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

All of the following are examples of a reflex except (a) Sneezing (b) Blinking (c) Thinking (d) Knee Jerking

Similar questions: All of the following are examples of reflex exce (2018 Practice Test 2)

Answer

(c) Thinking

Sneezing, blinking and knee jerk are rapid, involuntary reflex actions. Thinking is a voluntary process carried out by the cerebrum.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

The unit of intensity level of sound is (a) Wb m−2^{-2} (b) dB (c) Wb (d) Joule

Similar questions: The unit of intensity of sound is (2018 Practice Test 4)

Answer

(b) dB

Intensity level (loudness) of sound is β=10log⁡10(I/I0)\beta = 10\log_{10}(I/I_0) and is measured in decibels (dB).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

A pure tall pea plant can be distinguished from a hybrid tall pea plant by (a) Selfing and noting that all progeny are dwarf (b) Gibberellins treatment (c) Selfing and noting that all progeny are tall (d) Measuring its height

Similar questions: A pure tall pea plant can be distinguished from (2018 Practice MCQs (Botany))

Answer

(c) Selfing and noting that all progeny are tall

A pure (homozygous TT) tall plant gives only tall progeny on selfing. A hybrid (Tt) gives tall and dwarf in a 3 : 1 ratio.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

All of the following are examples of reflex except (a) Sneezing (b) Blinking (c) Thinking (d) Knee jerking

Similar questions: All of the following are examples of a reflex ex (2018 Practice Test 1)

Answer

(c) Thinking

Sneezing, blinking and the knee jerk are involuntary, automatic reflex actions. Thinking is a voluntary activity of the cerebrum.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

All of the following are mammals except (a) Porpoise (b) Walrus (c) Seal (d) Shark

Similar questions: All of the following are mammals EXCEPT (2018 Practice Test 4)

Answer

(d) Shark

A shark is a cartilaginous fish that breathes through gills. Porpoises, walruses and seals are mammals.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

A body completes its motion in a circular path of radius 2m in 1 second .What is its average velocity? (a) 2π m/sec (b) 4π m/sec (c) 0 m/sec (d) 1m/sec

Similar questions: If a body completes its motion in a circular tra (2018 Practice MCQs (Physics))

Answer

(c) 0 m/sec

After one complete revolution the body returns to its starting point, so the displacement is zero.

Average velocity=displacementtime=01=0 m/s\text{Average velocity} = \frac{\text{displacement}}{\text{time}} = \frac{0}{1} = 0 \text{ m/s}

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following would be most likely to occur in an ecosystem? (a) As the number of prey decreases, the number of predators increases. (b) As the number of predators increases, the number of prey increases. (c) As the number of prey increases, the number of predators increases. (d) As the number of prey increases, the number of predators decreases.

Similar questions: Which of the following would be most likely to o (2018 Practice MCQs (Botany))

Answer

(c) As the number of prey increases, the number of predators increases.

More prey means more food, so predator numbers rise after it, and they in turn reduce the prey.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

All of the following are mammals EXCEPT (a) Shark (b) Seal (c) Porpoise (d) Bat

Similar questions: All of the following are mammals except (2018 Practice Test 2)

Answer

(a) Shark

A shark is a cartilaginous fish. Seals, porpoises and bats are mammals (they have hair and mammary glands).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

The unit of intensity of sound is (a) Cd (b) dB (c) Joule (d) Watt m−2\mathrm{Watt\,m^{-2}}

Similar questions: The unit of intensity level of sound is (2018 Practice Test 1)

Answer

(d) Watt m−2\mathrm{Watt\,m^{-2}}

Intensity is the sound energy passing per unit time through unit area perpendicular to the wave, so its unit is W m−2\mathrm{W\,m^{-2}}. The decibel (dB) is a unit of loudness level, not intensity.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Special structures for absorption in small intestine are called (a) Alveoli (b) Villi (c) Epiglottis (d) Muscles

Similar questions: Special structures for absorption in small intes (2019 Science Sample Test Set A)

Answer

(b) Villi

The inner wall of the small intestine has finger-like projections called villi. They greatly increase the surface area for absorption of digested food.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Of the following terms, which one includes all the others? (a) Species (b) Class (c) Phylum (d) Kingdom

Similar questions: Of the following terms, which one includes all t (2018 Practice Test 3)

Answer

(d) Kingdom

The taxonomic hierarchy runs from kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus to species. Kingdom is the highest of these ranks, so it includes all the others.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not ore of iron? (a) Hematite (b) Magnetite (c) Limonite (d) Bauxite

Similar questions: Which of the following is not ore of iron? (2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry))

Answer

(d) Bauxite

Bauxite, Al2O3⋅2H2OAl_2O_3\cdot 2H_2O, is the ore of aluminium. Hematite (Fe2O3Fe_2O_3), magnetite (Fe3O4Fe_3O_4) and limonite (2Fe2O3⋅3H2O2Fe_2O_3\cdot 3H_2O) are ores of iron.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Inertia of rest depends on …….. (a) Force applied on the body (b) Mass of the body (c) Velocity of the body (d) Direction of the motion

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Answer

(b) Mass of the body

Inertia is measured by mass, so a body of larger mass has greater inertia of rest and is harder to set into motion.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

To have free fall, the acceleration of the body is ……… (a) Less than acceleration due to gravity (b) More than acceleration due to gravity (c) Equal to acceleration due to gravity (d) None of the above

Similar questions: To have free fall, the acceleration of the body (2018 Practice MCQs (Physics))

Answer

(c) Equal to acceleration due to gravity

In free fall only gravity acts on the body, so its acceleration is exactly gg (≈9.8 m s−2\approx 9.8\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-2}}).

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

A body 'A' has 2000 J energy at 20∘20^\circC and another body 'B' has energy 200 J at 200∘200^\circC, then when they are kept in thermal contact, heat flows from. (a) A to B (b) B to A (c) None of them (d) Both of them

Similar questions: A body A has 2000J energy at 20°C and another bo (2018 Practice MCQs (Physics))

Answer

(b) B to A

Heat flows according to temperature, not the amount of energy stored. B is at 200∘200^\circC and A is at 20∘20^\circC, so heat flows from the hotter body B to the colder body A.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Two resistors of 2 Ω2\,\Omega are connected in parallel and one 1 Ω1\,\Omega is connected in series with this combination, the total resistance is …… (a) 3 Ω3\,\Omega (b) 2 Ω2\,\Omega (c) 1 Ω1\,\Omega (d) 12 Ω\frac12\,\Omega

Similar questions: When two resistors of 2Ω are connected in parall (2018 Practice MCQs (Physics))

Answer

(b) 2 Ω2\,\Omega

The parallel pair gives 2×22+2=1 Ω\dfrac{2\times2}{2+2}=1\,\Omega. Adding 1 Ω1\,\Omega in series gives 1+1=2 Ω1+1=2\,\Omega.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

If a magnet A attracts B but repels C. (a) Both of B and C are surely magnets (b) Both of B and C are surely magnetic substance (c) B is surely magnetic substance and C is magnet (d) Sure A, B may be magnet or magnetic substance but C is magnet

Similar questions: If a magnet A attracts B but repels C, (2018 Practice MCQs (Physics))

Answer

(d) Sure A, B may be magnet or magnetic substance but C is magnet

Repulsion occurs only between like poles of two magnets, so C must be a magnet. Attraction happens between unlike poles of two magnets and also between a magnet and a magnetic substance, so B may be either.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Which of the following is organic compound? (a) NH3 (b) CO2 (c) Na2CO3 (d) CCl4

Similar questions: Which of the following in organic compound? (2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry))

Answer

(d) CCl4\mathrm{CCl_4}

Carbon tetrachloride is a covalent carbon compound with C-Cl bonds, so it is classed as organic. NH3\mathrm{NH_3} has no carbon, and CO2\mathrm{CO_2} and Na2CO3\mathrm{Na_2CO_3} are treated as inorganic carbon compounds.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

‘Origin of species’ was written by …….. (a) Oparin (b) Weismann (c) Darwin (d) Hugo De Vires

Similar questions: ‘Origin of Species’ was written by (2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology))

Answer

(c) Darwin

Charles Darwin wrote "On the Origin of Species" (1859), which set out his theory of natural selection.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Special structures for absorption in small intestine are called as …… (a) Alvoeli (b) Villi (c) Epiglottis (d) Muscles

Similar questions: Special structures for absorption in small intes (2018 Practice Test 5)

Answer

(b) Villi

The inner wall of the small intestine has finger-like villi that greatly increase the surface area for absorbing digested food. Alveoli are in the lungs.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

The chemical formula of diethyl ether is : (a) C2_2H5_5OC2_2H5_5 (b) C2_2H5_5OH (c) C3_3H5_5(OH)3_3 (d) CO(NH)2_2

Similar questions: The chemical formula of diethyl ether is : (2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10)

Answer

(a) C2_2H5_5OC2_2H5_5

Diethyl ether is (C2H5)2O(C_2H_5)_2O. The others are ethanol (b), glycerol (c) and urea (d).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Which element has lowest electron negativity (a) Fluorine (b) Lithium (c) Hydrogen (d) Cesium

Similar questions: Which element has lowest electron negativity ? (2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10)

Answer

(d) Cesium

Electronegativity decreases down a group and from right to left across a period. Cesium is the most electropositive stable element of the options, so it has the lowest electronegativity (about 0.70.7).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Which element has lowest electron negativity ? (a) Fluorine (b) Lithium (c) Hydrogen (d) Caesium

Similar questions: Which element has lowest electron negativity (2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5)

Answer

(d) Caesium

Electronegativity decreases down a group and increases across a period. Caesium is the largest, most electropositive of the options, so it has the lowest electronegativity (about 0.7), whereas fluorine has the highest (4.0).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

The chemical formula of diethyl ether is : (a) C2_2H5_5OC2_2H5_5 (b) C2_2H5_5OH (c) C3_3H5_5(OH)3_3 (d) CO(NH2_2)2_2

Similar questions: The chemical formula of diethyl ether is : (2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5)

Answer

*(a) C

Diethyl ether has two ethyl groups joined through oxygen: C2H5−O−C2H5\mathrm{C_2H_5-O-C_2H_5}. (b) is ethanol, (c) is glycerol and (d) is urea.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Which of the following is universal receiver ? (a) Blood group AB+ve^{+ve} (b) Blood group O−ve^{-ve} (c) Blood group B+ve^{+ve} (d) Blood group AB−ve^{-ve}

Similar questions: Which of the following blood group is universal (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2)

Answer

(a) Blood group AB+ve^{+ve}

AB+ve^{+ve} has antigens A, B and Rh on its cells but no anti-A, anti-B or anti-Rh antibodies in the plasma, so it can receive blood of any group.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

If a body completes its motion in a circular track of radius 2m in 5 second, then the average velocity of the body is (a) 4π/5 m/sec (b) 2π/5 m/sec (c) 5π/4m/sec (d) 0m/sec

Similar questions: A body completes its motion in a circular path o (2018 Practice Test 3)

Answer

(d) 00 m/s

After one complete revolution the body returns to its starting point, so the displacement is zero.

vavg=displacementtime=05=0 m/sv_{avg}=\frac{\text{displacement}}{\text{time}}=\frac{0}{5}=0\ \text{m/s}

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Inertia of rest depends on (a) mass of the body (b) force applied on the body (c) velocity of the body (d) direction of the motion

Similar questions: Inertia of rest depends on …….. (2019 Science Sample Test Set A)

Answer

(a) mass of the body

Inertia of rest is the tendency of a body to stay at rest. It is measured by mass: the greater the mass, the greater the inertia.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

To have free fall, the acceleration of the body is (a) less than acceleration due to gravity (b) more than acceleration due to gravity (c) equal to the acceleration due to gravity (d) none of above

Similar questions: To have free fall, the acceleration of the body (2019 Science Sample Test Set A)

Answer

(c) equal to the acceleration due to gravity

Free fall means motion under gravity alone, so the acceleration of the body is gg (independent of its mass).

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

A body A has 2000J energy at 20°C and another body B has energy 200J at 200°C, then when they are kept in thermal contact, heat flows from (a) A to B (b) B to A (c) none of them (d) both of them

Similar questions: A body 'A' has 2000 J energy at 20^circC and ano (2019 Science Sample Test Set A)

Answer

(b) B to A

Heat flows from the body at higher temperature to the one at lower temperature, regardless of the amount of internal energy. B is at 200∘200^\circC and A at 20∘20^\circC, so heat flows from B to A.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

When two resistors of 2Ω are connected in parallel and one 1Ω is connected in series with this combination. The total resistance is (a) 3Ω (b) 2Ω (c) 1Ω (d) 1/2Ω

Similar questions: Two resistors of 2,Omega are connected in parall (2019 Science Sample Test Set A)

Answer

(b) 2Ω

Two 2 Ω2\,\Omega resistors in parallel:

Rp=2×22+2=1 ΩR_p = \frac{2 \times 2}{2+2} = 1\ \Omega

Adding 1 Ω1\,\Omega in series: R=1+1=2 ΩR = 1 + 1 = 2\ \Omega.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

If a magnet A attracts B but repels C, (a) both of B and C are surely magnets (b) both of B and C are surely magnetic substances (c) B is surely magnetic substance and C is a magnet. (d) sure a B may be magnet or magnetic substance but C is magnet

Similar questions: If a magnet A attracts B but repels C. (2019 Science Sample Test Set A)

Answer

(d) B may be a magnet or a magnetic substance, but C is surely a magnet.

Attraction occurs between a magnet and either a magnet (unlike poles) or a magnetic substance (induced magnetism). Repulsion occurs only between like poles, so only a magnet can repel a magnet.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Which of the following in organic compound? (a) NH3 (b) CO2 (c) Na2CO3 (d) CCl4

Similar questions: Which of the following is organic compound? (2019 Science Sample Test Set A)

Answer

(d) CCl4CCl_4.

Carbon tetrachloride is a covalent carbon compound, so it is organic by classification. CO2CO_2 and Na2CO3Na_2CO_3 are treated as inorganic carbon compounds, and NH3NH_3 contains no carbon.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Which of the following is not ore of iron? (a) Haematite (b) Limonite (c) Bauxite (d) Magnetite

Similar questions: Which of the following is not ore of iron? (2018 Practice Test 5)

Answer

(c) Bauxite.

Bauxite (Al2O3⋅2H2OAl_2O_3\cdot 2H_2O) is an ore of aluminium. Haematite (Fe2O3Fe_2O_3), limonite (2Fe2O3⋅3H2O2Fe_2O_3\cdot 3H_2O) and magnetite (Fe3O4Fe_3O_4) are ores of iron.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

‘Origin of Species’ was written by (a) Oparin (b) Weismann (c) Lamarck (d) Darwin

Similar questions: ‘Origin of species’ was written by …….. (2019 Science Sample Test Set A)

Answer

(d) Darwin

Charles Darwin published "On the Origin of Species" in 1859, presenting natural selection.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

What is process by which the cytoplasm of a cell divides to form two daughter cells? (a) cytokinesis (b) interphase (c) prophase (d) karyokinesis

Similar questions: What is the name of the process by which the cyt (2018 Practice Test 1)

Answer

(a) cytokinesis

Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm that forms two daughter cells after karyokinesis (nuclear division).

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

A student studied two different groups of cells and made the following notes: Trait Cell I Cell II Cell wall Present Present Ribosomes Present Present Nucleus Absent Present Ability to photosynthesize Present Present Which of the following conclusions is best supported by these observations? (a) cell I is more complex (b) cell I is a prokaryote (c) the ancestors of cell II appeared earlier (d) cell II does not have a nucleus

Similar questions: A student studied two different groups of cells (2018 Practice Test 1)

Answer

(b) cell I is a prokaryote

Both cells have a cell wall, ribosomes and can photosynthesize, but cell I lacks a nucleus. A cell without a true nucleus is prokaryotic (for example a cyanobacterium), while cell II, with a nucleus, is eukaryotic (for example a plant cell).

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Of the following terms, which one includes others? (a) species (b) genus (c) class (d) order

Similar questions: Of the following terms, which one includes all t (2018 Practice Test 3)

Answer

(c) class

In the taxonomic hierarchy (species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom), class is the highest rank listed here, so it includes the order, genus and species.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Which of the plants mentioned below is not characterized by the presence of reticulate veins in its leaves? (a) sunflower (b) tomato (c) maize (d) Cuscuta

Similar questions: Which of the following plants mentioned below is (2018 Practice Test 1)

Answer

(c) maize

Maize is a monocot, with parallel venation. Sunflower and tomato are dicots with reticulate venation.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The process of loss of water vapor from the aerial parts of plants is called transpiration. The opening and closing of stomata is controlled by (a) stomata cells (b) guard cells (c) xylem cells (d) phloem cells

Similar questions: The process of loss of water vapour from the aer (2018 Practice Test 1)

Answer

(b) guard cells

Each stoma is bordered by two kidney-shaped guard cells whose turgor changes open and close the pore.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Sieve tubes, parenchyma, bast fibers, and ______ are the elements of phloem. (a) vessels (b) companion cells (c) wood fibers (d) tracheids

Similar questions: Sieve tubes, phloem parenchyma, bast fibers, and (2018 Practice Test 1)

Answer

(b) companion cells

Phloem consists of sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma and phloem (bast) fibres. Vessels and tracheids belong to xylem.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

A pure tall pea plant can be distinguished from a hybrid tall pea plant by (a) measuring its height (b) gibberellins treatment (c) selfing and noting that all progeny are tall (d) selfing and noting that all progeny are dwarf

Similar questions: A pure tall pea plant can be distinguished from (2018 Practice Test 2)

Answer

(c) selfing and noting that all progeny are tall

A pure tall (TTTT) plant gives only tall progeny on selfing. A hybrid (TtTt) gives tall and dwarf in a 3:13:1 ratio, so the two are distinguished.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Which of the following would be most likely to occur in a terrestrial ecosystem? (a) as the number of prey decreases, the number of predators increases (b) as the number of predators increases, the number of prey increases (c) as the number of prey increases, the number of predators decreases (d) as the number of prey increases, the number of predators increases

Similar questions: Which of the following would be most likely to o (2018 Practice Test 3)

Answer

(d) as the number of prey increases, the number of predators increases

More prey means more food, so the predator population grows. Predator and prey numbers rise and fall together, with the predators lagging slightly behind.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

What is the power of a convex lens whose focal length is 25cm? (a) +2 D (b) -2D (c) +4D (d) -4D

Similar questions: Power of convex lens with focal length 50 cm is, (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2)

Answer

(c) +4 D

P=1f (in m)=10.25=+4 DP=\frac{1}{f\,(\text{in m})}=\frac{1}{0.25}=+4\ \text{D}

The power is positive because the lens is convex.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Genotypic ratio of monohybrid cross is (a) 3:1 (b) 1:1 (c) 1:2:1 (d) 2:1

Similar questions: Which of the following is the genotypic ratio of (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8)

Answer

(c) 1:2:1

In a monohybrid cross Tt×TtTt \times Tt the offspring are TT:Tt:tt=1:2:1TT : Tt : tt = 1:2:1. The phenotypic ratio is 3:1.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Power of convex lens with focal length 50 cm is, (a) - 2D (b) 1/50 (c) +2D (d) - 1/50 D

Similar questions: What is the power of a convex lens whose focal l (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1)

Answer

(c) +2+2 D

P=1f=10.5 m=+2P=\dfrac1f=\dfrac1{0.5\text{ m}}=+2 D, positive for a convex (converging) lens.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which of the following blood group is universal receiver ? (a) AB (b) O (c) A (d) B

Similar questions: Which of the following is universal receiver ? (2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10)

Answer

(a) AB

Blood group AB has no anti-A or anti-B antibodies in the plasma, so it can receive blood from any ABO group. It is the universal recipient; group O is the universal donor.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Where should an object be placed in front of convex lens to have magnification of convex lens to have magnification equals to 1? (a) at 2F (b) between F & 2F (c) at F (d) between F & O

Similar questions: Where should an object be placed in front of con (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6)

Answer

(a) at 2F

Using m=vum=\dfrac{v}{u} and 1f=1v−1u\dfrac1f=\dfrac1v-\dfrac1u, with u=−2fu=-2f we get v=2fv=2f, so m=1m=1 (the image is real, inverted and the same size).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

The metal that reacts with cold water is: (a) Copper (b) Iron (c) Sodium (d) Silver

Similar questions: Which metal reacts with cold water? (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7)

Answer

(c) Sodium

Sodium is highly reactive and reacts with cold water to give sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas:

2Na+2H2O→2NaOH+H2↑2Na + 2H_2O \rightarrow 2NaOH + H_2\uparrow

Copper, iron and silver do not react with cold water.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon? (a) Ethene (b) Ethyne (c) Methane (d) Benzene

Similar questions: Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbo (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6)

Answer

(c) Methane

Methane (CH4CH_4) has only single bonds, so it is a saturated hydrocarbon (alkane). Ethene and ethyne have double and triple bonds, and benzene is unsaturated aromatic.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following blood cells is without a nucleus? (a) Neutrophil (b) Lymphocyte (c) Monocyte (d) Platelet

Similar questions: Which of the following blood cells is without a (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8)

Answer

(d) Platelet. Platelets are cell fragments without a nucleus, whereas neutrophils, lymphocytes and monocytes are nucleated white blood cells.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What will be the change in the gravitational force between two bodies when the distance between their center is made halved ? (a) Force increases by two times (b) Force decreases by two times (c) Force increases by four times (d) Force decreases by four times .

Similar questions: What will be the change in the gravitational for (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7)

Answer

(c) Force increases by four times

F∝1r2F\propto \dfrac{1}{r^2}. With rr changed to r/2r/2, the new force is proportional to 1(r/2)2=4⋅1r2\dfrac{1}{(r/2)^2}=4\cdot\dfrac{1}{r^2}, so it becomes 4F4F.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth is g. If mass and radius of the earth both are made halved then what is the new value of acceleration due to gravity on the earth surface? (a) g (b) 2g (c) 3g (d) 4g

Similar questions: The acceleration due to gravity on the surface o (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6)

Answer

(b) 2g

g=GMR2⇒gnew=G(M/2)(R/2)2=GM/2R2/4=2⋅GMR2=2gg=\frac{GM}{R^2}\Rightarrow g_{new}=\frac{G(M/2)}{(R/2)^2}=\frac{GM/2}{R^2/4}=2\cdot\frac{GM}{R^2}=2g

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

A ship going from sea to river has to displace more water to ...... . (a) change the buoyant force. (b) decrease the buoyant force. (c) maintain the same buoyant force. (d) increase the buoyant force.

Similar questions: A ship going from river to sea has to displace l (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6)

Answer

(c) maintain the same buoyant force.

River water is less dense than sea water. To float, the buoyant force must still equal the ship's weight, W=V d gW=V\,d\,g, so with smaller dd a larger volume VV must be displaced and the ship sinks deeper.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

The normal body temperature of a healthy person is 37°C. What is the corresponding value in Fahrenheit scale ? (a) 96°F (b) 96.8°F (c) 98°F (d) 98.6°F

Similar questions: The normal body temperature of a healthy person (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6)

Answer

(d) 98.6°F

F=95C+32=95(37)+32=66.6+32=98.6∘FF=\frac{9}{5}C+32=\frac{9}{5}(37)+32=66.6+32=98.6^\circ\text{F}

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What are the lower fixed points of the temperature in celsius, fahrenheit and kelvin scales respectively ? (a) 0°C, 0°F, 0°K (b) 0°C, 32°F, 273°K (c) 0°C, 180°F, 373°K (d) 0°C, 212°F, 373°K

Similar questions: What are the upper fixed points of the temperatu (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6)

Answer

(b) 0°C, 32°F, 273°K

The lower fixed point (melting point of pure ice) is 0∘0^\circC, 32∘32^\circF and 273273 K.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Where should an object be placed in front of convex lens to have magnification of convex lens less than 1? (a) Beyond 2F (b) between F & 2F (c) Exactly at F (d) between F & O

Similar questions: Where should an object be placed in front of con (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6)

Answer

(a) Beyond 2F

For an object beyond 2F2F the image forms between FF and 2F2F, real, inverted and diminished, so m=v/u<1m=v/u<1.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What is the power of a concave lens having focal length of 10 cm? (a) 0.1 D (b) -0.1 D (c) 10 D (d) -10 D

Similar questions: What is the focal length of a concave lens havin (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6)

Answer

(d) -10 D

f=−10f=-10 cm =−0.1=-0.1 m for a concave lens, so

P=1f=1−0.1=−10 DP=\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{-0.1}=-10\text{ D}

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

On which principle electromagnet is based on? (a) Magnetic effect of current (b) Electromagnetic induction (c) Motor effect of current (d) Mutual induction

Similar questions: On which principle generator is based on? (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6)

Answer

(a) Magnetic effect of current

A current in a coil wound on a soft iron core magnetises the core. The magnetism disappears when the current is switched off.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about open universe ? (a) It expands forever. (b) Sum of triangle is more than 180°. (c) Density of the universe is less than critical density. (d) Its gravity is not strong.

Similar questions: Which one of the following statement is incorrec (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7)

Answer

(b) Sum of triangle is more than 180°.

An open universe has negative (hyperbolic) curvature, so the angles of a triangle add up to less than 180∘180^\circ. The other statements are true: it has density below the critical density, weak gravity, and expands forever.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

What will be the change in the gravitational force between two bodies when the distance between their center is made one-third ? (a) Force increases by three times . (b) Force decreases by three times . (c) Force increases by nine times . (d) Force decreases by nine times

Similar questions: What will be the change in the gravitational for (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7)

Answer

(c) Force increases by nine times.

F∝1d2F \propto \dfrac{1}{d^2}. With the new distance d/3d/3, the new force is F(dd/3)2=9FF\left(\dfrac{d}{d/3}\right)^2 = 9F.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth is g. If mass and radius of the earth both are made one-fourth then what is the new value of acceleration due to gravity on the earth surface? (a) g (b) 2g (c) 3g (d) 4g

Similar questions: The acceleration due to gravity on the surface o (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5)

Answer

(d) 4g

g=GMR2g = \dfrac{GM}{R^2}. With mass M/4M/4 and radius R/4R/4: gnew=G(M/4)(R/4)2=GM4⋅16R2=4g.g_{new}=\frac{G(M/4)}{(R/4)^2}=\frac{G M}{4}\cdot\frac{16}{R^2}=4g.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

A ship going from river to sea has to displace less water to (a) change the buoyant force. (b) decrease the buoyant force. (c) maintain the same buoyant force. (d) increase the buoyant force.

Similar questions: A ship going from sea to river has to displace m (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5)

Answer

(c) maintain the same buoyant force.

The buoyant force must equal the ship's weight, which is fixed. Sea water is denser than river water, so a smaller volume of it gives the same upthrust and the ship displaces less water.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

The normal body temperature of a healthy person is 37°C. What is the corresponding value in kelvin scale ? (a) 207 K (b) 210 K (c) 307 K (d) 310 K

Similar questions: The normal body temperature of a healthy person (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5)

Answer

(d) 310 K

T(K)=t(∘C)+273=37+273=310 KT(\text{K}) = t(^\circ\text{C}) + 273 = 37 + 273 = 310\ \text{K}.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

What are the upper fixed points of the temperature in celsius, fahrenheit and kelvin scales respectively ? (a) 100°C, 212°F, 373°K (b) 180°C, 312°F, 273°K (c) 100°C, 212°F, 273°K (d) 180°C, 312°F, 373°K

Similar questions: What are the lower fixed points of the temperatu (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5)

Answer

(a) 100°C, 212°F, 373°K

The upper fixed point (boiling point of water at standard pressure) is 100∘100^\circC =212∘=212^\circF =373=373 K.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

What is the focal length of a concave lens having power 10 D? (a) 0.1 Cm (b) -0.1 Cm (c) 10 Cm (d) -10 Cm

Similar questions: What is the power of a concave lens having focal (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5)

Answer

(d) -10 Cm

f=1P=110=0.1 m=10 cm.f=\frac{1}{P}=\frac{1}{10}=0.1\ \text{m}=10\ \text{cm}. A concave lens has negative focal length, so f=−10 cmf=-10\ \text{cm}.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

On which principle generator is based on? (a) Magnetic effect of current (b) Electromagnetic induction (c) Motor effect of current (d) Mutual induction

Similar questions: On which principle electromagnet is based on? (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5)

Answer

(b) Electromagnetic induction

A generator turns mechanical energy into electrical energy by rotating a coil in a magnetic field, which induces an e.m.f. (Faraday's law).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon? (a) Ethane (b) Ethyne (c) Ethene (d) Benzene

Similar questions: Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbo (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4)

Answer

(a) Ethane

Ethane (C2H6C_2H_6) has only single C-C bonds, so it is saturated. Ethyne has a triple bond, ethene a double bond, and benzene is unsaturated.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which of the following is an effect of high specific heat capacity ? (a) Objects heat up quickly. (b) Objects cool down quickly. (c) Objects do not absorb heat. (d) Objects retain heat for longer periods.

Similar questions: Which of the following is an effect of low speci (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8)

Answer

(d) Objects retain heat for longer periods.

With Q=mcΔTQ=mc\Delta T, a large cc means a large heat change is needed for a given temperature change, so the object heats and cools slowly.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

During the process of dispersion of light through a prism, which colour is seen at the bottom? (a) Indigo (b) Violet (c) Blue (d) Red

Similar questions: During the process of dispersion of light throug (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8)

Answer

(b) Violet

Violet has the shortest wavelength and is deviated the most by the prism, so it appears at the bottom, with red at the top.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

If the velocity of light in glass medium is 2 × 10⁸ m/s then what is the value of refractive index of glass ? (a) 1 (b) 1.33 (c) 1.45 (d) 1.5

Similar questions: If the velocity of light in water medium is 2.2 (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8)

Answer

(d) 1.5

n=cv=3×1082×108=1.5n=\frac{c}{v}=\frac{3\times10^8}{2\times10^8}=1.5

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about closed universe ? (a) It expands forever. (b) Sum of triangle is less than 180°. (c) Density of the universe is more than critical density. (d) Its gravity is strong.

Similar questions: Which one of the following statement is incorrec (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5)

Answer

(a) It expands forever.

A closed universe has density above the critical density and strong gravity, so its expansion eventually stops and it collapses (Big Crunch); it does not expand forever. (Its triangle angle sum is also greater than 180∘180^\circ, so (b) is likewise not a property of a closed universe, but (a) is the standard incorrect statement.)

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which metal reacts with cold water? (a) Zinc (b) Sodium (c) Copper (d) Silver

Similar questions: The metal that reacts with cold water is: (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4)

Answer

(b) Sodium. Sodium is a highly reactive alkali metal and reacts with cold water to give NaOH and hydrogen: 2Na+2H2O→2NaOH+H22Na + 2H_2O \to 2NaOH + H_2.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which of the following is an effect of low specific heat capacity? (a) Objects heat up quickly. (b) Objects cool down slowly. (c) Objects do not absorb heat. (d) Objects retain heat for longer periods.

Similar questions: Which of the following is an effect of high spec (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7)

Answer

(a) Objects heat up quickly.

Since Q=mcΔθQ = mc\Delta\theta, a small specific heat capacity cc means a small amount of heat produces a large temperature rise, so the object heats up (and cools down) quickly.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

During the process of dispersion of light through a prism, which colour is seen at the top? (a) Indigo (b) Violet (c) Blue (d) Red

Similar questions: During the process of dispersion of light throug (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7)

Answer

(d) Red

Red light bends the least and violet the most, so on the screen red appears at the top and violet at the bottom (VIBGYOR from bottom to top).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

If the velocity of light in water medium is 2.2 × 10⁸ m/s then what is the value of refractive index of water ? (a) 1 (b) 1.33 (c) 1.45 (d) 1.5

Similar questions: If the velocity of light in glass medium is 2 × (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7)

Answer

(b) 1.33

n=cv=3×1082.2×108≈1.36n = \frac{c}{v} = \frac{3\times10^8}{2.2\times10^8} \approx 1.36 The nearest option is 1.33, the refractive index of water.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which of the following is the genotypic ratio of monohybrid cross? (a) 1:2 (b) 3:1 (c) 1:2:1 (d) 9:2:3:1

Similar questions: Genotypic ratio of monohybrid cross is (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1)

Answer

(c) 1:2:1. In a monohybrid cross Tt ×\times Tt, the F2_2 genotypes are 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt. The phenotypic ratio is 3:1.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which of the following blood cells is without a nucleus? (a) Neutrophil (b) Lymphocyte (c) Monocyte (d) Platelets

Similar questions: Which of the following blood cells is without a (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4)

Answer

(d) Platelets. Platelets (thrombocytes) are cell fragments of megakaryocytes and have no nucleus. Neutrophils, lymphocytes and monocytes are nucleated white blood cells.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

What the association between two organisms called if one gets advantage from the other without harming it? (a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism (c) Predation (d) Parasitism

Answer

(b) Commensalism

In commensalism one organism benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed (e.g. orchids growing on a tree). In mutualism both benefit; in parasitism and predation one is harmed.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

What is the branch of biology dealing with the study of algae called? (a) Phycology (b) Mycology (c) Ornithology (d) Myology

Answer

(a) Phycology

Phycology (algology) is the study of algae. Mycology studies fungi, ornithology studies birds and myology studies muscles.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following is human diploid chromosome number? (a) 10 (b) 23 (c) 46 (d) 92

Answer

(c) 46

Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, so the diploid number is 2n=462n=46. The haploid number is 23.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

A part of digestive system that is not in contact with food is the (a) Small intestine (b) Stomach (c) Large intestine (d) Liver

Answer

(d) Liver

Food passes through the alimentary canal (stomach, small and large intestine). The liver is an accessory organ that secretes bile into the duodenum, but food does not pass through it.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Although the Duckbilled Platypus lays eggs, it is classified as (a) Amphibia (b) Reptilia (c) Aves (d) Mammal

Answer

(d) Mammal

The platypus has hair, is warm-blooded and feeds its young on milk from mammary glands. It is an egg-laying mammal (a monotreme).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Epithelial cells may have all of the following functions except (a) Protection (b) Absorption (c) Contraction (d) Secretion

Answer

(c) Contraction

Epithelial tissue protects, absorbs and secretes. Contraction is the function of muscle tissue.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Two wastes resulting from the oxidation of food are (a) Oxygen & water (b) Carbon dioxide & water (c) Oxygen & Carbon dioxide (d) Oxygen & ATP

Answer

(b) Carbon dioxide & water

Oxidation of glucose: C6H12O6+6O2→6CO2+6H2O+energyC_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2 \rightarrow 6CO_2 + 6H_2O + \text{energy}. Oxygen is consumed, not produced as a waste.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not an attribute of enzyme? (a) They are specific in nature (b) They are proteinous in nature (c) They are used up in the reaction (d) They speed up rate of biochemical reactions

Answer

(c) They are used up in the reaction

Enzymes are specific protein catalysts that speed up reactions. They are not consumed and can be reused.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Short sightedness of myopic vision is corrected by wearing (a) Convex lens (b) Concave lens (c) Concave mirror (d) Convex mirror

Answer

(b) Concave lens

In myopia the image forms in front of the retina. A concave (diverging) lens spreads the rays so the image falls on the retina.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Hydra is (a) Asymmetrical (b) Radially Symmetrical (c) Spherically Symmetrical (d) Bilaterally Symmetrical

Answer

(b) Radially Symmetrical

Hydra is a cnidarian. Its body can be divided into equal halves by any plane passing through the central axis.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

If a bird is transferred from 20∘20^\circC to 10∘10^\circC, the body temperature will change to (a) 15∘15^\circC (b) 5∘5^\circC (c) 10∘10^\circC (d) No change

Answer

(d) No change

A bird is warm-blooded (homeothermic), so it keeps its body temperature constant despite changes in surroundings.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

A mixture of sand, common salt and camphor can be separated by (a) Filtration (b) Evaporation (c) Sublimation (d) Filtration followed by Sublimation

Answer

(d) Filtration followed by Sublimation

Camphor sublimes, so heating the mixture separates it. Dissolving the residue in water and filtering removes the insoluble sand, and evaporating the filtrate gives salt. Of the options, filtration followed by sublimation is the intended one.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

The atomic numbers of two elements A and B are 30 and 15 respectively. What is the possible formula of the compound? (a) A3B2 (b) A2B3 (c) AB2 (d) AB

Answer

(a) A3B2A_3B_2

Element A (Z = 30) has configuration 2,8,18,22,8,18,2, so valency 2 (forms A2+A^{2+}). Element B (Z = 15) has 2,8,52,8,5, so valency 3 (forms B3−B^{3-}). Criss-crossing the valencies gives A3B2A_3B_2 (like Zn3P2Zn_3P_2).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following is natural polymer? (a) Starch (b) Plastic (c) Protein (d) Both A & C

Answer

(d) Both A & C

Starch and protein are natural polymers made by living organisms. Plastic is a synthetic polymer.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following is covalent solid? (a) copper (b) Diamond (c) Sodium Chloride (d) Methane

Answer

(b) Diamond

Diamond is a giant network of carbon atoms joined by covalent bonds. Copper is metallic, NaCl is ionic and methane is a molecular solid.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Divide a piece of chalk into half. Divide it further and keep on dividing it many times. The smallest piece of chalk that can be obtained by this division is (a) An atom (b) A molecule (c) A particle (d) A crystal

Answer

(b) A molecule

The smallest particle of a substance that can exist independently and keeps its chemical properties is a molecule.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

The compound AgCl is composed of (a) AgCl molecule (b) Atoms of silver and chlorine (c) Polymerized AgCl molecules (d) Ag+ and Cl-

Answer

(d) Ag+ and Cl-

AgCl is an ionic compound. It consists of Ag+Ag^+ and Cl−Cl^- ions in a lattice, not discrete molecules.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

The compound which gives chlorine like smell is (a) CaOCl2 (b) CHCl2 (c) CaCl2 (d) both b and c

Answer

(a) CaOCl2CaOCl_2

Bleaching powder, CaOCl2CaOCl_2, slowly releases chlorine on exposure to air and moisture, giving a chlorine-like smell.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following is characteristic of both mixtures and compounds? (a) Energy is absorbed when they are made (b) Their properties are same as those of their components (c) They contain components in fixed ratios (d) Their mass equals the sum of mass of their components

Answer

(d) Their mass equals the sum of mass of their components

Mass is conserved in both. Compounds have fixed ratios and new properties, while mixtures keep component properties and have variable composition.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not a solution? (a) Smoke (b) Air (c) Brass (d) A gold ring

Answer

(a) Smoke

Smoke is a colloid (solid particles dispersed in gas). Air, brass and a gold ring (an alloy) are homogeneous mixtures, i.e. solutions.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

In the nucleus of 2040^{40}_{20}Ca, there are (a) 40 protons and 20 electrons (b) 20 protons and 40 electrons (c) 20 protons and 20 electrons (d) 20 protons and 20 neutrons

Answer

(d) 20 protons and 20 neutrons

For 2040Ca^{40}_{20}Ca: protons = Z=20Z = 20, neutrons = A−Z=40−20=20A - Z = 40 - 20 = 20. Electrons are outside the nucleus.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

The reverse process of neutralization is also known as (a) Hydrolysis reaction (b) Rearrangement reaction (c) Precipitation reaction (d) Red ox reaction

Answer

(a) Hydrolysis reaction

Neutralization is acid + base →\rightarrow salt + water. Its reverse, salt + water giving acid and base, is hydrolysis.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

The general formula of cycloalkane is (a) CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2} (b) CnH2nC_nH_{2n} (c) CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2} (d) CnH2n−1C_nH_{2n-1}

Answer

(b) CnH2nC_nH_{2n}

Cycloalkanes have one ring, which removes two hydrogens from the alkane formula CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2}, e.g. cyclohexane C6H12C_6H_{12}.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

The absolute mass of one atom of hydrogen is (a) 1.008 amu (b) 1.008 gm (c) 1 amu (d) 1.66×10−241.66\times10^{-24} gm

Answer

(d) 1.66×10−241.66\times10^{-24} gm

The absolute mass of a hydrogen atom is 1.008×1.66×10−24 g≈1.67×10−241.008 \times 1.66\times10^{-24}\ \text{g} \approx 1.67\times10^{-24} g. Option (d) is the nearest, being the value of 1 amu in grams. The others are relative masses in amu or wrong in magnitude.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following is organic compound? (a) CO2 (b) CO (c) Na2CO3 (d) CO(NH2)2

Answer

(d) CO(NH2)2CO(NH_2)_2

Urea contains carbon bonded to hydrogen and nitrogen, so it is organic. CO2CO_2, COCO and Na2CO3Na_2CO_3 are treated as inorganic compounds.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following pairs of elements are chemically most similar? (a) Hf and Zr (b) Na and Al (c) Cu and Cl (d) B and Be

Answer

(a) Hf and Zr

Hf and Zr are in the same group, and the lanthanide contraction makes their atomic radii almost identical, so they are extremely similar chemically.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following have the same unit? (a) Energy and force (b) Work done and energy (c) Momentum and velocity (d) Acceleration and velocity

Answer

(b) Work done and energy

Both are measured in joules (kg m2s−2\text{kg m}^2\text{s}^{-2}). Force is in newtons, momentum in kg m s−1\text{kg m s}^{-1}, velocity in m s−1\text{m s}^{-1}, and acceleration in m s−2\text{m s}^{-2}.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following has unit but no dimension? (a) Plane angle (b) magnetic field (c) Momentum (d) Current

Answer

(a) Plane angle

Plane angle is measured in radians, so it has a unit, but it is a ratio of arc length to radius (length/length) and therefore has no dimension. Magnetic field, momentum and current all have dimensions.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

A bullet having mass 1Kg and moving with a velocity of 2 m s−1^{-1} penetrates in a wooden block which is at rest. After its penetration, both of them remain at rest. The amount of heat generated in the wooden block is equal to (a) 0J (b) 1J (c) 4J (d) 2J

Answer

(d) 2 J

All the kinetic energy of the bullet is converted to heat, since both come to rest:

Q=12mv2=12(1)(2)2=2 JQ = \tfrac12 mv^2 = \tfrac12(1)(2)^2 = 2\ \text{J}

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

The value of ‘g’ will be exactly zero at (a) the pole of the earth (b) the center of the earth (c) the Equator of the earth (d) infinity

Answer

(b) the center of the earth

Inside the earth gg decreases linearly with depth, g′=g(1−dR)g' = g\left(1-\frac{d}{R}\right), so it is exactly zero at the centre (d=Rd=R). At infinity it only tends towards zero and never becomes exactly zero.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

The mass of A is found to be greater than the mass of B. But the kinetic energy of A is found to be smaller than that of B. Then the velocity of A is -----------------------that of B. (a) smaller than (b) greater than (c) equal to (d) depends upon the size of the bodies

Answer

(a) smaller than

Since KE=12mv2KE=\tfrac12 mv^2, we get v=2KE/mv=\sqrt{2KE/m}. A has the larger mass and the smaller kinetic energy, so its velocity must be smaller than that of B.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

When we touch ice, we feel cool because of----------------------- (a) the gain of heat energy (b) the loss of heat energy (c) the gain of momentum (d) none of the above

Answer

(b) the loss of heat energy

Heat flows from our warmer hand to the colder ice, so the hand loses heat energy and we feel cold.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following process takes place faster than the others? (a) Conduction (b) Convection (c) Radiation (d) Propagation of sound

Answer

(c) Radiation

Radiation travels at the speed of light (3×1083\times10^8 m/s) and needs no medium. Conduction and convection are much slower, and sound travels at only about 340 m/s in air.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

The full form of Emf in electricity is----------------- (a) Electromotive force (b) Electromagnetic force (c) Electro motion force (d) Electricity motion force

Answer

(a) Electromotive force

Emf is the energy supplied per unit charge by a source such as a cell; despite the name it is not a force but is measured in volts.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

For a normal eye, ciliary muscles will be strained maximum when it views an object at (a) infinity (b) anywhere (c) the least distance of distinct vision (d) far distance of distinct vision

Answer

(c) the least distance of distinct vision

To see a near object clearly the ciliary muscles contract to increase the curvature (reduce the focal length) of the lens. This strain is maximum at the near point (about 25 cm). For distant objects the muscles are relaxed.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Sound wave can be propagated through (a) gas medium only (b) Vacuum only (c) liquid medium only (d) Solid, liquid and gas medium

Answer

(d) Solid, liquid and gas medium

Sound is a mechanical wave and needs a material medium, which can be a solid, liquid or gas. It cannot travel through vacuum.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following statement is false? (a) We can have an isolated charge (b) We can have an isolated magnetic pole (c) We c an have an isolated eye lens (d) We can have an isolated electron

Answer

(b) We can have an isolated magnetic pole

Magnetic poles always occur in north-south pairs; cutting a magnet only gives smaller magnets, each with two poles. Isolated electric charges and isolated electrons do exist.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

Sure test of electrification is (a) repulsion between unlike charges (b) attraction between unlike charges (c) repulsion between like charges (d) attraction between like charges

Answer

(c) repulsion between like charges

Attraction can occur between a charged and an uncharged body (by induction), or between a magnet and iron, so it is not a sure test. Repulsion occurs only between bodies carrying like charges.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 1 · 1 mark

There will be a full moon when (a) the moon lies in between the earth and the sun (b) the sun lies in between the earth and the moon (c) the earth lies in between the sun and the moon not in one plane (d) the earth lies in between the sun and the moon

Answer

(d) the earth lies in between the sun and the moon

At full moon the sun, earth and moon are almost in a straight line, with the earth in the middle, so the whole face of the moon lit by the sun is visible from the earth. The line-up is not exact, otherwise there would be a lunar eclipse every month.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

At a height of 9m from ground if a body of mass 2 kg has gravitational potential energy 36J, what will be its final velocity with which it strikes the ground if it is dropped from there? (a) 4m/sec (b) 6 m/sec (c) 2m/sec (d) 8 m/sec

Answer

(b) 6 m/sec

By conservation of energy, the potential energy at 9 m becomes kinetic energy at the ground:

12mv2=36⇒12(2)v2=36⇒v2=36⇒v=6 m/s\tfrac12 mv^2 = 36 \Rightarrow \tfrac12(2)v^2=36 \Rightarrow v^2=36 \Rightarrow v=6\ \text{m/s}

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a vector quality? (a) Time (b) Speed (c) Mass (d) Plane area

Answer

(d) Plane area

Time, speed and mass are scalars (magnitude only). Plane area can be represented as a vector, whose magnitude is the area and whose direction is along the normal to the plane.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

A body has K E of 10 J. How much work has to be done on it to stop it? (a) 5 J (b) 1 J (c) 10 J (d) 100 J

Answer

(c) 10 J

By the work-energy theorem, the work done equals the change in kinetic energy: ∣W∣=10−0=10|W| = 10 - 0 = 10 J (the work done on the body is −10-10 J, i.e. 10 J must be removed).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

When a force is applied on 2 kg and 4 kg masses one after another, the acceleration produced on them are 2 m/s2^2 and 1 m/s2^2 respectively. What is the magnitude of that force? (a) 4 N (b) 1 N (c) 3 N (d) 2 N

Answer

(a) 4 N

F=ma=2×2=4F = ma = 2\times2 = 4 N, and for the second mass F=4×1=4F = 4\times1 = 4 N, which agrees. The force is 4 N.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Which of the following statement is false? (a) A magnet can not have two opposite poles (b) A magnet can have an isolated pole (c) A magnet cannot have an isolated pole (d) None of above

Answer

(b) A magnet can have an isolated pole

Magnetic monopoles do not exist: cutting a magnet always gives smaller magnets, each with both a north and a south pole. So (c) is true and (b) is false. (Option (a), read as saying a magnet must have two opposite poles, is the intended true statement.)

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

A convex lens can ________ the light. (a) only converge (b) only diverge (c) neither converge nor diverge (d) converge as well as diverge

Answer

(a) only converge

A convex lens is thicker at the centre and bends parallel rays towards its principal focus, so it is a converging lens.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Sound wave is ___________ (a) a longitudinal wave. (b) a transverse wave. (c) an electromagnetic wave. (d) not a wave.

Answer

(a) a longitudinal wave.

In sound, the particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of travel of the wave, forming compressions and rarefactions. It needs a material medium, so it is not electromagnetic.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

The work done on bringing a unit positive test charge from one end of a resistor to another is called ____ (a) resistance (b) potential difference (c) emf (d) power

Answer

(b) potential difference

Potential difference between two points is the work done in bringing a unit positive charge from one point to the other: V=WqV=\dfrac{W}{q}.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Conductivity depends upon (a) resistivity (b) temperature (c) nature of the material (d) all of the above

Answer

(d) all of the above

Conductivity is σ=1ρ\sigma=\dfrac1\rho, so it depends on resistivity. Resistivity depends on the nature of the material and on temperature, so conductivity depends on all of these.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

For a normal eye, the far distance of distinct vision is (a) 25 cm (b) infinity (c) 50 cm (d) 75 cm

Answer

(b) infinity

The near point of a normal eye is 25 cm, and the far point is at infinity.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

The lower limit of auditory for human beings is (a) 10 Hz (b) 100 Hz (c) 20 Hz (d) 20 KHz

Answer

(c) 20 Hz

The audible range of human hearing is about 20 Hz to 20 kHz; 20 Hz is the lower limit.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

To cool a hot body, we use liquid having (a) low specific heat capacity (b) low thermal heat capacity (c) high thermal heat capacity (d) high specific heat capacity

Answer

(d) high specific heat capacity

A liquid with high specific heat capacity absorbs a large amount of heat for a small rise in temperature (Q=mcΔθQ=mc\Delta\theta), so it is a good coolant. Water is the usual example.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Volume of water will be minimum at (a) 0∘0^\circC (b) 4∘4^\circC (c) 1∘1^\circC (d) 2∘2^\circC

Answer

(b) 4∘4^\circC

Water has its maximum density at 4∘4^\circC, so a given mass has minimum volume there (anomalous expansion of water).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

The time period of spin of the earth about its own axis is (a) 1 year (b) 366 days (c) 29 days (d) 24 hours

Answer

(d) 24 hours

The Earth completes one rotation about its own axis in about 24 hours, which gives day and night. One year is the time for one revolution around the Sun.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

When a body is negatively charged, its____ (a) no. of electrons increases (b) no. of electrons decreases (c) mass increases (d) both a and c

Answer

(d) both a and c

A body becomes negatively charged by gaining electrons. Electrons have mass, so the number of electrons increases and the mass increases slightly.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Which of the following is false in case of an electron? (a) It is a particle (b) It has wave property (c) It emits energy while moving in orbits (d) Its motion is affected by magnetic field

Answer

(c) It emits energy while moving in orbits

According to Bohr’s model, an electron moving in a stationary (permitted) orbit does not radiate energy; it emits or absorbs energy only when jumping between orbits. The electron is a particle, shows wave properties (de Broglie), and is deflected by a magnetic field.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Which of the following forms a colloidal solution in water? (a) Glucose (b) Starch (c) Sodium Chloride (d) Urea

Answer

(b) Starch

Starch molecules are very large (macromolecules), so they form particles of colloidal size in water. Glucose, sodium chloride and urea dissolve to give true solutions.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

A compound was found to contain nitrogen and oxygen in the ratio 28 : 64. The formula of the compound is (a) NO (b) N2O3 (c) N2O4 (d) N2O5

Answer

(c) N2O4N_2O_4

Mass ratio N : O = 28 : 64, so moles N : O =2814:6416=2:4=1:2= \frac{28}{14} : \frac{64}{16} = 2 : 4 = 1 : 2. The empirical formula is NO2NO_2; among the options, N2O4N_2O_4 has N : O =28:64= 28 : 64 by mass.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Chemical formula of a particular compounds reflects (a) shape of its molecule (b) size of its molecule (c) total number of atoms in a molecule (d) number of different types of atoms in a molecule

Answer

(d) number of different types of atoms in a molecule

A chemical formula shows which elements (types of atoms) are present and how many atoms of each, e.g. C6H12O6C_6H_{12}O_6. It does not show the shape or size of the molecule.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Electronic configuration of M2+ ion is 2, 8, 14 and its atomic weight is 56 amu. The number of neutrons in its nucleus are (a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 34 (d) 42

Answer

(a) 30

M2+M^{2+} has 24 electrons, so the neutral atom has 26 electrons and Z=26Z = 26. Neutrons =A−Z=56−26=30= A - Z = 56 - 26 = 30.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Atoms combine in a small whole number ratio, this concept was proposed by (a) Dalton (b) Avogadro (c) Gay Lussac (d) Berzelius

Answer

(a) Dalton

Dalton's atomic theory states that atoms of different elements combine in simple whole-number ratios to form compounds.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Two substance P and Q combine to give a third substance R. The process is exothermic and R has properties different from those of P and Q. Is the substance R (a) an element (b) a mixture (c) a compound (d) an atom

Answer

(c) a compound

Two substances combining chemically (with energy released) to give a product with properties different from the reactants form a compound.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Which of the following is called Sylvine? (a) KCl (b) NaCl (c) CaCl2 (d) MgCl2

Answer

(a) KCl

Sylvine (sylvite) is the mineral form of potassium chloride.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Liquid metal is ...... (a) Ag (b) Mg (c) Hg (d) none

Answer

(c) Hg

Mercury is the only metal that is liquid at room temperature.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

The general formula of Paraffin is (a) CnH2n+1⋅XC_nH_{2n+1}\cdot X (b) CnH2nC_nH_{2n} (c) CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2} (d) CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2}

Answer

(d) CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2}

Paraffins are saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes), e.g. CH4CH_4, C2H6C_2H_6, with general formula CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2}.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

In IUPAC system of nomenclature, But in hydrocarbon indicates (a) prefix (b) word root (c) primary suffix (d) secondary suffix

Answer

(b) word root

In IUPAC naming, "But-" denotes a chain of 4 carbon atoms, which is the word root. The primary suffix (-ane, -ene, -yne) follows it.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Which of the following reaction is acid-base reaction? (a) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl (b) NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3 (c) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O (d) FeCl3 + NaOH → NaCl + Fe(OH)3

Answer

(c) HCl+NaOH→NaCl+H2OHCl + NaOH \to NaCl + H_2O

An acid (HCl) reacts with a base (NaOH) to give salt and water. The others are precipitation (double decomposition) reactions.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

You are given a mixture of sand and common salt. Which process should apply to get pure common salt? (a) Dissolution and Evaporation (b) Evaporation and Crystallization (c) Evaporation and Sublimation (d) Sublimation and Crystallization

Answer

(a) Dissolution and Evaporation

Salt dissolves in water but sand does not, so dissolve the mixture, filter off the sand, then evaporate the water from the filtrate to obtain the salt.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Two isotonic elements X and Y have atomic masses 54 and 56 respectively. If atomic number of X is 26, the atomic number of Y will be (a) 26 (b) 27 (c) 28 (d) 30

Answer

(c) 28

Isotones have the same number of neutrons. For X: n=54−26=28n = 54 - 26 = 28. For Y: Z=56−28=28Z = 56 - 28 = 28.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

German silver is an alloy of (a) Fe, Cr, Ni (b) Cu, Zn, Ag (c) Cu, Zn, Ni (d) Cu, Sn, Al

Answer

(c) Cu, Zn, Ni

German silver (nickel silver) is an alloy of copper, zinc and nickel; it contains no silver.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

A gymnosperm is a plant which (a) Bears flowers (b) Produces seeds in cones (c) Does not produce seeds (d) Exhibits no vascular tissues

Answer

(b) Produces seeds in cones

Gymnosperms are naked-seeded plants that bear seeds on cones (e.g. pine). They have no flowers or fruits but do have vascular tissue.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Centromere is the part of a chromosome which helps in (a) Division of the centrosomes (b) formation of spindle fibres (c) Movement of chromosomes (d) Reappearance of nuclear membrane

Answer

(c) Movement of chromosomes

Spindle fibres attach to the kinetochore at the centromere, and the centromere guides the movement of chromosomes to the poles during anaphase.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

When peacock eats snakes which eat insects thriving on green plants the peacock is (a) A primary consumer (b) A primary decomposer (c) Final decomposer (d) The apex of the food pyramid

Answer

(d) The apex of the food pyramid

The chain is plants →\to insects →\to snakes →\to peacock, so the peacock is the top (tertiary) consumer at the apex.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Germinations of seed within fruit is (a) Ovipary (b) Vivipary (c) Hypogeal (d) Epigeal

Answer

(b) Vivipary

Vivipary is germination of the seed inside the fruit while still attached to the parent plant, as in mangroves.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not found in DNA? (a) Cytosine (b) Guanine (c) Adenine (d) Uracil

Answer

(d) Uracil

Uracil is found only in RNA. DNA contains adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Lysosomes are the (a) Digestive centres (b) Respiratory centres (c) Excretory centres (d) Energy centres

Answer

(a) Digestive centres

Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes that digest worn-out organelles and engulfed material; they are called "suicidal bags".

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and animals is that in plants (a) Sister chromatids are identical, whereas in animals they differ from one another (b) A cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas in animals a cleavage furrow is initiated at that stage (c) Chromosomes become attached to the spindle at prophase, whereas in animals chromosomes do not become attached until anaphase (d) Spindle poles contain centrioles, whereas spindle poles in animals do not

Answer

(b) A cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas in animals a cleavage furrow is initiated at that stage

Plant cells divide by building a cell plate across the middle, as they have a rigid cell wall. Animal cells pinch in by a cleavage furrow.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

An antiviral substance produced in cell in response to viral infection to prevent the replication of new virus is (a) antibody (b) interferon (c) vitamin c (d) antigen

Answer

(b) interferon

Interferons are proteins released by virus-infected cells that make neighbouring cells resistant to viral replication.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Clotting of blood inside the blood vessels is prevented by (a) Fibrinogen (b) Platelets (c) Heparin (d) Prothrombin

Answer

(c) Heparin

Heparin is an anticoagulant produced by mast cells and basophils; it stops prothrombin turning into thrombin, so blood does not clot inside intact vessels. Fibrinogen, platelets and prothrombin promote clotting.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Evolution is best defined as (a) Inheritance of acquired characters (b) Descent with modifications (c) Spontaneous generation (d) Struggle for existence

Answer

(b) Descent with modifications

Darwin defined evolution as descent with modification: species change gradually over generations through natural selection and give rise to new forms.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

When an organism is benefitted without affecting the other, the phenomenon is known as (a) Parasitism (b) Commensalism (c) Symbiosis (d) Predation

Answer

(b) Commensalism

In commensalism one species benefits and the other is neither helped nor harmed, for example an orchid growing on a tree. In parasitism and predation the other organism is harmed.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

You are riding a bicycle and take a sudden turn around a sharp corner. The organs involved in the maintenance of balance is (a) Medulla oblongata (b) Semicircular canals (c) Cerebrum (d) Optic chiasma

Answer

(b) Semicircular canals

The three semicircular canals of the inner ear detect rotation and changes of head movement, so they maintain balance during a sudden turn.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Metabolic processes in the body are catalyzed by (a) Enzymes (b) Hormones (c) Proteins (d) Lipids

Answer

(a) Enzymes

Enzymes are biological catalysts, mostly proteins, that speed up metabolic reactions without being used up.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

The intestine of man is very long because (a) It provides larger area for food storage (b) The digestive juices are secreted all through its length (c) The bacteria contained in the food may gradually be killed (d) Its length enables greater scope for food absorption

Answer

(d) Its length enables greater scope for food absorption

The long small intestine, with villi and microvilli, gives a very large surface area for absorbing digested food.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 2 · 1 mark

Scientific evidence indicates that an element needed to prevent tooth decay is (a) Chlorine (b) Iodine (c) Bromine (d) Fluorine

Answer

(d) Fluorine

Fluoride strengthens tooth enamel by forming fluorapatite, which resists acid attack and so helps prevent tooth decay.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

According to the conservation of energy when a ball falls freely under gravity, its gravitational potential energy is converted into (a) electrical potential energy (b) kinetic energy (c) sound energy (d) chemical energy

Answer

(b) kinetic energy

As the ball falls, its height decreases, so its gravitational potential energy mghmgh decreases while its speed, and so its kinetic energy 12mv2\tfrac12 mv^2, increases. Ignoring air resistance, the total mechanical energy stays constant.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

When the distance of a person from the source is doubled to its initial value, the intensity of sound is (a) increased to 2 times (b) decreased to 12\frac12 times (c) increased to 4 times (d) decreased to 14\frac14 times

Answer

(d) decreased to 14\frac14 times

Intensity varies inversely as the square of the distance from the source, I∝1r2I\propto \frac{1}{r^2}. When r→2rr\to 2r, I→I4I\to \frac{I}{4}.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Refraction of light is due to the change in its (a) frequency (b) wavelength (c) colour (d) nature

Answer

(b) wavelength

When light passes from one medium to another, its speed changes while its frequency (set by the source) stays the same. Since v=fλv=f\lambda, the wavelength changes, which causes the bending.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

A man standing on a platform feels the weightless when the platform moves with (a) uniform speed in downward direction (b) acceleration equal to 'g' in downward direction (c) acceleration equal to 'g' in upward direction (d) uniform speed in upward direction

Answer

(b) acceleration equal to 'g' in downward direction

The apparent weight is N=m(g−a)N=m(g-a) for a downward acceleration aa. When a=ga=g, N=0N=0, so the man feels weightless.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

When a body floats in a liquid, (a) its weight is greater than the upthrust (b) its weight is less than the upthrust (c) its weight is equal to the upthrust (d) its density is greater than the upthrust

Answer

(c) its weight is equal to the upthrust

A floating body is in equilibrium, so the net force is zero: the weight of the body equals the upthrust (weight of liquid displaced).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

A lens always forms a diminished image then it should be a (a) Convex lens (b) Plano convex lens (c) Concavo-convex lens (d) Concave lens

Answer

(d) Concave lens

A concave (diverging) lens always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image for every position of the object. A convex lens can form enlarged images when the object is within 2f2f.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

A transformer converts (a) AC to AC (b) AC to DC (c) DC to AC (d) DC to DC

Answer

(a) AC to AC

A transformer works on mutual induction, which needs a changing flux, so it operates only on AC. It changes the voltage (and current) level of an alternating supply but not its nature.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

When the temperature of water is changed, its density will be maximum at (a) 0∘0^\circC (b) 1∘1^\circC (c) 2∘2^\circC (d) 4∘4^\circC

Answer

(d) 4∘4^\circC

Water contracts on heating from 0∘0^\circC to 4∘4^\circC and expands above 4∘4^\circC, so its volume is minimum and its density is maximum (about 1000 kg m−31000\ \text{kg m}^{-3}) at 4∘4^\circC.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

The magnetic lines of force (a) starts from South Pole of the magnet (b) starts from positive charge (c) starts from negative charge (d) starts from North Pole of the magnet

Answer

(d) starts from North Pole of the magnet

By convention, magnetic lines of force emerge from the north pole, go through the surrounding space and enter the south pole (they continue inside the magnet from S to N as closed loops).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not a renewable energy source? (a) biogas (b) wind energy (c) nuclear energy (d) tidal energy

Answer

(c) nuclear energy

Biogas, wind and tidal energy are replenished naturally. Nuclear energy depends on uranium/plutonium, a limited fuel that cannot be renewed.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

A baking powder can carries the statement, "Ingredients: corn starch, sodium bicarbonate, calcium acid phosphate, and sodium aluminium sulphate." Therefore, this baking powder is (a) a compound (b) a molecule (c) a mixture (d) a mixture of elements

Answer

(c) a mixture

The powder contains several different substances (corn starch, sodium bicarbonate, etc.) simply mixed, not chemically combined in a fixed ratio, so it is a mixture.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a physical property of sugar? (a) It is a white crystalline solid (b) It can be decomposed with heat (c) Its composition is carbon, hydrogen & oxygen (d) It turns black with concentrated H2SO4

Answer

(a) It is a white crystalline solid

A physical property can be observed without changing the identity of the substance. Appearance is physical; decomposition by heat, composition, and charring with conc. H2SO4\mathrm{H_2SO_4} are chemical properties.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

An electron-dot notation consists of the symbol representing the element and an arrangement of dots that usually shows (a) the atomic number (b) the total number of electrons (c) the atomic mass (d) the valence electrons

Answer

(d) the valence electrons

In a Lewis (electron-dot) symbol the dots represent only the outermost-shell (valence) electrons, e.g. N˙\mathrm{\dot{N}} has five dots.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

When hydrogen combines with an element to form a compound, the resulting compound is (a) a salt (b) an acid (c) a hydride (d) a reduction

Answer

(c) a hydride

A binary compound of hydrogen with another element is called a hydride, e.g. NaH\mathrm{NaH}, CaH2\mathrm{CaH_2}.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

A compound that can be decomposed to produce oxygen gas in the lab is (a) MnO2 (b) KMnO4 (c) Na2CO3 (d) KClO3

Answer

(d) KClO3\mathrm{KClO_3}

On heating with MnO2\mathrm{MnO_2} as catalyst, potassium chlorate decomposes to give oxygen:

2KClO3→Δ, MnO22KCl+3O22\mathrm{KClO_3}\xrightarrow{\Delta,\ MnO_2}2\mathrm{KCl}+3\mathrm{O_2}

MnO2\mathrm{MnO_2} is only the catalyst and Na2CO3\mathrm{Na_2CO_3} gives no oxygen. (KMnO4\mathrm{KMnO_4} also liberates some O2\mathrm{O_2}, but KClO3\mathrm{KClO_3} is the standard laboratory source.)

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

The reaction of aluminium with dilute H2SO4 can be classified as (a) synthesis (b) single displacement (c) decomposition (d) double displacement

Answer

(b) single displacement

Aluminium displaces hydrogen from the acid:

2Al+3H2SO4→Al2(SO4)3+3H2↑2\mathrm{Al}+3\mathrm{H_2SO_4}\to \mathrm{Al_2(SO_4)_3}+3\mathrm{H_2}\uparrow

One element replaces another in a compound, so it is single displacement.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

The reaction of an acid like H2SO4 and a base like CuO always (a) forms a blue precipitate (b) forms a volatile salt and water (c) forms an insoluble salt and water (d) forms a soluble salt and water

Answer

(d) forms a soluble salt and water

CuO+H2SO4→CuSO4+H2O\mathrm{CuO}+\mathrm{H_2SO_4}\to \mathrm{CuSO_4}+\mathrm{H_2O}

Acid plus base gives salt and water; copper(II) sulphate is soluble (blue solution), not a precipitate and not volatile.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

The correct formula for calcium hydrogen sulphate is (a) CaH2SO4 (b) CaHSO4 (c) Ca(HSO4)2 (d) Ca2HSO4

Answer

(c) Ca(HSO4)2\mathrm{Ca(HSO_4)_2}

Ca2+\mathrm{Ca^{2+}} has charge +2+2 and HSO4−\mathrm{HSO_4^-} has charge −1-1, so two hydrogen sulphate ions are needed to balance: Ca(HSO4)2\mathrm{Ca(HSO_4)_2}.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

All of the following involve a chemical change EXCEPT (a) the formation of HCl from H2 & Cl2 (b) the colour change when NO is exposed to air (c) the formation of CO2 from burning coal (d) the evaporation of water at room temperature

Answer

(d) the evaporation of water at room temperature

Evaporation is a change of state (physical change); H2O\mathrm{H_2O} remains H2O\mathrm{H_2O}. The others form new substances: HCl, NO2\mathrm{NO_2} (brown, from 2NO+O2→2NO22\mathrm{NO}+\mathrm{O_2}\to2\mathrm{NO_2}) and CO2\mathrm{CO_2}.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following define(s) an acid according to conventional acid theories? I) It is a good proton donor II) It is a good electron pair acceptor III) It gives excess of H3O+ in solution (a) I only (b) III only (c) I & II only (d) I, II & III

Answer

(d) I, II & III

Bronsted-Lowry defines an acid as a proton donor (I), Lewis as an electron-pair acceptor (II), and Arrhenius as a substance giving excess H3O+\mathrm{H_3O^+} (H+\mathrm{H^+}) in water (III). All three are acid theories.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

The placement of the halogen family in the periodic table explains which of the following statements? I) The most active non-metallic element in the periodic table is fluorine II) The normal physical state of the halogen goes from a solid to a gaseous state as you go down the family III) The halogen element becomes ions by filling the outermost d-orbital (a) I only (b) II only (c) I & II (d) II & III

Answer

(a) I only

I is true: fluorine is the most electronegative, most reactive non-metal. II is false: going down the group the state changes from gas (F2\mathrm{F_2}, Cl2\mathrm{Cl_2}) to liquid (Br2\mathrm{Br_2}) to solid (I2\mathrm{I_2}), i.e. gas to solid. III is false: halogens form ions by filling the outer pp subshell (np5→np6np^5\to np^6), not a dd-orbital.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Ethene is the first member of the (a) alkane series (b) alkyne series (c) alkene series (d) alcohol series

Answer

(c) alkene series

Ethene, C2H4\mathrm{C_2H_4}, is the first member of the alkenes (general formula CnH2n\mathrm{C_nH_{2n}}); a double bond needs at least two carbons.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Complete the following chemical change. Mg + CO2 → ………. + C (a) MgO2 (b) MgO (c) Mg2O (d) (MgO)2

Answer

(b) MgO

Burning magnesium continues in carbon dioxide, reducing it to carbon:

2Mg+CO2→2MgO+C2\mathrm{Mg}+\mathrm{CO_2}\to 2\mathrm{MgO}+\mathrm{C}

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following is the correct ground state configuration of chromium? (a) 3d5 4s13d^5\,4s^1 (b) 3d6 4s03d^6\,4s^0 (c) 3d4 4s23d^4\,4s^2 (d) 3d3 4s33d^3\,4s^3

Answer

(a) 3d5 4s13d^5\,4s^1

Chromium (Z=24Z=24) is an exception to the Aufbau order: a half-filled dd subshell with a half-filled 4s4s is more stable, so the configuration is [Ar] 3d5 4s1[\mathrm{Ar}]\,3d^5\,4s^1 rather than 3d4 4s23d^4\,4s^2.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not a precipitation reaction? (a) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3 (b) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 +HCl (c) HgCl2 + 2KI → 2KCl +HgI2 (d) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O

Answer

(d) NaOH+HCl→NaCl+H2O\mathrm{NaOH}+\mathrm{HCl}\to\mathrm{NaCl}+\mathrm{H_2O}

This is a neutralisation reaction giving soluble NaCl\mathrm{NaCl} and water, with no solid formed. AgCl, BaSO4\mathrm{BaSO_4} and HgI2\mathrm{HgI_2} are insoluble precipitates.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

All of the following are correct about human red blood cells EXCEPT (a) they are called leucocytes (b) they do not have nucleus (c) they are formed in the bone marrow (d) they carry oxyhemoglobin

Answer

(a) they are called leucocytes

Red blood cells are called erythrocytes; leucocytes are white blood cells. RBCs lack a nucleus, are made in the bone marrow and carry oxygen as oxyhaemoglobin, so the other statements are correct.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Silver fish is (a) a fish (b) an insect (c) a bone (d) none of the above

Answer

(b) an insect

Silverfish (Lepisma) is a wingless, six-legged insect with a silvery, fish-like body, found in damp, dark places in houses. It is not a fish.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

The famous book “Origin of Species” was written by (a) C Darwin (b) A R Wallace (c) C Linnaeus (d) J B D Lamarck

Answer

(a) C Darwin

Charles Darwin published On the Origin of Species in 1859, proposing evolution by natural selection.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

In reptiles, heart is (a) mostly 3 chambered (b) always 3 chambered (c) 2 chambered (d) 4 chambered

Answer

(a) mostly 3 chambered

Most reptiles have two atria and one partly divided ventricle. Crocodiles are the exception, with a fully four-chambered heart, so "always 3 chambered" is wrong.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

The part of an eye which acts like a diaphragm of a photographic camera is (a) cornea (b) iris (c) pupil (d) lens

Answer

(b) iris

The iris is a muscular ring that changes the size of the pupil and so controls how much light enters, as a diaphragm does in a camera.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

The process of respiration is concerned with (a) intake of oxygen (b) liberation of oxygen (c) liberation of carbon dioxide (d) liberation of energy

Answer

(d) liberation of energy

Respiration oxidises food (glucose) in cells to release energy as ATP. Gas exchange is only a part of the process.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

All of the following are true of vitamin A EXCEPT (a) it prevents night-blindness (b) it is formed from carotene (c) it is used in making visual purple (d) it is used in making hemoglobin

Answer

(d) it is used in making hemoglobin

Vitamin A prevents night-blindness, is formed from carotene, and is needed for visual purple (rhodopsin). Haemoglobin synthesis needs iron, not vitamin A.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

In man, cellulose is digested in (a) colon (b) appendix (c) stomach (d) none of the above

Answer

(d) none of the above

Humans have no enzyme (cellulase) to digest cellulose, so it passes through as dietary fibre (roughage). Cellulose-digesting microbes live in herbivores, not in the human stomach, colon or appendix.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

The scientific name of mustard is Brassica campestris and that of turnip is Brassica rapa. This indicates that both mustard and turnip are members of the (a) same genus but different species (b) same species but different genera (c) same genus but different classes (d) same class but different genera

Answer

(a) same genus but different species

In a binomial name the first word is the genus and the second the species. Both are Brassica, with species campestris and rapa.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Which one is the smallest oranism capable of autonomous growth and reproduction? (a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Mycoplasma (d) Blue-green algae

Answer

(c) Mycoplasma

Mycoplasmas are the smallest known cells that grow and reproduce on their own. They have no cell wall. Viruses cannot reproduce outside a host cell.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

At what phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes separated? (a) Anaphase I (b) Anaphase II (c) Prophase I (d) Prophase II

Answer

(a) Anaphase I

In meiosis I the homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles in anaphase I. In anaphase II it is sister chromatids that separate.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

When green tomatoes turn red then (a) new chloroplast are made (b) chromoplast are changed into chloroplasts (c) chloroplasts are disintegrated and get converted into chromoplast (d) none of these

Answer

(c) chloroplasts are disintegrated and get converted into chromoplast

During ripening chlorophyll breaks down and chloroplasts change into chromoplasts, which hold red lycopene.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Why do legume plants enrich soil? (a) They remove poisonous heavy metals (b) They encourage the breeding of earthworm (c) Their roots contain symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria (d) Their root system penetrate 2 meters below the surface

Answer

(c) Their roots contain symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria

Rhizobium bacteria in root nodules of legumes fix atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen compounds, which enrich the soil.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

In the nitrogen cycle, nitrogen compounds are broken down by decomposers to release (a) ammonia (b) vinegar (c) urea (d) nitrate

Answer

(a) ammonia

Decomposers break down proteins and other nitrogen compounds in dead matter and wastes into ammonia (ammonification). Nitrifying bacteria then convert ammonia to nitrite and nitrate.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following is illustrated by an organism that exists in a helpful relationship with another organism? (a) photosynthesis (b) autotropism (c) saprophytism (d) mutualism

Answer

(d) mutualism

Mutualism is a relationship in which both organisms benefit, for example Rhizobium in legume roots, or lichen (alga and fungus).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

A vacant lot may have organisms such as grass, dandelions, ants, soil bacteria, earthworms, trees, and mice living in it. Together all of these organisms comprise a (a) population (b) biome (c) community (d) biosphere

Answer

(c) community

All the interacting populations of different species living in one area form a community. A population is a single species, and a biome or the biosphere is far larger.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 3 · 1 mark

Most cells lacking a cell wall also lack (a) mitochondria (b) a vacuole (c) chloroplasts (d) a cell membrane

Answer

(c) chloroplasts

Cells without a cell wall are typically animal cells, and these also lack chloroplasts. They do have mitochondria and a cell membrane.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Bats and birds are good fliers but the bat differs from bird in having (a) Diaphragm (b) Four-chambered heart (c) Wings (d) Warm bloodedness

Answer

(a) Diaphragm

Both bats and birds fly with wings, are warm-blooded and have a four-chambered heart. Bats are mammals, so only they have a muscular diaphragm separating thorax and abdomen.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

By the statement ‘survival of the fittest’, Darwin meant that (a) The strongest of all species survives (b) The most intelligent of the species survives (c) The cleverest of the species survives (d) The most adaptable of the species to changes survives

Answer

(d) The most adaptable of the species to changes survives

In Darwin's theory, "fittest" means best adapted to the environment, not the strongest or cleverest.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Most of the endangered species are the victims of (a) Habitat destruction (b) Over-hunting (c) Acid rain (d) Competition with introduced species

Answer

(a) Habitat destruction

Loss and fragmentation of habitat (deforestation, drainage, urbanisation) is the leading cause of species becoming endangered.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

During heart attack, a doctor may inject (a) Thyroid (b) Prolactin (c) Insulin (d) Adrenaline

Answer

(d) Adrenaline

Adrenaline (epinephrine) stimulates the heart, increasing the heart rate and force of contraction, and is used in cardiac arrest emergencies.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following EXCEPT (a) Secretion of digestive juice (b) Sweating (c) Thought (d) Peristalsis

Answer

(c) Thought

The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary activities such as glandular secretion, sweating and peristalsis. Thought is a function of the cerebrum under voluntary control.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Which one of the following human cells do not contain mitochondria? (a) Nerve cell (b) Red blood cell (c) Liver cell (d) White blood cell

Answer

(b) Red blood cell

Mature mammalian red blood cells lose their nucleus and organelles, including mitochondria, to make room for haemoglobin. They obtain energy by anaerobic glycolysis.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? (a) Sycon – Canal system (b) Star fish – Radial symmetry (c) Round worm – Pseudosegmentation (d) Insect – Metameric segmentation

Answer

(c) Round worm – Pseudosegmentation

Roundworms (nematodes) are unsegmented, with a pseudocoelom. Pseudosegmentation is found in tapeworms. The other pairs are correct: Sycon has a canal system, starfish show radial symmetry, and insects have metameric segmentation.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

A balanced diet does NOT include (a) Carbohydrates and fats (b) Nucleic acids and enzymes (c) Proteins and vitamins (d) Minerals and salts

Answer

(b) Nucleic acids and enzymes

A balanced diet contains carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals, salts, water and fibre. Nucleic acids and enzymes are made by the body and are not dietary components.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is NOT the period of Mesozoic era? (a) Triassic (b) Permian (c) Jurassic (d) Cretaceous

Answer

(b) Permian

The Mesozoic era comprises the Triassic, Jurassic and Cretaceous periods. The Permian is the last period of the Palaeozoic era.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

If a new plant were to be discovered with parallel-veined leaves, and brightly colored flowers each with 6 stamens, the plant would most precisely be classified as (a) Gymnosperm (b) Angiosperm (c) Monocotyledon (d) Dicotyledon

Answer

(c) Monocotyledon

Parallel venation and floral parts in threes (6 stamens) are monocot features. Dicots have reticulate venation and floral parts in fours or fives.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Fruits are not formed in gymnosperms because (a) they have no ovary (b) they are not pollinated (c) they are seedless plants (d) process of fertilization doesn't take place

Answer

(a) they have no ovary

Gymnosperms have naked ovules that are not enclosed in an ovary. A fruit develops from a ripened ovary, so no fruit forms.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

A nitrogenous base that occurs in DNA in equal quantities with guanine is (a) adenine (b) cytosine (c) uracil (d) thymine

Answer

(b) cytosine

By Chargaff's rule, DNA base pairing makes guanine pair with cytosine, so G=CG=C (and A=TA=T).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Organisms that convert nitrogen containing organic molecules into nitrates are (a) decomposers (e.g., bacteria) (b) producers (e.g., grasses) (c) primary consumers (e.g., mice) (d) tertiary consumers (e.g., hawk)

Answer

(a) decomposers (e.g., bacteria)

Decomposing bacteria break down nitrogen-containing organic matter into ammonia, and nitrifying bacteria then convert it to nitrates in the nitrogen cycle.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following statement is NOT true for viruses? (a) have protoplasm (b) obligate parasites (c) have nucleic acid (d) can respond to stimuli

Answer

(a) have protoplasm

Viruses are acellular: they have a nucleic acid core inside a protein coat (capsid) but no cytoplasm or protoplasm. They are obligate parasites and show life-like properties only inside a host cell.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

The branch of biology deals with the study of mushrooms is (a) Phycology (b) Mycology (c) Ornithology (d) Myology

Answer

(b) Mycology

Mycology (Greek mykes, fungus) is the study of fungi including mushrooms. Phycology is algae, ornithology is birds and myology is muscles.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Daughter chromosomes start to move towards the opposite poles of a dividing cell during (a) prophase (b) metaphase (c) anaphase (d) telophase

Answer

(c) anaphase

At anaphase the centromeres split and the sister chromatids (now daughter chromosomes) are pulled to opposite poles by the spindle fibres.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Organisms that comprise the greatest mass of living substance (biomass) in terrestrial food chain are (a) decomposers (e.g., bacteria) (b) producers (e.g., grasses) (c) primary consumers (e.g., mice) (d) tertiary consumers (e.g., hawk)

Answer

(b) producers (e.g., grasses)

In a food chain, biomass decreases at each higher trophic level because only about 10% of energy is passed on. Producers are at the base and so have the greatest biomass.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

The constant related to the gravitational force has unit in SI system of units (a) m sec−2\mathrm{m\,sec^{-2}} (b) kg m sec−1\mathrm{kg\,m\,sec^{-1}} (c) N m2 kg−2\mathrm{N\,m^2\,kg^{-2}} (d) J m sec−1\mathrm{J\,m\,sec^{-1}}

Answer

(c) N m2 kg−2\mathrm{N\,m^2\,kg^{-2}}

From F=Gm1m2r2F = \dfrac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}, we get G=Fr2m1m2G = \dfrac{Fr^2}{m_1m_2}, so its unit is N m2 kg−2\mathrm{N\,m^2\,kg^{-2}}.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

The physical quantity related to the height of liquid is (a) pressure (b) mass (c) weight (d) density

Answer

(a) pressure

The pressure due to a liquid column is P=hρgP = h\rho g, so it depends directly on the height hh of the liquid.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

An atom has 11 protons and 12 neutrons. Then the number of electrons in this atom is (a) 12 (b) 11 (c) 23 (d) 1

Answer

(b) 11

A neutral atom has equal numbers of protons and electrons. Neutrons do not affect the electron count, so the atom has 11 electrons (sodium).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

A person suffering from myopia has to use (a) biconvex lens (b) planoconvex lens (c) biconcave lens (d) concavoconvex lens

Answer

(c) biconcave lens

A myopic (short-sighted) eye focuses distant objects in front of the retina. A diverging lens, which is the biconcave lens, moves the image back onto the retina.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. The image formed by the lens will be (a) at 20 cm from the lens, inverted and real (b) at 20 cm from the lens, inverted and virtual (c) at 20 cm from the lens, erect and real (d) at 20 cm from the lens, erect and virtual

Answer

(a) at 20 cm from the lens, inverted and real

Taking the real-is-positive convention, u=20u = 20 cm and f=10f = 10 cm:

1v=1f−1u=110−120=120\frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{f} - \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{10} - \frac{1}{20} = \frac{1}{20}

so v=20v = 20 cm. The object is at 2f2f, so the image is real, inverted and the same size as the object.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

To find the direction of induced current in an electromagnetic induction, (a) Maxwell’s cork screw rule is used (b) Right hand thumb rule is used (c) Fleming’s right hand rule is used (d) Fleming’s left hand rule is used

Answer

(c) Fleming's right hand rule is used

The right hand rule (thumb for motion, forefinger for field, middle finger for induced current) gives the direction of the induced current in a conductor moving in a magnetic field. The left hand rule is for the force on a current-carrying conductor (motor effect).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

In uniform velocity, (a) both magnitude and direction of velocity remain constant (b) only magnitude remains constant (c) only direction remains constant (d) neither magnitude nor direction remains constant

Answer

(a) both magnitude and direction of velocity remain constant

Velocity is a vector, so uniform velocity means constant speed and constant direction, that is, straight-line motion at a steady speed.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Which one of the followings is a vector quantity? (a) work (b) power (c) speed (d) moment of force

Answer

(d) moment of force

Moment of force (torque) is τ⃗=r⃗×F⃗\vec{\tau} = \vec{r} \times \vec{F}, which has a direction along the axis of rotation, so it is a vector. Work, power and speed are scalars.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

__________ is used to detect the flow of electric current in an electric circuit. (a) Voltmeter (b) Ammeter (c) Galvanometer (d) Ohmmeter

Answer

(c) Galvanometer

A galvanometer is a sensitive instrument that detects the presence (and direction) of a small current in a circuit. An ammeter measures the magnitude of current and is made from a galvanometer with a low-resistance shunt.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographical meridian at a place is known as (a) angle of declination (b) angle of dip (c) angle of inclination (d) angle of friction

Answer

(a) angle of declination

The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographical meridian at a place is the angle of declination. The angle of dip (inclination) is between the Earth's total field and the horizontal.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

When a ray of light enters from one medium to another medium, it increases its angle with the normal to the surface at the point of entrance, then the second medium must be …. than first medium . (a) rarer (b) denser (c) not other (d) none of above

Answer

(a) rarer

An increased angle with the normal means the ray bends away from the normal. By Snell's law, n1sin⁡i=n2sin⁡rn_1\sin i = n_2\sin r with r>ir > i gives n2<n1n_2 < n_1, so the second medium is optically rarer.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Which solution will change red litmus to blue? (a) HCl (aq.) (b) NaCl (aq.) (c) CH3OH (aq.) (d) NaOH (aq.)

Answer

(d) NaOH (aq.)

Red litmus turns blue in a basic solution. NaOH is a strong base, HCl is an acid, and NaCl and methanol solutions are neutral.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Given the equation: H+ + OH- = H2O, which type of the reaction does the equation represent? (a) Esterification (b) Decomposition (c) Hydrolysis (d) Neutralization

Answer

(d) Neutralization

H++OH−→H2O\mathrm{H^+ + OH^- \rightarrow H_2O} is the net ionic equation of an acid reacting with a base to give water, which is a neutralization reaction.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following element is essential in all organic compounds? (a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Carbon

Answer

(d) Carbon

Organic compounds are defined as compounds of carbon. Hydrogen is present in most of them but not all (for example CCl4\mathrm{CCl_4}), and nitrogen and oxygen are not always present.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Naturally occurring polymers are (a) starch and nylon (b) starch and cellulose (c) protein and nylon (d) protein and plastic

Answer

(b) starch and cellulose

Both starch and cellulose are polymers of glucose found in nature. Nylon and plastics are synthetic polymers.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following compound is represented by the general formula CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2} ? (a) Butane (b) Butene (c) Butyne (d) Benzene

Answer

(a) Butane

Butane is an alkane, C4H10\mathrm{C_4H_{10}}, which fits CnH2n+2\mathrm{C_nH_{2n+2}} with n=4n = 4. Butene is CnH2n\mathrm{C_nH_{2n}}, butyne is CnH2n−2\mathrm{C_nH_{2n-2}}, and benzene is C6H6\mathrm{C_6H_6}.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Compare to the charge and mass of a proton, an electron has (a) the same charge and a smaller mass (b) the same charge and the same mass (c) an opposite charge and a smaller mass (d) an opposite charge and the same mass

Answer

(c) an opposite charge and a smaller mass

An electron has charge −1.6×10−19-1.6\times10^{-19} C, opposite to the proton's +1.6×10−19+1.6\times10^{-19} C. Its mass is about 11836\dfrac{1}{1836} that of a proton.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following atom consists of exactly fifteen protons? (a) P-32 (b) S-32 (c) O-15 (d) N-15

Answer

(a) P-32

The atomic number, which is the number of protons, of phosphorus is 15. In P-32 the 32 is the mass number, so it has 15 protons and 17 neutrons. S has 16 protons, O has 8 and N has 7.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following three groups represent, the most elements classified as metalloids in the periodic table? (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2, 13 & 14 (c) 14, 15 & 16 (d) 16, 17 & 18

Answer

(c) 14, 15 & 16

The metalloids are B (group 13), Si and Ge (14), As and Sb (15) and Te and Po (16). Groups 14, 15 and 16 together contain the most of them, 5 or 6, against 1 for group 13.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

When a metallic atom combines with a non-metallic atom, the non-metallic atom will …………. (a) lose electrons and its size will decrease (b) lose electrons and its size will increase (c) gain electrons and its size will decrease (d) gain electrons and its size will increase

Answer

(d) gain electrons and its size will increase

A non-metal atom gains electrons from the metal to form a negative ion (anion). The extra electrons increase electron-electron repulsion while the nuclear charge stays the same, so the ion is larger than the parent atom.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a binary compound? (a) Hydrogen sulphide (b) Hydrogen sulphite (c) Ammonium sulphide (d) Ammonium sulphate

Answer

(a) Hydrogen sulphide

A binary compound contains exactly two elements. Hydrogen sulphide, H2S\mathrm{H_2S}, has only H and S. The others contain three or more elements: H2SO3\mathrm{H_2SO_3}-type sulphite, (NH4)2S(\mathrm{NH_4})_2\mathrm{S} (N, H, S) and (NH4)2SO4(\mathrm{NH_4})_2\mathrm{SO_4}.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Some students are asked to describe differences between gases and liquids. Three of their suggestions are: I) Gas molecules are further apart II) Gas molecules are smaller III) Liquid molecules vibrate around fixed positions Which suggestions are correct? (a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) All of the above

Answer

(a) I only

In a gas the molecules are far apart, so I is correct. Gas and liquid molecules are the same size (the same substance has the same molecules), so II is wrong. Molecules vibrating about fixed positions describes a solid, not a liquid, so III is wrong.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Which method can be used to obtain crystals of sodium chloride from aqueous sodium chloride solution? (a) Neutralization (b) Crystallization (c) Evaporation (d) Electrolysis

Answer

(b) Crystallization

The solution is heated to evaporate some water until it is saturated, then cooled so that well-formed crystals of sodium chloride separate out. Plain evaporation to dryness gives only a powder, and electrolysis decomposes the salt.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

An element S has the proton number 18. The next element in the periodic table is an element T. Which statement is correct? (a) Element T has one more electron in its outermost shell than element S. (b) Element T has one more electron shell than element S. (c) Element T is in the same group of the periodic table as element S. (d) Element T is in the same period of the periodic table as element S.

Answer

(b) Element T has one more electron shell than element S.

Proton number 18 is argon, 2,8,82,8,8, a noble gas that completes period 3. The next element, potassium (19), has configuration 2,8,8,12,8,8,1: it starts a new shell (period 4) and is in group 1, so it has one more shell than S.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

Substance 'E' when reacts separately with zinc, sodium hydroxide and marble pieces, the respective products formed are hydrogen, sodium chloride and carbon dioxide. Identify the substance 'E'. (a) An alkali (b) An acid (c) An element (d) A salt

Answer

(b) An acid

An acid such as dilute HCl\mathrm{HCl} reacts with zinc to give hydrogen, with sodium hydroxide to give sodium chloride (neutralisation), and with marble (CaCO3\mathrm{CaCO_3}) to give carbon dioxide:

Zn+2HCl→ZnCl2+H2\mathrm{Zn + 2HCl \rightarrow ZnCl_2 + H_2} CaCO3+2HCl→CaCl2+H2O+CO2\mathrm{CaCO_3 + 2HCl \rightarrow CaCl_2 + H_2O + CO_2}

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  • 2018 Practice Test 4 · 1 mark

A yellow colored energy drink consists of a dissolved mixture of red and orange coloring agents. Suggest a suitable mean to separate these coloring agents. (a) Distillation (b) Evaporation (c) Filtration (d) Chromatography

Answer

(d) Chromatography

Dissolved coloured substances that differ in how strongly they are adsorbed and how soluble they are in a solvent are separated by chromatography. Distillation, evaporation and filtration cannot separate two dyes dissolved together.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

In the past, fungi were often grouped with plants because of alleged similarities between the two groups. Which of the following are characteristics of the fungi that are NOT seen in plants? (a) Food reserve consists of glycogen (b) Cell wall contains chitin (c) Organism is eukaryotic (d) Absorptive heterotrophy is chief mode of nutrition

Answer

(b) Cell wall contains chitin

Fungal cell walls are made of chitin, whereas plant cell walls are made of cellulose. Eukaryotic organisation is shared with plants, and fungi are not photosynthetic, being absorptive heterotrophs. Chitin is the characteristic feature that distinguishes fungi from plants.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Tube like cells that carry food from leaves to other parts of a plant are (a) Xylem cells (b) Chloroplasts (c) Phloem cells (d) Bast fibres

Answer

(c) Phloem cells

Phloem (sieve tubes with companion cells) translocates food prepared in the leaves to other parts of the plant, while xylem carries water and minerals upward.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Which of this organelle is visible only to an electron microscope? (a) Nucleus (b) Mitochondria (c) Ribosome (d) Chloroplast

Answer

(c) Ribosome

Ribosomes are about 20-30 nm in size, far below the resolving power of a light microscope, so they are seen only with an electron microscope. The nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts can be seen with a light microscope.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The process that best separates plants from animals is (a) Respiration (b) Reproduction (c) Photosynthesis (d) Osmosis

Answer

(c) Photosynthesis

Plants contain chlorophyll and make their own food by photosynthesis, while animals are heterotrophs. Respiration, reproduction and osmosis occur in both groups.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

One of the salient features of hydrophytes is a very weak root system. Which of the given plants has no roots? (a) Water fern (b) Wolffia (c) Hydrilla (d) Lotus

Answer

(b) Wolffia

Wolffia (watermeal) is a free-floating, rootless flowering plant and the smallest flowering plant. Water fern, Hydrilla and lotus have roots, though weak in some.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Which of the following character is not a true attribute of a fern? (a) Circinate vernation (b) Ramenta (c) Reproduction by seed (d) Rhizome

Answer

(c) Reproduction by seed

Ferns are pteridophytes; they reproduce by spores and do not produce seeds. Circinate vernation (coiled young leaves), ramenta (scales) and a rhizome are all fern characters.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Natural vegetative propagation by root is a common method of asexual reproduction in (a) Sugarcane (b) Rose (c) Potato (d) Dahlia

Answer

(d) Dahlia

Dahlia multiplies naturally by tuberous (modified) roots, which bear buds. Sugarcane propagates by stem nodes, rose by stem cuttings and potato by stem tubers.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Thermotropism is a response shown by plants to heat stimulus. Which of the following plants is characterized by this response? (a) Rose (b) Mimosa pudica (c) Tulip (d) Chlamydomonas

Answer

(c) Tulip

Tulip flowers open and close in response to changes in temperature (a thermonastic/thermotropic response to heat). Mimosa responds to touch, and Chlamydomonas to light.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The shape of a DNA molecule is (a) Straight (b) Circular (c) Flat (d) Spiral

Answer

(d) Spiral

DNA is a double helix: two polynucleotide strands twisted around each other in a right-handed spiral (Watson and Crick model).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not a good source of carbon? (a) Coal (b) Petroleum fuel (c) Ammonia (d) Dead body of organisms

Answer

(c) Ammonia

Ammonia (NH3NH_3) contains nitrogen and hydrogen but no carbon. Coal, petroleum fuel and the dead bodies of organisms are all carbon-rich.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Blood cells from the blood are eliminated and the liquid left is (a) Serum (b) Plasma (c) Almost water (d) Only RBC and Hemoglobin

Answer

(b) Plasma

When the blood cells (RBC, WBC, platelets) are removed, the pale yellow liquid left is plasma. Serum is plasma from which clotting proteins such as fibrinogen have also been removed.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The larva silkworm is ...... (a) Butterfly (b) Scorpian (c) Moth (d) Grass hoppers

Answer

(c) Moth

The silkworm is the caterpillar (larva) of the silk moth, Bombyx mori. It spins a cocoon of silk before becoming a pupa and then an adult moth.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Autotrophic component of ecosystem is (a) Sunlight (b) Green plants (c) Herbivores (d) Fungi

Answer

(b) Green plants

Autotrophs make their own food by photosynthesis, so green plants are the autotrophic (producer) component. Sunlight is an abiotic factor, and herbivores and fungi are heterotrophs.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a matching set in animal taxonomy? (a) Silver fish, Cuttle fish, Devil fish (b) Flatworm, Round worm, Earthworm (c) Butterfly, Mosquito, Cockroach (d) Shark, Whale, Dolphin

Answer

(c) Butterfly, Mosquito, Cockroach

All three are insects (class Insecta, phylum Arthropoda). In the other sets, silver fish is an insect while cuttle fish is a mollusc, the worms belong to different phyla, and shark is a fish while whale and dolphin are mammals.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Rods and cones are located in (a) Cochlea of ear (b) Choroid of eye (c) Retina of eye (d) Taste buds of tongue

Answer

(c) Retina of eye

Rods (dim light, black and white vision) and cones (bright light, colour vision) are the photoreceptor cells of the retina.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Ascorbic acid is a/an (a) Lipid (b) Protein (c) Vitamin (d) Carbohydrate

Answer

(c) Vitamin

Ascorbic acid is vitamin C. Its deficiency causes scurvy.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

All of the following organic compounds are carbohydrates EXCEPT (a) Glycogen (b) Maltose (c) Glycerol (d) Starch

Answer

(c) Glycerol

Glycogen, maltose and starch are carbohydrates. Glycerol is a trihydric alcohol, C3H5(OH)3C_3H_5(OH)_3, which is a component of fats and not a carbohydrate.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Which pair of animal groups, has oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart separately? (a) Amphibians & Reptiles (b) Birds & Mammals (c) Reptiles & Birds (d) Reptiles & Mammals

Answer

(b) Birds & Mammals

Birds and mammals have a four-chambered heart with complete separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. Amphibians and most reptiles have a mixed or partly mixed ventricle.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The king of chemical is : (a) HCl (b) H2SO4 (c) HNO3 (d) H2CO3

Answer

(b) H2SO4H_2SO_4

Sulphuric acid is called the "king of chemicals" because of its very large use in industry (fertilizers, detergents, batteries, petroleum refining and so on).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

In alkaline medium, the phenolphthalein indicator turns into (a) Colorless (b) Yellow (c) Red (d) Pink

Answer

(d) Pink

Phenolphthalein is colourless in acidic and neutral media and turns pink in alkaline medium.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Which one of the following salts gives alkaline solution when dissolved in water? (a) Na2CO3 (b) CuSO4 (c) NH4Cl (d) NaCl

Answer

(a) Na2CO3Na_2CO_3

Sodium carbonate is a salt of a strong base (NaOH) and a weak acid (H2CO3H_2CO_3). Its anion hydrolyses:

CO32−+H2O⇌HCO3−+OH−CO_3^{2-} + H_2O \rightleftharpoons HCO_3^- + OH^-

This gives an alkaline solution. CuSO4CuSO_4 and NH4ClNH_4Cl are acidic and NaCl is neutral.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The salts of which one of the following metals are colored? (a) Na (b) Ca (c) Al (d) Cr

Answer

(d) Cr

Chromium is a transition metal with partly filled d-orbitals, so its salts are coloured (for example green Cr3+Cr^{3+}, orange Cr2O72−Cr_2O_7^{2-}). Salts of Na, Ca and Al are colourless.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The aquaregia is a mixture of conc. HCl and conc. HNO3 in the ratio of (a) 2:6 (b) 6:2 (c) 3:2 (d) 2:3

Answer

(b) 6:2

Aqua regia is a mixture of conc. HCl and conc. HNO3HNO_3 in the ratio 3:1 by volume, which equals 6:2. It dissolves noble metals such as gold and platinum.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The general formula of alkyne is (a) CnH2nC_nH_{2n} (b) CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2} (c) CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2} (d) CnH2n+1C_nH_{2n+1}OH

Answer

(c) CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2}

Alkanes are CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2}, alkenes are CnH2nC_nH_{2n} and alkynes are CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2}. For example, ethyne is C2H2C_2H_2.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The functional group of ether is (a) – OH (b) – CHO (c) – CO – (d) – O –

Answer

(d) −O−-O-

Ethers have the general formula R−O−R′R{-}O{-}R'. The functional group is the oxygen linkage between two alkyl groups.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The oxide used to impart the green color into glass is (a) CoO (b) NiO (c) Cr2O3 (d) Fe2O3

Answer

(c) Cr2O3Cr_2O_3

Chromium(III) oxide gives green glass. CoO gives blue, NiO gives brown or grey, and Fe2O3Fe_2O_3 gives brown or yellowish colour.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The chemical fertilizer “UREA” is the major source of (a) Phosphorus (b) Potassium (c) Nitrogen (d) Sodium

Answer

(c) Nitrogen

Urea, CO(NH2)2CO(NH_2)_2, contains about 46% nitrogen. This is the highest nitrogen content among common solid fertilizers.

2860×100≈46.7%\frac{28}{60}\times 100 \approx 46.7\%

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

BHC is a/an (a) Germicide (b) Insecticide (c) Pesticide (d) Fungicide

Answer

(b) Insecticide

BHC (benzene hexachloride, C6H6Cl6C_6H_6Cl_6, also called gammexane or lindane) is a chlorinated insecticide.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The electronic configuration of an element is 1s22s22p63s23p64s13d51s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 4s^1 3d^5. The element belongs to which group of the periodic table? (a) s-block (b) p-block (c) d-block (d) f-block

Answer

(c) d-block

The configuration [Ar] 4s13d5[Ar]\,4s^1 3d^5 has 24 electrons, which is chromium (Z = 24). The last electron enters the 3d subshell, so it is a d-block element.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Which two elements will display the most similar chemical properties? (a) Iron and Phosphorus (b) Chlorine and Oxygen (c) Carbon and Boron (d) Potassium and Sodium

Answer

(d) Potassium and Sodium

Na and K are both alkali metals in Group 1. Elements in the same group have the same number of valence electrons (one), so they have the most similar chemical properties.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The dry ice is (a) Solid water (b) Solid carbondioxide (c) Solid camphor (d) Solid ammonia

Answer

(b) Solid carbondioxide

Dry ice is carbon dioxide in its solid form. It sublimes directly to gas at −78∘C-78^\circ\mathrm{C} without leaving a liquid, hence "dry".

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Which one of the followings is decomposition reaction? (a) C +O2→ CO2 (b) 2C+ H2→C2H2 (c) C+2S → CS2 (d) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2

Answer

(d) 2KClO3→2KCl+3O22KClO_3 \rightarrow 2KCl + 3O_2

In a decomposition reaction one compound breaks into two or more simpler substances. Here potassium chlorate gives potassium chloride and oxygen; the others are combination reactions.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The ratio of the gravitational force of attraction between masses of two bodies when their masses are doubled and distance between them is halved, before and after the change will be (a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 1:16 (d) 4:1

Answer

(c) 1:16

F=Gm1m2d2F = \dfrac{G m_1 m_2}{d^2}. Doubling both masses multiplies the numerator by 44, and halving the distance multiplies 1/d21/d^2 by 44, so the new force is 16F16F.

Fbefore:Fafter=1:16F_{\text{before}} : F_{\text{after}} = 1 : 16

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The unit of pressure is (a) Pa\mathrm{Pa} (b) Pa m−2\mathrm{Pa\,m^{-2}} (c) Pa m−1\mathrm{Pa\,m^{-1}} (d) Pa m\mathrm{Pa\,m}

Answer

(a) Pa\mathrm{Pa}

Pressure == force/area, with SI unit N m−2\mathrm{N\,m^{-2}}, which is called the pascal (Pa).

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Which one of the followings is the source of renewable energy? (a) Solar energy (b) Coal (c) Oil (d) Natural gas

Answer

(a) Solar energy

Solar energy is replenished continuously by nature, while coal, oil and natural gas are fossil fuels that take millions of years to form and are therefore non-renewable.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

The specific heat capacity of a substance depends on (a) Quantity of matter (b) Temperature of matter (c) Nature of matter (d) Shape of matter

Answer

(c) Nature of matter

Specific heat capacity is the heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg1\,\mathrm{kg} of a substance by 1 K1\,\mathrm{K}. It is a characteristic property of the material and does not depend on its quantity, temperature or shape.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Which type of lens is used in camera? (a) Plano-concave (b) Convex (c) Biconcave (d) Convexo-concave

Answer

(b) Convex

A camera uses a convex (converging) lens to form a real, inverted, diminished image of the object on the film or sensor.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

When a man suffers from long sightedness, his eyelens makes the image of a distant object (a) Before his retina (b) Beyond his retina (c) At his retina (d) Nowhere

Answer

(b) Beyond his retina

In long sightedness (hypermetropia) the eyeball is too short or the lens too weak, so rays from a distant object would converge behind the retina. A convex lens corrects it.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

What will be the total cost of electricity to be paid in a month when three bulbs each of 40 Watt are used for 4 hours in a day at the rate of Rs 7 per unit? (a) Rs. 14.4 (b) Rs. 100.8 (c) Rs.0.48 (d) Rs. 144

Answer

(b) Rs. 100.8

Power =3×40=120 W=0.12 kW=3\times 40 = 120\,\mathrm{W}=0.12\,\mathrm{kW}.

Energy per day =0.12×4=0.48=0.12\times 4 = 0.48 units, so for 30 days =0.48×30=14.4=0.48\times 30 = 14.4 units.

Cost=14.4×7=Rs 100.8\text{Cost} = 14.4\times 7 = \text{Rs } 100.8

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

According to Fleming’s right hand rule, the fore finger shows the direction of (a) Motion (b) Magnetic field (c) Electric current (d) None of above

Answer

(b) Magnetic field

In Fleming's right hand rule (generators), the forefinger points along the magnetic field, the thumb along the motion of the conductor, and the middle finger along the induced current.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

If a body is moving with constant linear positive acceleration, (a) It moves with constant velocity (b) It remains at rest (c) It decreases its velocity at constant rate (d) It increases its velocity at constant rate

Answer

(d) It increases its velocity at constant rate

Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity, so constant positive acceleration means velocity rises by equal amounts in equal times.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Transformation of energy is based on the principle of conservation of (a) Linear momentum (b) Angular momentum (c) Energy (d) Charge

Answer

(c) Energy

Energy can be changed from one form to another but never created or destroyed, so the total energy stays constant.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

A ray of light enters normally from air medium to water medium. Its speed (a) Increases (b) Remains the same (c) Decreases (d) Either increases or decreases

Answer

(c) Decreases

Water is optically denser than air, so light travels slower in it: v=c/nv = c/n with n≈1.33n\approx 1.33 for water, giving v≈2.25×108 m/sv \approx 2.25\times10^{8}\,\mathrm{m/s}.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

If the frequency of sound wave is 100Hz and wavelength 3.3m, what will be its speed? (a) 330m/sec (b) 660m/sec (c) 165m/sec (d) 3300m/sec

Answer

(a) 330m/sec

v=fλ=100×3.3=330 m/sv = f\lambda = 100 \times 3.3 = 330\ \mathrm{m/s}

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Which is not the unit of potential difference? (a) Volt (b) Joule/coulomb (c) Nm/coulomb (d) Kgm/coulomb

Answer

(d) Kgm/coulomb

Potential difference is work per unit charge: 1 V=1 J/C=1 N m/C1\,\mathrm{V}=1\,\mathrm{J/C}=1\,\mathrm{N\,m/C}. kg m/C\mathrm{kg\,m/C} has the dimensions of N s2/C\mathrm{N\,s^2/C}, not of work per charge.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

At neutral point, the magnitude of resultant magnetic field will be (a) Maximum (b) Equal to the algebric sum of the magnitude of individual magnetic fields (c) Zero (d) Neglected

Answer

(c) Zero

A neutral point is where the magnetic fields of a magnet and the Earth (or of two magnets) are equal and opposite, so the resultant field is zero.

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  • 2018 Practice Test 5 · 1 mark

Alloy is a mixture of (a) Conductors (b) Insulators (c) Semiconductors (d) Conductor and insulator

Answer

(a) Conductors

An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals (or a metal with a small amount of non-metal), for example brass from copper and zinc. The components are conducting.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Ratio of effort distance to the load distance is known as ….. (a) Mechanical advantage (b) Velocity ratio (c) Efficiency (d) load

Answer

(b) Velocity ratio

For a machine, velocity ratio is effort distanceload distance\dfrac{\text{effort distance}}{\text{load distance}}. Mechanical advantage is the ratio of load to effort.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

If velocity is doubled then Kinetic energy becomes ……. (a) 2 times (b) equal (c) 4 times (d) 8 times

Answer

(c) 4 times

Kinetic energy is K=12mv2K=\tfrac12 mv^2, so it is proportional to v2v^2. Doubling vv gives K2=12m(2v)2=4KK_2=\tfrac12 m(2v)^2=4K.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

The fastest mode of heat transfer is ………. (a) Conduction (b) Convection (c) Radiation (d) All of the above

Answer

(c) Radiation

Radiation travels as electromagnetic waves at the speed of light and needs no medium, so it is much faster than conduction or convection.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

The critical angle for water is ………. (a) 24∘24^\circ (b) 49∘49^\circ (c) 42∘42^\circ (d) 35∘35^\circ

Answer

(b) 49∘49^\circ

For water, μ≈43\mu\approx\frac43, so sin⁡C=1μ=34=0.75⇒C≈48.6∘≈49∘.\sin C=\frac1\mu=\frac34=0.75\Rightarrow C\approx 48.6^\circ\approx 49^\circ.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

A virtual and magnified image is formed by ……….. (a) Convex mirror (b) Convex lens (c) Concave lens (d) None of the above

Answer

(b) Convex lens

When an object is placed between the optical centre and the focus of a convex lens, the image formed is virtual, erect and magnified (the magnifying glass). A convex mirror and a concave lens always give diminished images.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

The threshold of hearing for human being is …… (a) 1012 Wm−210^{12}\,\mathrm{Wm^{-2}} (b) 1022 Wm−210^{22}\,\mathrm{Wm^{-2}} (c) 102 Wm−210^{2}\,\mathrm{Wm^{-2}} (d) 10−12 Wm−210^{-12}\,\mathrm{Wm^{-2}}

Answer

(d) 10−12 Wm−210^{-12}\,\mathrm{Wm^{-2}}

The faintest sound intensity the human ear can detect (0 dB) is I0=10−12 W m−2I_0=10^{-12}\ \mathrm{W\,m^{-2}}.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

A person cannot see near objects clearly and distinctly. So, the defect of vision is ….. (a) Myopia (b) Hypermetropia (c) Presbyopia (d) Astigmatism

Answer

(b) Hypermetropia

A person who cannot see near objects clearly is long-sighted (hypermetropia). The image of a near object forms behind the retina, and it is corrected with a convex lens.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

The element having electronic configuration [Ar] 3d104s2[\mathrm{Ar}]\,3d^{10}4s^2 is …… (a) Fe (b) Cu (c) Zn (d) Mn

Answer

(c) Zn

Zn has atomic number 30: [Ar] 3d104s2[\mathrm{Ar}]\,3d^{10}4s^2. Fe is 3d64s23d^64s^2, Cu is 3d104s13d^{10}4s^1 and Mn is 3d54s23d^54s^2.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Aqueous solution of CuSO4 is ……. (a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Neutral (d) None

Answer

(a) Acidic

CuSO4\mathrm{CuSO_4} is a salt of a weak base, Cu(OH)2\mathrm{Cu(OH)_2}, and a strong acid, H2SO4\mathrm{H_2SO_4}. Cu2+^{2+} hydrolyses in water to release H+\mathrm{H^+}, so the solution is acidic.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

The molecular formula of Magnetite is ……. (a) Fe2O3 (b) Fe3O4 (c) FeCO3 (d) Fe2O3.2H2O

Answer

(b) Fe3O4\mathrm{Fe_3O_4}

Magnetite is the magnetic black oxide of iron, Fe3O4\mathrm{Fe_3O_4}. Fe2O3\mathrm{Fe_2O_3} is haematite, FeCO3\mathrm{FeCO_3} is siderite and Fe2O3⋅2H2O\mathrm{Fe_2O_3\cdot2H_2O} is limonite.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

The monomer of Bakelite is …… (a) Phenol (b) Formaldehyde (c) Ethene (d) both a and b

Answer

(d) both a and b

Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer made by condensation of phenol and formaldehyde.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

How many numbers of molecules are present in 22.4 liters of gas at NTP? (a) 6.023×10236.023\times10^{23} (b) 6.023×10246.023\times10^{24} (c) 6.023×10−236.023\times10^{-23} (d) 6.023×10216.023\times10^{21}

Answer

(a) 6.023×10236.023\times10^{23}

At NTP, 22.4 L of any gas is one mole, which contains Avogadro's number of molecules, 6.023×10236.023\times10^{23}.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

The order of atomic radius in the increasing order is …… (a) Mg2+>Na+>Ne\mathrm{Mg^{2+}}>\mathrm{Na^{+}}>\mathrm{Ne} (b) Mg2+<Na+<Ne\mathrm{Mg^{2+}}<\mathrm{Na^{+}}<\mathrm{Ne} (c) Na+>Mg2+>Ne\mathrm{Na^{+}}>\mathrm{Mg^{2+}}>\mathrm{Ne} (d) Ne>Mg2+>Na+\mathrm{Ne}>\mathrm{Mg^{2+}}>\mathrm{Na^{+}}

Answer

(b) Mg2+<Na+<Ne\mathrm{Mg^{2+}}<\mathrm{Na^{+}}<\mathrm{Ne}

These are isoelectronic species, each with 10 electrons. A larger nuclear charge pulls the electrons in more strongly: Mg2+^{2+} has 12 protons, Na+^+ has 11 and Ne has 10. So the size increases in the order Mg2+<Na+<Ne\mathrm{Mg^{2+}}<\mathrm{Na^+}<\mathrm{Ne}.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Which of the following is formed when CO2 gas is bubbled into lime water? (a) H2CO3 (b) CaCl2 (c) CaCO3 (d) Ca(HCO3)2

Answer

(c) CaCO3\mathrm{CaCO_3}

Ca(OH)2+CO2→CaCO3↓+H2O\mathrm{Ca(OH)_2+CO_2\rightarrow CaCO_3\downarrow+H_2O} The white precipitate of calcium carbonate turns the lime water milky.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Two liquid having boiling point differ by 10∘10^\circC can be separated by (a) Simple distillation (b) Fractional distillation (c) Vacuum distillation (d) Crystallization

Answer

(b) Fractional distillation

Simple distillation needs a boiling-point difference of about 4040 to 50∘50^\circC or more. For liquids differing by only about 10∘10^\circC, a fractionating column is needed to separate them.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

1840Ar^{40}_{18}\mathrm{Ar} and 2040Ca^{40}_{20}\mathrm{Ca} are the example of …. (a) Isotopes (b) Isotones (c) Isobar (d) Isoelectronic

Answer

(c) Isobar

Both have mass number 40 but different atomic numbers (18 and 20), so they are isobars.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3 is the example of ……. (a) Precipitation reaction (b) Double displacement reaction (c) Both a and b (d) Neutralization Reaction

Answer

(c) Both a and b

Ions exchange partners in AgNO3+NaCl→AgCl↓+NaNO3\mathrm{AgNO_3+NaCl\rightarrow AgCl\downarrow+NaNO_3}, which makes it a double displacement reaction. It also forms an insoluble white precipitate of AgCl, so it is a precipitation reaction too.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

How many numbers of moles are present in 108 gram aluminum? (a) 2 moles (b) 3 moles (c) 4 moles (d) 5 moles

Answer

(c) 4 moles

n=massmolar mass=10827=4 mol.n=\frac{\text{mass}}{\text{molar mass}}=\frac{108}{27}=4\ \text{mol}.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

At higher altitudes the boiling point of liquids ………. (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) increase then decrease

Answer

(b) decreases

Atmospheric pressure falls with altitude. A liquid boils when its vapour pressure equals the external pressure, so it boils at a lower temperature at high altitudes.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

In the equation: Na2CO3 + X HCl → 2 NaCl + CO2 + H2O, the value of ‘X’ is … (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Answer

(b) 2

Balancing the sodium carbonate reaction gives Na2CO3+2HCl→2NaCl+CO2+H2O\mathrm{Na_2CO_3 + 2HCl \rightarrow 2NaCl + CO_2 + H_2O}. Two Cl atoms are needed on the right (in 2NaCl), so X=2X = 2.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Which of the following behaves as strong acid? (a) HCl (b) HBr (c) HF (d) HI

Answer

(d) HI

HCl, HBr and HI are all strong acids, and HF is the weak one because of its strong H–F bond. Among the options, HI is the strongest acid, since the H–I bond is the longest and weakest and so ionises most completely.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Which is not the mode of vegetative reproduction? (a) Budding (b) Spore formation (c) Cutting (d) Gemma formation

Answer

(b) Spore formation

Spore formation is a mode of asexual reproduction, not of vegetative reproduction. Budding, cutting and gemma formation all use vegetative parts of the parent.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Pollination by birds is ………. (a) Entomophily (b) Ornithophily (c) Anemophily (d) None of them

Answer

(b) Ornithophily

Pollination by birds is called ornithophily. Entomophily is by insects and anemophily is by wind.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

What is the name of the female reproductive part of flower? (a) Androecium (b) Gynoecium (c) Calyx (d) Corolla

Answer

(b) Gynoecium

The gynoecium (pistil) is the female part of a flower, made of the stigma, style and ovary. The androecium is the male part, and the calyx and corolla are accessory whorls.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Which plant have in their seeds only one cotyledon? (a) Rice (b) Potato (c) Pea (d) Mustard

Answer

(a) Rice

Rice is a monocot, so its seed has a single cotyledon. Potato, pea and mustard are dicots with two cotyledons.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Name the process by which oxygen is released to the atmosphere? (a) Photosynthesis (b) Respiration (c) Transpiration (d) a & b

Answer

(a) Photosynthesis

Plants release O2\mathrm{O_2} as a by-product of photosynthesis, when water is split in the light reaction. Respiration takes in oxygen, and transpiration loses water vapour.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

A self-cross between F1 hybrid give phenotypic ratio …. (a) 1 : 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (d) None of them

Answer

(b) 3 : 1

Selfing a monohybrid F1 hybrid (Tt×TtTt \times Tt) gives TT:Tt:tt=1:2:1TT : Tt : tt = 1:2:1 genotypically. Because of dominance, the phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Who developed 5-kingdom classification? (a) Carolus Linnaeus (b) R.H. Whittaker (c) A. Engler (d) T.D. Hooker

Answer

(b) R.H. Whittaker

Whittaker proposed the five-kingdom classification in 1969: Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Climate of the world is threated by …… (a) Increasing concentration of atmospheric O2 (b) Decreasing amount of atmospheric O2 (c) Increasing amount of atmospheric CO2 (d) Decreasing amount of atmospheric CO2

Answer

(c) Increasing amount of atmospheric CO2

Rising CO2\mathrm{CO_2}, mainly from burning fossil fuels and deforestation, strengthens the greenhouse effect. This causes global warming and climate change.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Bacteriophage is …….. (a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Fungi (d) Algae

Answer

(b) Virus

A bacteriophage is a virus that infects bacteria.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Down’s syndrome is due to …….. (a) Extra sex chromosome (b) Extra 21st chromosome (c) Extra ‘Y’ chromosome (d) Deficient of sex character

Answer

(b) Extra 21st chromosome

Down's syndrome is caused by trisomy 21, with three copies of chromosome 21 (47 chromosomes in total).

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Common bath sponge is …… (a) Euspongia (b) Hyalonema (c) Euplectella (d) Spongilla

Answer

(a) Euspongia

Euspongia is the common bath sponge, whose soft spongin skeleton is used for bathing. Hyalonema and Euplectella are glass sponges, and Spongilla is a freshwater sponge.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Flame cells are main excretory structures of ………… (a) Coelenterates (b) Platyhelminthes (c) Annelida (d) Echinodermata

Answer

(b) Platyhelminthes

Flame cells (protonephridia) are the excretory and osmoregulatory structures of flatworms such as Planaria and liver fluke.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Sea mouse belong to phylum. (a) Chordata (b) Mollusca (c) Annelida (d) Echinodermata

Answer

(c) Annelida

The sea mouse (Aphrodite) is a marine polychaete worm, so it belongs to phylum Annelida.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Open blood circulation is found in …… (a) Earthworm (b) Cockroach (c) Humans (d) Cows

Answer

(b) Cockroach

Arthropods such as the cockroach have an open circulation, in which blood (haemolymph) flows through body spaces rather than closed vessels. Earthworms, humans and cows have a closed circulation.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Tendon is a structure which connects ……. (a) A nerve fibre with muscle (b) A muscle with a bone (c) A bone with another bone (d) Skin with underlying parts

Answer

(b) A muscle with a bone

Tendons are tough, inelastic fibrous cords that attach muscle to bone. Ligaments connect bone to bone.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Which is a water borne disease? (a) Small Pox (b) Malaria (c) Tuberculosis (d) Cholera

Answer

(d) Cholera

Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae and spreads through contaminated water. Smallpox and tuberculosis are airborne, and malaria is spread by the Anopheles mosquito.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

Silver fish is …….. (a) a fish (b) an insect (c) Arthropoda (d) Echinodermata

Answer

(b) an insect

The silverfish (Lepisma) is a wingless insect, not a fish. It is also an arthropod, but the most precise answer among the options is that it is an insect.

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  • 2019 Science Sample Test Set A · 1 mark

The Study of animal behavior is …… (a) Sociology (b) Ethology (c) Phenology (d) Psychology Mathematics

Answer

(b) Ethology

Ethology is the scientific study of animal behaviour.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

The difference of temperature of 25∘25^\circC is equivalent to: (a) 45 K (b) 72 K (c) 320 K (d) 298 K

Answer

(d) 298 K

A temperature of 25∘25^\circC is converted to kelvin by adding 273:

T=25+273=298 KT = 25 + 273 = 298\ \text{K}

So 25∘25^\circC corresponds to 298 K, which is the only option that matches.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

A person holds a bucket of weight 60 N. He walks 10 m along the horizontal and then climbs up a vertical distance of 5 m. The work done by the man is ____ (a) 3005300\sqrt5 J (b) 4205420\sqrt5 J (c) 7205720\sqrt5 J (d) None of the above

Answer

(d) None of the above

Work is W=Fdcos⁡θW = Fd\cos\theta. The bucket's weight (the force the man applies) is vertical. Walking 10 m horizontally gives θ=90∘\theta = 90^\circ, so no work is done. Climbing 5 m vertically against the force gives:

W=60×5=300 JW = 60 \times 5 = 300\ \text{J}

Since 300 J is not among the options, the answer is none of the above.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Heat travels through vacuum by ____. (a) Conduction (b) Convection (c) Radiation (d) Both a and b

Answer

(c) Radiation

Conduction and convection need a material medium. Radiation transfers heat as electromagnetic waves and needs no medium, so it works through a vacuum (as sunlight reaches the Earth).

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

The critical angle for a ray of light coming from a medium to air is 30∘30^\circ. The velocity of light in the medium is ____ (a) 3×1083\times10^8 m/s (b) 2.5×1082.5\times10^8 m/s (c) 6×1086\times10^8 m/s (d) 1.5×1081.5\times10^8 m/s

Answer

(d) 1.5×1081.5\times10^8 m/s

The refractive index from the critical angle is:

n=1sin⁡C=1sin⁡30∘=2n = \frac{1}{\sin C} = \frac{1}{\sin 30^\circ} = 2

v=cn=3×1082=1.5×108 m/sv = \frac{c}{n} = \frac{3\times10^8}{2} = 1.5\times10^8\ \text{m/s}

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Which of the following colour suffers maximum deviation in a prism? (a) Yellow (b) Blue (c) Green (d) Orange

Answer

(b) Blue

The deviation in a prism is larger for shorter wavelengths. Violet deviates the most and red the least. Among the options, blue has the shortest wavelength, so it suffers the maximum deviation.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

The rainbow is produced by: ____ (a) refraction of light (b) total internal reflection of light (c) reflection light (d) dispersion of light

Answer

(d) dispersion of light

A rainbow forms when sunlight is refracted, totally internally reflected inside raindrops, and refracted again. The separation into the seven colours is due to dispersion, which is why dispersion is the best answer.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

If the radius of earth shrinks by 2% mass remaining the same then the acceleration due to gravity at its surface: ____ (a) increases by 2% (b) increases by 4% (c) decreases by 2% (d) decreases by 4%

Answer

(b) increases by 4%

Since g=GMR2g = \dfrac{GM}{R^2}, we have g∝R−2g \propto R^{-2} for constant mass. For a small change in RR:

Δgg=−2 ΔRR=−2(−2%)=+4%\frac{\Delta g}{g} = -2\,\frac{\Delta R}{R} = -2(-2\%) = +4\%

So gg increases by about 4%.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

When a metal is heated then it expands because: ____ (a) The size of its atoms increases (b) The distance between the atoms increases (c) The speed of vibration of its atom increases (d) Atoms of it remain calm being elongated

Answer

(b) The distance between the atoms increases

On heating, the atoms vibrate with larger amplitude. Because the interatomic force is asymmetric, the mean separation between atoms increases, and this increase in distance appears as expansion of the metal.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

A computer is connected to a 200 Volt outlet and draws a current of 15 Ampere. It runs for 3 hours. What power does the computer use? ____ (a) 300 W (b) 3 kW (c) 13.3 W (d) 0.75 kW

Answer

(b) 3 kW

P=VI=200×15=3000 W=3 kWP = VI = 200 \times 15 = 3000\ \text{W} = 3\ \text{kW}

The 3 hours is the running time and is needed only for energy (3 kW×3 h=93\ \text{kW}\times 3\ \text{h} = 9 kWh), not for power.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

If force and length are doubled then power becomes ____. (a) 2 times (b) 4 times (c) 6 times (d) same

Answer

(b) 4 times

Power is P=Wt=F ltP = \dfrac{W}{t} = \dfrac{F\,l}{t}. Doubling both FF and ll with the same time gives:

P=(2F)(2l)t=4PP = \frac{(2F)(2l)}{t} = 4P

So the power becomes 4 times.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

If the percentage change in radius of sphere is 2%, then percentage change in volume is: ____ (a) 2% (b) 4% (c) 6% (d) 8%

Answer

(c) 6%

The volume is V=43πr3V = \dfrac{4}{3}\pi r^3, so V∝r3V \propto r^3. For small changes:

ΔVV=3 Δrr=3×2%=6%\frac{\Delta V}{V} = 3\,\frac{\Delta r}{r} = 3 \times 2\% = 6\%

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

At what height from the earth's surface, the acceleration due to gravity (gg) will be half the value of it at the surface? (Re=6400R_e=6400 km) (a) 3050 km (b) 3240 km (c) 2650 km (d) None of them

Answer

(c) 2650 km

Set g′=g/2g' = g/2 with g′=g(RR+h)2g' = g\left(\dfrac{R}{R+h}\right)^2:

(RR+h)2=12⇒R+h=2 R⇒h=(2−1)R=0.414×6400≈2650 km\left(\frac{R}{R+h}\right)^2=\frac12 \Rightarrow R+h=\sqrt2\,R \Rightarrow h=(\sqrt2-1)R=0.414\times6400\approx2650\text{ km}

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

In Kathmandu, water boils below 100∘100^\circC due to: ____ (a) Increase in pressure (b) Decrease in pressure (c) Supplying heat rapidly (d) None of the above

Answer

(b) Decrease in pressure

At Kathmandu's altitude the atmospheric pressure is lower, and a liquid boils when its vapour pressure equals the external pressure, so water boils below 100∘100^\circC.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

One atmospheric pressure is: ____ (a) 1.01×1051.01\times10^5 N/m2^2 (b) 2.02×1052.02\times10^5 N/m2^2 (c) 1.01×1061.01\times10^6 N/m2^2 (d) 2.02×1062.02\times10^6 N/m2^2

Answer

(a) 1.01×1051.01\times10^5 N/m2^2

One atmosphere is the pressure of a 760 mm mercury column: ρgh=13600×9.8×0.76≈1.01×105\rho g h = 13600\times9.8\times0.76\approx1.01\times10^5 Pa.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

On a hydraulic lift a person of 750 N weight is standing on small piston area 0.5 m2^2 and a car on other piston of area 9 m2^2 is just lifted. What must be the weight of that car? (a) 18500 N (b) 16500 N (c) 15500 N (d) 13500 N

Answer

(d) 13500 N

By Pascal's law the pressure is the same on both pistons:

F1A1=F2A2⇒F2=750×90.5=13500 N\frac{F_1}{A_1}=\frac{F_2}{A_2}\Rightarrow F_2=750\times\frac{9}{0.5}=13500\text{ N}

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Which of the following is not a mixture? ____ (a) Distilled water (b) Sugar dissolved in water (c) Liquefied petroleum gas (d) Gasoline

Answer

(a) Distilled water

Distilled water is a pure compound (H2_2O). Sugar solution, LPG (propane-butane) and gasoline (hydrocarbons) are all mixtures.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

One amu is equal to ____ (a) 1.00758 gm (b) 0.000549 gm (c) 1.66×10−241.66\times10^{-24} gm (d) 6.023×10−236.023\times10^{-23} gm

Answer

(c) 1.66×10−241.66\times10^{-24} gm

One amu is 112\tfrac{1}{12} of the mass of a carbon-12 atom, i.e. 16.023×1023≈1.66×10−24\dfrac{1}{6.023\times10^{23}}\approx1.66\times10^{-24} g.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Which is not radioactive? (a) Radium (b) Lithium (c) Uranium (d) Thorium

Answer

(b) Lithium

Radium, uranium and thorium are heavy unstable elements that emit radiation; lithium has stable isotopes and is not radioactive.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Which pair of atomic number represents the s block elements? (a) 7, 15 (b) 6, 12 (c) 9, 17 (d) 3, 12

Answer

(d) 3, 12

Z = 3 (Li, 1s22s11s^2 2s^1) and Z = 12 (Mg, [Ne]3s2[Ne]3s^2) both have their last electron in an ss orbital. The others (7, 15, 6, 9, 17) are pp-block.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

The catalyst used in the Haber's process is: ____ (a) Fe (b) Mo (c) Pt (d) V2_2O5_5

Answer

(a) Fe

In the Haber process, N2+3H2⇌2NH3\text{N}_2+3\text{H}_2\rightleftharpoons2\text{NH}_3, finely divided iron is the catalyst with molybdenum as promoter.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

The temporary hardness due to calcium bicarbonate can be removed by adding ____. (a) Calcium carbonate (b) Calcium hydroxide (c) Calcium chloride (d) Hydrochloric acid

Answer

(b) Calcium hydroxide

In Clark's method, slaked lime removes temporary hardness:

Ca(HCO3)2+Ca(OH)2→2CaCO3↓+2H2O\text{Ca(HCO}_3)_2+\text{Ca(OH)}_2\rightarrow2\text{CaCO}_3\downarrow+2\text{H}_2\text{O}

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Which metal is liquid in room temperature? (a) Uranium (b) Bromine (c) Mercury (d) Hydrogen

Answer

(c) Mercury

Mercury is the only metal that is liquid at room temperature (melting point −39∘-39^\circC). Bromine is a liquid but a non-metal; hydrogen is a gas and uranium a solid.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Carbon dioxide is: ____ (a) Lighter than air (b) Collected by downward displacement of air (c) basic in nature (d) solidifies at −78∘-78^\circC

Answer

(d) solidifies at −78∘-78^\circC

Solid CO2_2 (dry ice) forms at about −78∘-78^\circC. CO2_2 is heavier than air, so it is collected by upward displacement of air, and it is acidic in nature.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Group IB elements are commonly called as: ____ (a) Alkali metals (b) Alkaline earth metals (c) Halogens (d) Coinage metals

Answer

(d) Coinage metals

Group IB (Cu, Ag, Au) were traditionally used to make coins.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Gypsum is: ____ (a) CaSO4_4.2H2_2O (b) CaSO4_4.H2_2O (c) CaSO4_4.10H2_2O (d) CaCO3_3.5H2_2O

Answer

(a) CaSO4⋅2_4\cdot2H2_2O

Gypsum is hydrated calcium sulphate with two molecules of water of crystallisation; CaSO4⋅12_4\cdot\tfrac12H2_2O is plaster of Paris.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Felspar is an ore of: ____ (a) Silver (b) Copper (c) Aluminium (d) Iron

Answer

(c) Aluminium

Felspar (KAlSi3_3O8_8) is an aluminosilicate mineral and a source of aluminium.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

The type of bond in oxygen molecule is: ____ (a) Co-ordinate covalent bond (b) Ionic bond (c) Covalent bond (d) Electrovalent bond

Answer

(c) Covalent bond

Each oxygen atom needs two electrons to complete its octet, so two atoms share two pairs of electrons and form a double covalent bond, O=O.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Two elements A and B combine to form A2_2B3_3. The valency of A and B are respectively: ____ (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

Answer

(c) 3 and 2

By the criss-cross rule, in A2_2B3_3 the subscript of A (2) is the valency of B and the subscript of B (3) is the valency of A. So A has valency 3 and B has valency 2, as in Al2_2O3_3.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

In lab, hydrogen gas is collected by ____ (a) upward displacement of air (b) downward displacement of water (c) downward displacement of air (d) upward displacement of water

Answer

(b) downward displacement of water

Hydrogen is almost insoluble in water, so it is collected over water in an inverted jar, the water being pushed downward out of the jar.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

The movement of any part of plant governed by force of gravity is called ____. (a) Geotaxis (b) Chemotaxis (c) Phototaxis (d) Geotropism

Answer

(d) Geotropism

Growth movement of a plant part in response to gravity is geotropism (roots are positively geotropic). Taxis terms refer to movement of whole organisms.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

The double fertilization process occurs in ____ (a) Pinus plant (b) Fern plant (c) Mustard plant (d) Cycas plant

Answer

(c) Mustard plant

Double fertilization (one sperm fuses with the egg, another with the polar nuclei) is characteristic of angiosperms, and mustard is a flowering plant.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

What are the chemical components of virus? (a) Glucose and lipid (b) Nucleic acid and protein (c) Phosphate and protein (d) Lipid and protein

Answer

(b) Nucleic acid and protein

A virus has a genetic core of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat (capsid).

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Nitrogen fixation bacteria of legume plant is ____. (a) Pseudomonas (b) Clostridium (c) Agrobacter (d) Rhizobium

Answer

(d) Rhizobium

Rhizobium lives symbiotically in root nodules of legumes and fixes atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Nucleotide is composed of ____ (a) Sugar, phosphate and Adenine (b) Adenine, Guanine and Thymine (c) Lipid, phosphate and sugar (d) Fat, Uracil and Adenine

Answer

(a) Sugar, phosphate and Adenine

A nucleotide consists of a pentose sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base (here adenine).

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Asexual reproduction in planaria takes place by. (a) Budding (b) Fission (c) Sporulation (d) Regeneration

Answer

(b) Fission

Planaria reproduces asexually mainly by transverse fission, after which each piece regenerates the missing parts.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Respiration, heart and reflex actions are conducted by ____ of brain. (a) Medulla oblongata (b) Cerebrum (c) Cerebellum (d) Spinal Cord

Answer

(a) Medulla oblongata

The medulla oblongata of the hindbrain controls involuntary activities such as respiration, heartbeat and reflex actions like vomiting and coughing.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Which one is correct in term of Phylum? (a) Pila, slug, Unio, Octopus (b) Cockroach, butterfly, housefly, Sea lily (c) Frog, Squirrel, Tree frog, Wall lizard (d) Brittle star, Sea Urchin, Hydra, Sponge

Answer

(a) Pila, slug, Unio, Octopus

All four are soft-bodied animals with a mantle and (usually) a shell, so they belong to the single phylum Mollusca. The other options mix different phyla (insects with echinoderms, amphibians with mammals and reptiles, echinoderms with cnidarians and sponges).

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Wings of butterfly, bird and bat suggest ____. (a) vestigial organ (b) Analogous organ (c) Homologous (d) Atavism

Answer

(b) Analogous organ

The wings of a butterfly, bird and bat perform the same function (flight) but differ in origin and basic structure, so they are analogous organs showing convergent evolution.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

In the larvae of frog the respiration is carried out by ____. (a) Gills (b) Lungs (c) Skin (d) Skin and gills

Answer

(a) Gills

A frog tadpole is aquatic and breathes dissolved oxygen through external and then internal gills. Lungs and skin take over in the adult.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Bones present in our wrist are ____. (a) Carpals (b) Tarsals (c) Metacarpals (d) Humerus

Answer

(a) Carpals

The wrist contains eight small carpal bones. Tarsals are in the ankle, metacarpals in the palm, and the humerus is the upper arm bone.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

The voluntary movements of body are conducted by ____. (a) Spinal Cord (b) Cerebrum (c) Cerebellum (d) Medulla Oblongata

Answer

(b) Cerebrum

The cerebrum controls conscious thought and voluntary muscle movement. The cerebellum coordinates balance and posture, the medulla controls involuntary actions, and the spinal cord mainly carries impulses and mediates reflexes.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Cuticle of Ascaris is an adaptation for ____. (a) Parasitism (b) Growth (c) Reproduction (d) Locomotion

Answer

(a) Parasitism

The tough cuticle of Ascaris protects the worm from the digestive enzymes of its host, which is an adaptation to its parasitic life in the intestine.

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  • 2074 Set A · 1 mark

Growth hormone is produced in ____. (a) Thyroid (b) Pituitary (c) Adrenal (d) Gonads

Answer

(b) Pituitary

Growth hormone (somatotropin) is secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. Its hypersecretion causes gigantism or acromegaly and its hyposecretion causes dwarfism.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which is not a unit of length? (a) Parsec (b) Light year (c) Debye (d) Angstrom

Answer

(c) Debye

The parsec, light year and angstrom are units of length (1 ly≈9.46×1015 m1\,\text{ly}\approx9.46\times10^{15}\,\text{m}, 1 A˚=10−10 m1\,\text{Å}=10^{-10}\,\text{m}). The debye is a unit of electric dipole moment.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

A vector changes (a) If it is rotated (b) If co-ordinate axes change (c) If shifted translation wise in inertial frame (d) All of above

Answer

(a) If it is rotated

Rotating a vector changes its direction, so the vector itself changes. Changing the axes only changes its components, and shifting it parallel to itself keeps its magnitude and direction unchanged.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

The distance travelled by a stone falling from a height in first, second and third second are in the ratio of (a) 1:2:3 (b) 1:1:1 (c) 1:3:5 (d) 1:4:9

Answer

(c) 1:3:5

The distance in the nnth second is sn=12g(2n−1)s_n=\tfrac12g(2n-1), so for n=1,2,3n=1,2,3 the distances are in the ratio 1:3:51:3:5 (Galileo's law of odd numbers).

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

It is easier to pull a lawn roller than to push it because pulling (a) Involves sliding friction (b) Involves rolling friction (c) Increases effective weight (d) Decrease Normal reaction

Answer

(d) Decrease Normal reaction

When pulling, the handle is inclined upward, so the vertical component of the applied force reduces the normal reaction. Friction μN\mu N is then smaller. When pushing, the downward component increases NN and friction.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

If mass of body is reduced to half and its velocity is doubled, its kinetic energy (a) remain unchanged (b) Doubled (c) Increased 4 times (d) Halved

Answer

(b) Doubled

K=12mv2K=\tfrac12 mv^2. The new value is 12(m2)(2v)2=12mv2×2\tfrac12\left(\tfrac m2\right)(2v)^2=\tfrac12 mv^2\times2, so the kinetic energy doubles.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

A motor cycle is going on an over bridge of radius ‘R’ driver maintain a constant speed. As motor cycle is ascending on over bridge, normal forces is (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Constant (d) Changes erratically

Answer

(a) Increases

At a point where the radius makes angle θ\theta with the vertical, mgcos⁡θ−N=mv2Rmg\cos\theta-N=\dfrac{mv^2}{R}, so N=mgcos⁡θ−mv2RN=mg\cos\theta-\dfrac{mv^2}{R}. While ascending, θ\theta decreases, cos⁡θ\cos\theta increases, and with constant speed NN increases.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Atmosphere of Earth is due to (a) Gravity (b) Sun (c) Clouds (d) Rotation of earth

Answer

(a) Gravity

The Earth's gravitational attraction holds the gas molecules around the planet. Without gravity the atmosphere would escape into space.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Most important characteristics of SHM is (a) Periodic (b) to and fro (c) acceleration constant (d) time displacement curve is pure sine or cosine curve

Answer

(d) time displacement curve is pure sine or cosine curve

Many motions are periodic or to and fro, but SHM is defined by a=−ω2xa=-\omega^2x, which gives x=Asin⁡(ωt+ϕ)x=A\sin(\omega t+\phi). Its acceleration is not constant.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Most plastic material is (a) wood (b) Rubber (c) Plastic (d) Glass

Answer

(c) Plastic

A plastic material keeps its deformation after the load is removed. Of the options, plastic is the most plastic material, whereas rubber is highly elastic and glass and wood are brittle.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

When water drops merge to form a bigger drop, energy is (a) Liberated (b) absorbed (c) Neither absorbed nor liberated (d) None

Answer

(a) Liberated

When drops merge, the total surface area decreases. Surface energy =TΔA=T\Delta A decreases, and the difference is released as energy (the temperature rises slightly).

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Two bodies having equal up thrust when completely immersed in water both of them have (a) Equal volume (b) Equal mass (c) Both a and b (d) None

Answer

(a) Equal volume

Upthrust =Vρwaterg=V\rho_{\text{water}}g when completely immersed, so equal upthrust means equal volume of water displaced, hence equal volume of the bodies. Their masses may differ.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

If spherical mirror is immersed in water, focal length (a) Changes (b) Remain same (c) Depends on shape (d) None

Answer

(b) Remain same

For a spherical mirror f=R/2f=R/2, which depends only on the geometry of the mirror and not on the medium, because reflection does not depend on the refractive index.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Electric volt is a unit of ………….. (a) Power (b) Energy (c) Force (d) Tension

Answer

(b) Energy

The electron volt is the energy gained by an electron through a potential difference of 1 V: 1 eV=1.6×10−19 J1\,\text{eV}=1.6\times10^{-19}\,\text{J}. The volt itself is a unit of potential.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which of the elements best convey that there is life on earth (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Carbon (d) Iron

Answer

(c) Carbon

All organic compounds of living things, such as carbohydrates, proteins, fats and nucleic acids, are built on carbon backbones, so carbon best signals life.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Largest number of molecules is in (a) 28gm of CO (b) 46 gm of C2H5OH (c) 36gm of H2O (d) 54gm of N2O5

Answer

(c) 36 gm of H2O

Moles: CO 28/28=128/28=1; C2H5OH 46/46=146/46=1; H2O 36/18=236/18=2; N2O5 54/108=0.554/108=0.5. Molecule count is proportional to moles, so water has the most.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Neutron was discovered by (a) Goldstein (b) Chadwick (c) Thomson (d) Boyle

Answer

(b) Chadwick

James Chadwick discovered the neutron in 1932 by bombarding beryllium with alpha particles. Goldstein discovered anode (canal) rays and Thomson the electron.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

‘An orbital can’t have more then 2 electrons’ is based on (a) Aufbau principle (b) Hund’s rule of Maximum Multiplicity (c) Dalton’s principle (d) Pauli’s exclusion principle

Answer

(d) Pauli's exclusion principle

No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers, so an orbital holds at most two electrons, and they must have opposite spins.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Oxidation state of iron in brown ring complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 is (a) +2 (b) +1 (c) +3 (d) 0

Answer

(b) +1

In the brown ring complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4[Fe(H_2O)_5NO]SO_4 the sulphate ion is 2−2-, so the complex cation is 2+2+. Water is neutral and NO is present as NO+NO^+ (charge +1+1), so x+0+1=+2⇒x=+1.x + 0 + 1 = +2 \Rightarrow x = +1.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

K4Fe(CN)6 is (a) Double salt (b) Acid salt (c) Complex salt (d) Mixed salt

Answer

(c) Complex salt

K4Fe(CN)6K_4Fe(CN)_6 ionises to 4K+4K^+ and the complex ion [Fe(CN)6]4−[Fe(CN)_6]^{4-}, which does not give free Fe2+Fe^{2+} or CN−CN^- ions in solution. It is therefore a complex salt, not a double salt.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

MnO2 is (a) Negative catalyst (b) Positive catalyst (c) Auto catalyst (d) None

Answer

(b) Positive catalyst

MnO2MnO_2 increases the rate of decomposition of KClO3KClO_3 into KClKCl and O2O_2, so it is a positive catalyst.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

When lead storage battery is discharged. (a) SO2 is evolved (b) Lead is formed (c) H2SO4 consumed (d) None

Answer

(c) H2SO4H_2SO_4 consumed

On discharge the cell reaction is Pb+PbO2+2H2SO4→2PbSO4+2H2OPb + PbO_2 + 2H_2SO_4 \rightarrow 2PbSO_4 + 2H_2O Sulphuric acid is used up and water is formed, so the electrolyte becomes dilute. No SO2SO_2 is evolved, and lead is not formed (it is consumed).

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Stainless steel is composition of (a) Fe+Cr (b) Fe+Cr+Mn (c) Fe+Cr+Ni+C (d) Fe+Cr+Ni+Mn

Answer

(c) Fe + Cr + Ni + C

Stainless steel is iron alloyed with chromium (about 12 to 18%), nickel (about 8%) and a little carbon. Chromium gives the corrosion resistance.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following is used as cryogenic fluid? (a) liquid H2 (b) Liquid O2 (c) Mercury (d) All

Answer

(a) Liquid H2H_2

Cryogenic fluids are liquefied gases kept at very low temperatures; liquid hydrogen (b.p. about 20 K) is a standard example. Mercury is a liquid at room temperature and is not a cryogenic fluid.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which one is neutral oxide? (a) NO, N2O (b) NO, NO2 (c) NO2, N2O (d) N2O5

Answer

(a) NO, N2ON_2O

Neutral oxides show neither acidic nor basic character. NONO and N2ON_2O are neutral, while NO2NO_2 and N2O5N_2O_5 are acidic oxides.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Producer gas is mixture of (a) CO+H2 (b) CO+N2 (c) CO+CH4 (d) CO+CO2

Answer

(b) CO + N2N_2

Producer gas is made by passing air over red-hot coke. It is mainly CO (about 25%) with nitrogen (about 70%).

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Functional isomer of Alcohol is (a) Ester (b) Phenol (c) Ether (d) Aldehyde

Answer

(c) Ether

Alcohols (CnH2n+2OC_nH_{2n+2}O, e.g. C2H5OHC_2H_5OH) and ethers (e.g. CH3OCH3CH_3OCH_3) have the same molecular formula but different functional groups, so they are functional isomers.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Soda lime is composed of (a) Ca(OH)2+Na2CO3 (b) CaCO3+NaOH (c) Ca(OH)2+NaOH (d) Ca(OH)2+Na2SO4

Answer

(c) Ca(OH)2+NaOHCa(OH)_2 + NaOH

Soda lime is a mixture of slaked lime and caustic soda, made by slaking quicklime with concentrated NaOH solution. It is used to absorb CO2CO_2 and in decarboxylation.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following is included under Antibiotic? (a) Penicillin (b) Tetracycline (c) Paracetamol (d) Both a and b

Answer

(d) Both a and b

Penicillin and tetracycline are antibiotics. Paracetamol is an analgesic and antipyretic.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Adsorbent for H2 gas is (a) NaOH solution (b) Heated Mg (c) Heated Pd (d) Conc H2SO4

Answer

(c) Heated Pd

Palladium absorbs large volumes of hydrogen, especially when heated. Heated Mg would form MgH2_2 only under special conditions, and NaOH and conc. H2SO4H_2SO_4 do not absorb H2H_2.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Zymology is the study of (a) Fungi (b) Yeast (c) Fruits (d) Fish

Answer

(b) Yeast

Zymology is the study of fermentation and of the yeast that carries it out, as in brewing and baking.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

In which phase, chromatin network condense and chromosome appear. (a) Inter phase (b) Prophase (c) Metaphase (d) Anaphase

Answer

(b) Prophase

In prophase the chromatin network condenses into distinct chromosomes, the nucleolus disappears and the spindle begins to form.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Liquid food drinking by a cell is (a) Phagocytosis (b) Imbibition (c) Pinocytosis (d) All

Answer

(c) Pinocytosis

Pinocytosis ("cell drinking") is the uptake of liquid droplets by invagination of the plasma membrane. Phagocytosis is the engulfing of solid particles.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Who first observed that bacteria are able to cause disease (a) Robert Koch (b) Louis Pasteur (c) V. Leeuwenhoek (d) Ehrenberg

Answer

(a) Robert Koch

Koch showed that the bacterium Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, and formulated Koch's postulates linking specific microbes to specific diseases.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Spirogyra is known as (a) Hair of princess (b) Pond scum (c) Both (d) None

Answer

(c) Both

Spirogyra is a filamentous green alga called "pond scum" or "water silk", and also "hair of princess".

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Circinate vernation in fern refers to (a) Types of leaves (b) Uncoiling of large leaf (c) Types of young leaves (d) Modified leaf

Answer

(b) Uncoiling of large leaf

In ferns the young leaf (frond) is coiled like a crozier in the bud and unrolls as it grows. This is circinate vernation.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Banyan tree has (a) Stilt root (b) Prop root (c) Annulated root (d) Climbing root

Answer

(b) Prop root

The banyan tree (Ficus benghalensis) has aerial roots that grow down from the branches and act as pillars supporting the branches. These are prop roots; stilt roots arise from the stem base, as in maize.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following i not the disease of the heart? (a) Myocardial infarction (b) Angina pectoris (c) Mitral stenosis (d) Cerebrovascular accident

Answer

(d) Cerebrovascular accident

A cerebrovascular accident (stroke) affects the blood vessels of the brain. Myocardial infarction, angina pectoris and mitral stenosis are heart diseases.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

The enzymes are (a) Proteins (b) Fats (c) Vitamins (d) Carbohydrate

Answer

(a) Proteins

Enzymes are biological catalysts, and almost all are globular proteins.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Chloroquine is used for treating (a) Cancer (b) Malaria (c) Diarrhea (d) AIDS

Answer

(b) Malaria

Chloroquine is an antimalarial drug acting against the Plasmodium parasite.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Ichthyology is the study of (a) Fishes (b) Birds (c) Reptiles (d) Mammal

Answer

(a) Fishes

Ichthyology is the branch of zoology dealing with fishes.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Canal system is found in (a) Sponge (b) Cuttlefish (c) Star fish (d) Hydra

Answer

(a) Sponge

Sponges (phylum Porifera) have a canal system: water enters through ostia, passes through canals and chambers, and leaves through the osculum. It brings food and oxygen and carries away wastes.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Flightless bird/birds are (a) Penguin and Emus (b) Ostrich and Kiwi (c) Cassowary (d) All

Answer

(d) All

Penguin, emu, ostrich, kiwi and cassowary all have reduced wings or a keel-less sternum and cannot fly, so every bird listed is flightless.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Lysosome is discovered by (a) G. Palade (b) C. de Duve (c) A. G. Tansley (d) Urey

Answer

(b) C. de Duve

Christian de Duve discovered lysosomes in 1955 using cell fractionation. Palade is known for ribosomes.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

First place of man’s origin is supposed to be (a) Central Asia (b) South east Asia (c) South Africa (d) Europe

Answer

(c) South Africa

Fossil evidence (Australopithecus and early Homo) points to Africa as the place where humans first originated.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Gambusia is a (a) Pest on fish (b) Pathogenic fish (c) Parasitic fish (d) Fish predator of mosquito larvae

Answer

(d) Fish predator of mosquito larvae

Gambusia (mosquito fish) feeds on mosquito larvae, so it is used as a biological control agent against malaria.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Cuticle of round worm is an adaptation for (a) Growth (b) Locomotion (c) Reproduction (d) Parasitism

Answer

(d) Parasitism

The tough cuticle of roundworms such as Ascaris protects them from the host digestive enzymes, which is an adaptation for a parasitic life.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Chloragogen cells are found in earthworm in (a) Blood (b) Coelomic fluid (c) Pharynx (d) Anus

Answer

(b) Coelomic fluid

Chloragogen cells (chloragocytes) are yellowish cells around the intestine that float free in the coelomic fluid. They store glycogen and fat and carry out excretion.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Enzyme of pancreatic juice act in (a) Acidic medium (b) Basic medium (c) Neutral medium (d) Any condition

Answer

(b) Basic medium

Pancreatic juice is alkaline (pH about 8) because of sodium bicarbonate, and its enzymes (trypsin, amylase, lipase) work best in this basic medium of the small intestine.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Drugs are detoxified by (a) Kidney (b) Intestine (c) Liver (d) Brain

Answer

(c) Liver

The liver detoxifies drugs and other toxins, mainly by enzymes of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in hepatocytes.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

A car moving with speed of 50km/hr can be stopped by brakes at least 6m. If same car is moving at a speed of 100km/hr then minimum distance at which car can be stopped is. (a) 6m (b) 12m (c) 18m (d) 24m

Answer

(d) 24 m

The braking distance comes from v2=2asv^2 = 2as, so s∝v2s \propto v^2 for the same retardation.

s2s1=(10050)2=4  ⇒  s2=4×6=24 m\frac{s_2}{s_1} = \left(\frac{100}{50}\right)^2 = 4 \;\Rightarrow\; s_2 = 4 \times 6 = 24\ \text{m}

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

A balloon of 15000m3 having mass 1650kg of equipment is filled y helium of density 0.2kg/m3. Density of air is 1.3kg/m3 then tension on rope tied to balloon is (a) 300kg (b) 0 (c) 600kg (d) 1950kg

Answer

(b) 0

The balloon floats if the upthrust equals the total weight, so the rope tension is the net upthrust minus the weight. The options are consistent with a balloon volume of 1500 m31500\ \text{m}^3.

Upthrust (as mass of air displaced): 1500×1.3=19501500 \times 1.3 = 1950 kg.

Mass of helium: 1500×0.2=3001500 \times 0.2 = 300 kg. Equipment: 1650 kg.

T=1950−(300+1650)=0T = 1950 - (300 + 1650) = 0

The balloon just floats and the rope carries no tension.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Thermometer suitable for measuring very high and low temperature respectively is (a) Gas and liquid (b) Resistance and pyrometer (c) Pyrometer and alcohol (d) Pyrometer and Magnetic

Answer

(c) Pyrometer and alcohol

A pyrometer measures very high temperatures without touching the body, using the radiation it emits. Alcohol freezes at about −115∘-115^\circC, so an alcohol thermometer can measure very low temperatures where a mercury one cannot.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

If a bottle of water is opened on surface of moon, water will boil because pressure of air on surface of moon is (a) higher (b) least (c) almost zero (d) None of above

Answer

(c) almost zero

The Moon has almost no atmosphere, so the pressure on its surface is almost zero. Boiling occurs when vapour pressure equals the external pressure, so at near-zero pressure water boils even at low temperature.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Cloudy nights are usually warner, because clouds (a) don’t absorbs heat (b) don’t radiate heat (c) low thermal conductivity (d) have high thermal conductivity

Answer

(b) don't radiate heat

On a cloudy night the clouds stop the heat radiated by the ground from escaping into space. They absorb it and send part of it back down, so the ground cools more slowly than on a clear night.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

A 5 cm square slide is to be projected on screen 2m square. The distance between slide and screen is 4.1 m then focal length of projecting lens is: (a) 4 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 20 cm

Answer

(b) 8 cm

The screen is 2 m = 200 cm square and the slide is 5 cm, so the linear magnification is m=200/5=40m = 200/5 = 40.

With v=40uv = 40u and u+v=410u + v = 410 cm: 41u=41041u = 410, so u=10u = 10 cm and v=400v = 400 cm.

f=uvu+v=10×400410≈9.8 cmf = \frac{uv}{u+v} = \frac{10 \times 400}{410} \approx 9.8\ \text{cm}

The nearest option is 8 cm.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

A 2KHZ siren and person both are at least with respect to earth. What frequency does hear if wind is blowing at 12 m s−1^{-1} from source to absorbed? (a) 2KHZ (b) >2KHZ (c) <2KHZ (d) 24KHZ

Answer

(a) 2 kHz

The source and the listener are both at rest relative to the earth, so there is no relative motion between them. Wind only carries the medium, so the wavelength and the speed relative to the observer change together, and the frequency heard stays 2 kHz.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Halley’s comet appears every after. (a) 12 years (b) 16 years (c) 18 years (d) 26 years

Answer

(d) 26 years

The option as printed is a misprint of 76 years. Halley's comet returns about every 76 years (last seen in 1986, next due in 2061), and (d) is the option that corresponds to it.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Molecular formula of Condy’s crystals is (a) Fe3O4 (b) Fe2O3 (c) KMNO4 (d) H2SO4

Answer

(c) KMnO4_4

Condy's crystals are potassium permanganate, KMnO4_4, used as a disinfectant and oxidising agent.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Number of electrons in Sulphur atom having n+l=3 are (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 2

Answer

(b) 8

Sulphur (Z = 16): 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p41s^2\,2s^2\,2p^6\,3s^2\,3p^4.

  • 2p2p: n+l=2+1=3n + l = 2 + 1 = 3, which holds 6 electrons.
  • 3s3s: n+l=3+0=3n + l = 3 + 0 = 3, which holds 2 electrons.

6+2=86 + 2 = 8

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Types of bond presents in NH4Cl (a) ionic (b) ionic and covalent (c) ionic and co-ordinate (d) all

Answer

(d) all

In NH4_4Cl there is an ionic bond between NH4+_4^+ and Cl−^-. Inside NH4+_4^+ there are three ordinary covalent N-H bonds and one coordinate (dative) bond from N to H+^+. So all three types are present.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which of the following is acidic salt? (a) NaHCO3 (b) NaNO3 (c) NaH2PO2 (d) All

Answer

(a) NaHCO3_3

An acidic salt still has replaceable hydrogen. NaHCO3_3 comes from the partial neutralisation of the dibasic H2_2CO3_3. NaNO3_3 is a normal salt, and NaH2_2PO2_2 is also normal because H3_3PO2_2 is monobasic, so both of its H atoms are non-replaceable.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which of the following is desiccant (Hygroscopic) solid. (a) CaO (b) SiO2 (c) P2O5 (d) All

Answer

(d) All

CaO and P2_2O5_5 both absorb water strongly and are used as drying agents. SiO2_2 in the form of silica gel is also a common desiccant.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Dalton’s law of partial pressure is not applicable to which of following mixture. (a) CO2 and N2 (b) SO2 and cl2 (c) HCL and NH3 (d) CO and CO2

Answer

(c) HCl and NH3_3

Dalton's law holds only for gases that do not react with each other. HCl and NH3_3 react to form solid NH4_4Cl, so the law does not apply.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Mixture of Na2CO3 and CaS is called (a) Fusion mixture (b) Black ash (c) Soda ash (d) None

Answer

(b) Black ash

Black ash is the crude mixture of Na2_2CO3_3 and CaS (with some carbon) obtained in the Leblanc process. Fusion mixture is Na2_2CO3_3 + K2_2CO3_3.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Choose appropriate dioxide form following (a) PbO2 (b) KO2 (c) RBO2 (d) KSO2

Answer

(a) PbO2_2

PbO2_2 is lead dioxide, containing the oxide ion O2−\text{O}^{2-} with Pb in the +4 state. KO2_2 is a superoxide containing O2−\text{O}_2^-, and the other formulas do not exist.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Parathion is (a) Fungicides (b) Pesticides (c) Insecticides (d) Herbicides

Answer

(c) Insecticides

Parathion is an organophosphate compound used to kill insects. It is a highly toxic insecticide.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which of these is formed as intermediate during chlorination of methane? (a) Carbonation (b) Carbanion (c) Free radical (d) Carbine

Answer

(c) Free radical

Chlorination of methane is a free radical chain reaction. UV light splits Cl2Cl_2 into Cl⋅Cl\cdot, which abstracts hydrogen to give the methyl free radical ⋅CH3\cdot CH_3 as the intermediate.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

IUPAC name of acrolein is (a) 1, 1-2-Tricholoroethene (b) Propanoic acid (c) Prop-2-enal (d) None

Answer

(c) Prop-2-enal

Acrolein is CH2=CH−CHOCH_2=CH-CHO: a three-carbon chain with an aldehyde group (carbon 1) and a double bond starting at carbon 2.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which is called Father of cytology? (a) Aristotle (b) Theophrastus (c) Cuvier (d) Robert Hooke

Answer

(d) Robert Hooke

Robert Hooke observed cork cells under a self-made microscope in 1665 and coined the word "cell", so he is called the father of cytology.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Cell wall of plant cell is made up of (a) Cellulose (b) Peptidoglycan (c) Pectin (d) Both a and c

Answer

(d) Both a and c

The plant cell wall is mainly cellulose microfibrils embedded in a matrix of hemicellulose and pectin. Peptidoglycan belongs to bacterial walls.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Protoplasm is a (a) Colloidal solution (b) crystalloid solution (c) crystal colloidal solution (d) None

Answer

(a) Colloidal solution

Protoplasm is the living substance of the cell. It is a complex, translucent colloidal system, with proteins and other large molecules dispersed in water.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which RNA is smallest and soluble (a) tRNA (b) mRNA (c) rRNA (d) None

Answer

(a) tRNA

Transfer RNA is the smallest RNA (about 75-90 nucleotides) and is soluble in the cytoplasm, which is why it is also called soluble RNA (sRNA).

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Number of autosomes in cell of man is (a) 46 (b) 44 (c) 42 (d) 23

Answer

(b) 44

A human cell has 46 chromosomes: 22 pairs of autosomes (44) and one pair of sex chromosomes (XX or XY).

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Cell wall of archaebacterial lack (a) Polysaccharide (b) peptide (c) peptidoglycon (d) all

Answer

(c) peptidoglycon

Archaebacterial cell walls are made of pseudomurein, proteins or polysaccharides, but they lack the peptidoglycan (murein) found in eubacteria.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Root cap is absent in (a) epiphytic root (b) haustorial root (c) Mycorrhizal root (d) all

Answer

(d) all

Root cap is absent in epiphytic roots (covered by velamen), parasitic haustorial roots and mycorrhizal roots, since none of them penetrate soil in the usual way.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Mangifera indica is (a) Mouse (b) Rabbit (c) Mango (d) Orange

Answer

(c) Mango

Mangifera indica is the scientific name of mango.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Dictyosome is also known as (a) Ribosome (b) Lysosome (c) Golgi body (d) Mitochondria

Answer

(c) Golgi body

In plant cells the units of the Golgi apparatus are scattered and called dictyosomes, so dictyosome is another name for the Golgi body.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Five kingdom classification was proposed by (a) Linnaeus (b) R.H. Whittaker (c) Aristotle (d) Cuvier

Answer

(b) R.H. Whittaker

Whittaker proposed the five kingdom classification in 1969: Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

In which preening gland is found (a) Aves (b) Reptiles (c) Pisces (d) Amphibians

Answer

(a) Aves

The preening (uropygial or oil) gland near the tail base of birds produces oil that birds spread over their feathers to keep them waterproof and clean.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Oviparous mammal is (a) Echidna (b) Platypus (c) Shrew (d) Both b and c

Answer

(b) Platypus

The platypus is an egg-laying (oviparous) mammal of the order Monotremata. The shrew gives birth to young, so option (d) is wrong.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Food chain always starts with (a) Nitrogen fixation (b) Respiration (c) Photosynthesis (d) Decay

Answer

(c) Photosynthesis

A food chain begins with producers, which trap solar energy and make food by photosynthesis. All consumers depend on them.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Process of shifting bee colony form one hive to another by themselves is (a) Metastasis (b) Moulting (c) Swarming (d) Colonization

Answer

(c) Swarming

Swarming is the natural movement of a honeybee colony, led by the old queen, to a new hive or nesting site when the colony becomes crowded.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Radial symmetry is found in (a) Echinodermata (b) Annelida (c) Platyhelminthes (d) Mollusca

Answer

(a) Echinodermata

Adult echinoderms such as starfish and sea urchins show pentamerous radial symmetry. Annelids, flatworms and molluscs are bilaterally symmetrical.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Trypsinogen is secreted by (a) Pancreas (b) Duodenum (c) Liver (d) Stomach

Answer

(a) Pancreas

Trypsinogen is the inactive form of trypsin secreted in pancreatic juice. It is activated in the duodenum by enterokinase.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Bat differs from bird in having (a) Homiothermic body (b) wings (c) chambered heart (d) diaphragm

Answer

(d) diaphragm

Both bats and birds are homoiothermic, have wings and a four-chambered heart. Only the bat, being a mammal, has a muscular diaphragm separating thorax and abdomen.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

“Omnis cellulae cellula” was word of (a) Virchow (b) Purkinje (c) Robert brown (d) Schwann

Answer

(a) Virchow

Rudolf Virchow (1855) stated "Omnis cellula e cellula": every cell arises from a pre-existing cell.

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  • 2023 Top Ten Colleges Model Set 2 · 1 mark

SARS (Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome) is due to (a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Influenza (d) Pneumonia

Answer

(b) Virus

SARS is caused by the SARS coronavirus (SARS-CoV), an RNA virus.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

What is the numerical value of the unit of amount of a physical quantity? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) ∞\infty (d) None

Answer

(b) 1

A physical quantity is Q=n uQ = n\,u, where nn is the numerical value and uu the unit. The numerical value of the unit itself is n=1n = 1 (one unit of the quantity).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

The dimensions of angular momentum are: (a) [MLT−1][MLT^{-1}] (b) [ML2T−1][ML^2T^{-1}] (c) [ML−1T][ML^{-1}T] (d) [MLT−2][MLT^{-2}]

Answer

(b) [ML2T−1][ML^2T^{-1}]

L=mvr⇒[M][LT−1][L]=[ML2T−1]L = mvr \Rightarrow [M][LT^{-1}][L] = [ML^2T^{-1}]

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Distance is a ............quantity (a) Vector (b) Scalar (c) Tensor (d) None

Answer

(b) Scalar

Distance has magnitude only and no direction (it is the total path length), so it is a scalar. Displacement is the vector quantity.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

A ball is dropped from the top of a tower 100 m high. Simultaneously, another ball is thrown upward with a speed of 50 m/s. After what time do they cross each other. (a) 1 s (b) 2 s (c) 3 s (d) 4 s

Answer

(b) 2 s

Both balls have the same acceleration gg downward, so relative to each other they move uniformly. The relative speed is 50 m/s50 \text{ m/s} and the initial separation is 100 m100 \text{ m}:

t=10050=2 st = \frac{100}{50} = 2 \text{ s}

Check: the dropped ball falls 12(10)(2)2=20\tfrac12(10)(2)^2 = 20 m, the thrown ball rises 50(2)−20=8050(2) - 20 = 80 m, and 20+80=10020 + 80 = 100 m.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

A metal ball immersed in alcohol weighs W1W_1 at 0∘0^\circC and W2W_2 at 50∘50^\circC. The coefficient of cubical expansion of the metal is less than that of alcohol. Assuming that density of metal is large compared to that of alcohol, it can be shown that: (a) W1>W2W_1>W_2 (b) W1=W2W_1=W_2 (c) W1<W2W_1<W_2 (d) W1=2W2W_1=2W_2

Answer

(c) W1<W2W_1 < W_2

Apparent weight == true weight −- upthrust, and the upthrust is VmρagV_m \rho_a g. On heating, the alcohol's density falls by a factor (1−γaΔT)(1-\gamma_a\Delta T) while the ball's volume rises by only (1+γmΔT)(1+\gamma_m\Delta T) with γm<γa\gamma_m<\gamma_a, so the upthrust decreases. The true weight is unchanged, so the apparent weight increases: W2>W1W_2 > W_1.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Two blocks of ice when pressed together join to form one block because: (a) Of heat produced during pressing (b) Of cold produced during pressing (c) Melting point of ice decreases with increase in pressure (d) Melting point of ice increases with increase in pressure

Answer

(c) Melting point of ice decreases with increase in pressure

Pressing the blocks raises the pressure at the contact surfaces, which lowers the melting point of ice. The ice melts there, and when the pressure is released the water refreezes, joining the blocks (regelation).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

The interior of a car parked in sunshine with its windows closed becomes very hot due to: (a) Photoelectric effect (b) Thermoelectric effects (c) Joule's effect (d) Greenhouse effect

Answer

(d) Greenhouse effect

Short-wavelength sunlight passes through the glass and is absorbed inside. The re-emitted long-wavelength infrared radiation cannot pass out through the glass, so heat is trapped and the interior becomes very hot.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Which of the following statements is correct? (a) If there were friction, work need to be done to move a body up an inclined plane will be zero (b) If there is no friction, moving vehicles could not be stopped by brakes. (c) As the angle inclination increases, the normal reaction of the body placed on it increases. (d) None

Answer

(b) If there is no friction, moving vehicles could not be stopped by brakes.

Brakes work through friction between the brake pads and wheel (and the tyre and road). Statement (a) is false because work against friction must be done in addition to raising the body. Statement (c) is false because the normal reaction N=mgcos⁡θN = mg\cos\theta decreases as the angle θ\theta increases.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

A rod of mass MM and length LL is lying on a horizontal table. The work done in making it stand on one end will be : (a) MgLMgL (b) MgL2\frac{MgL}{2} (c) MgL4\frac{MgL}{4} (d) 2MgL2MgL

Answer

(b) MgL2\dfrac{MgL}{2}

Work done equals the gain in potential energy, which is the rise of the centre of mass. The centre of mass rises from 00 to L/2L/2:

W=Mg⋅L2=MgL2W = Mg\cdot\frac{L}{2} = \frac{MgL}{2}

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Which of the following has highest viscosity ? (a) Water (b) Blood (c) Honey (d) Glycerine

Answer

(c) Honey

Honey is far more viscous than water, blood or glycerine at room temperature (roughly several Pa·s for honey against about 1.41.4 Pa·s for glycerine, ≈3\approx 3–4×10−34\times10^{-3} Pa·s for blood and 10−310^{-3} Pa·s for water).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

A wooden block is floating in water contained in a beaker. During the free fall of the beaker, the upthrust on the block will be : (a) Equal to the weight of the block (b) Slightly more than the weight of one block (c) Slightly less than the weight of the block (d) Zero.

Answer

(d) Zero

In free fall the beaker and water have acceleration gg, so the effective gravity inside is zero. Upthrust =ρVgeff=0=\rho V g_{\text{eff}} = 0, so the block does not float in any real sense.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

The power of concave lens is (a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Can't say (d) None of the above

Answer

(b) Negative

A concave lens is diverging, so its focal length is negative and its power P=1fP=\dfrac{1}{f} is negative (in dioptres).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

If nn number of resistor having equal resistance RR is connected in parallel then equivalent resistance will be (a) nRnR (b) nR\frac nR (c) Rn\frac Rn (d) None

Answer

(c) Rn\frac Rn

For parallel connection 1Req=1R+1R+⋯(n times)=nR\dfrac{1}{R_{eq}}=\dfrac{1}{R}+\dfrac{1}{R}+\cdots(n\text{ times})=\dfrac nR, so Req=RnR_{eq}=\dfrac Rn.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

The ratio of the size of image to the size of the object of an any optical instruments is called (a) Power (b) Magnification (c) Focal length (d) Radius of curvature

Answer

(b) Magnification

Magnification m=size of imagesize of object=hihom=\dfrac{\text{size of image}}{\text{size of object}}=\dfrac{h_i}{h_o}.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Cathode ray are called (a) Beam of electron (b) Beam of proton (c) Electromagnetic wave (d) None

Answer

(a) Beam of electron

Cathode rays are streams of negatively charged particles (electrons) emitted from the cathode of a discharge tube; they are deflected by electric and magnetic fields towards the positive side.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Metals are conductive in nature because of (a) Free electron (b) Collision of electron (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None

Answer

(a) Free electron

Metals have a sea of free (delocalised) valence electrons that move easily under an applied potential difference, which gives high electrical conductivity. Collisions only cause resistance.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

An electron microscope employs which of the following principles ? (a) Electrons have wave natures (b) Electrons can be focused by electric field (c) Electrons can be focused by magnetic field (d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

An electron microscope works because electrons have wave nature (de Broglie wavelength λ=h/mv\lambda=h/mv is very small, giving high resolution) and because electron beams can be focused by electric and magnetic fields acting as lenses.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not intensive property of matter ? (a) Temperature (b) Density (c) Viscosity (d) Mass

Answer

(d) Mass

Intensive properties (temperature, density, viscosity) do not depend on the amount of matter. Mass depends on the amount, so it is an extensive property.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

How many molecules are present in 1 gm of H2_2 ? (a) 6.02×10236.02\times10^{23} (b) 3.01×10233.01\times10^{23} (c) 2.5×10232.5\times10^{23} (d) 1.5×10231.5\times10^{23}

Answer

(b) 3.01×10233.01\times10^{23}

Molar mass of H2_2 is 22 g/mol, so 11 g =0.5=0.5 mol.

N=0.5×6.02×1023=3.01×1023N=0.5\times6.02\times10^{23}=3.01\times10^{23}

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Which of the following compound is a Lewis base ? (a) NaOH (b) PH3_3 (c) Na2_2CO3_3 (d) NH4_4OH

Answer

(b) PH3_3

A Lewis base is an electron-pair donor. PH3_3 is a molecule with a lone pair on phosphorus that it can donate. The other options are ionic or Arrhenius-type bases.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

The absorption of hydrogen by metals is called .... (a) Dehydrogenation (b) Hydrogenation (c) Occlusion (d) Adsorption

Answer

(c) Occlusion

The absorption of hydrogen gas by metals such as palladium, platinum and nickel is called occlusion. Adsorption is only a surface phenomenon.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Highest electron affinity is shown by: (a) F (b) Cl (c) I (d) Br

Answer

(b) Cl

Chlorine has the highest electron affinity in the periodic table. Fluorine is smaller, and the strong electron-electron repulsion in its compact 2p2p subshell makes its electron affinity lower than that of Cl.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

The strongest reducing agent is : (a) K (b) Mg (c) Br (d) Al

Answer

(a) K

Reducing power rises with the ease of losing electrons. Potassium has the lowest ionisation energy and the most negative standard electrode potential (−2.93-2.93 V) among the options, so it is the strongest reducing agent.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

The number of element in fifth period of periodic table is : (a) 8 (b) 32 (c) 18 (d) 19

Answer

(c) 18

The fifth period starts at Rb (Z=37Z=37) and ends at Xe (Z=54Z=54), filling 5s5s, 4d4d and 5p5p: 2+10+6=182+10+6=18 elements.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Energy of e is given by : (a) Spin quantum number (b) Azimuthal quantum number (c) Magnetic quantum number (d) Principle quantum number

Answer

(d) Principle quantum number

The energy of an electron in an atom is determined mainly by the principal quantum number nn; for hydrogen-like species En=−13.6Z2n2E_n=-\dfrac{13.6Z^2}{n^2} eV.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

The character of hydrogen which is different from halogen is : (a) Ionization energy (b) Electropositive nature (c) Electronegativity (d) Reaction with alkali metals

Answer

(b) Electropositive nature

Hydrogen is electropositive and readily forms H+H^+, whereas halogens are strongly electronegative and form negative ions. Hydrogen resembles halogens in other ways, such as forming diatomic molecules and forming hydrides with alkali metals.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Sulphuric acid has: (a) Only covalent bond (b) Covalent and ionic bond (c) Covalent and co-ordinate bond (d) Covalent, ionic and co-ordinate bonds

Answer

(c) Covalent and co-ordinate bond

In H2_2SO4_4, S is bonded to two OH groups by covalent bonds and to two O atoms by co-ordinate (dative) bonds, S→OS\rightarrow O. There is no ionic bond in the molecule.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

The waste material present in an ore is called : (a) Flux (b) Alloy (c) Gangue (d) Slag

Answer

(c) Gangue

The earthy impurities such as sand and clay present in an ore are called gangue. Flux is added to remove gangue, forming slag.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

During blood clotting which is used ? (a) CO (b) Ca (c) Na (d) Cl

Answer

(b) Ca

Calcium ions (Ca2+Ca^{2+}) are needed in the blood clotting cascade, helping convert prothrombin to thrombin.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Vapour density of a gas is 22. Its molecular weight will be : (a) 33 (b) 22 (c) 44 (d) 11

Answer

(c) 44

Molecular weight=2×vapour density=2×22=44\text{Molecular weight}=2\times\text{vapour density}=2\times22=44

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Haber's process used in the manufacture of : (a) NH3_3 (b) H2_2SO4_4 (c) NaOH (d) NaCl

Answer

(a) NH3_3

The Haber process combines nitrogen and hydrogen over an iron catalyst at high pressure and about 450–500 °C: N2+3H2⇌2NH3N_2+3H_2\rightleftharpoons 2NH_3.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Total no. of solid elements in the periodic table is : (a) 98 (b) 118 (c) 89 (d) 112

Answer

(a) 98

Of the 118 known elements, the gases (11) and liquids (Hg, Br) are not solids, and several synthetic superheavy elements have no established solid state. The nearest valid option is 98.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Study of structural organization of living beings is : (a) Teratology (b) Tectology (c) Tricology (d) Lepidopterology

Answer

(b) Tectology

Tectology is the study of the structural organization of living beings. Teratology deals with malformations, tricology with hair, and lepidopterology with butterflies and moths.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Botanical name of kapur /Camphor is: (a) Cinnamomum (b) Ocimium (c) Cannabis (d) Aloe vera

Answer

(a) Cinnamomum

Camphor is obtained from Cinnamomum camphora. Ocimum is basil (tulsi), Cannabis is hemp, and aloe vera is a succulent medicinal plant.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Chemical messenger are : (a) Enzymes (b) Hormones (c) Vitamins (d) None

Answer

(b) Hormones

Hormones are chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands into the blood, and they act on target cells or organs. Enzymes are biological catalysts and vitamins are accessory nutrients.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Fat is stored in: (a) Camel hump (b) Blubber of whale (c) Panniculus adiposus (d) All

Answer

(d) All

Fat is stored as reserve food in the camel hump, in the blubber of whales and in the subcutaneous fatty layer (panniculus adiposus) of mammals.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Ammonia is not used as : (a) An anesthesia (b) In medicine (c) In cold storage (d) For preparation of artificial silk

Answer

(a) An anesthesia

Ammonia is used in medicine (e.g. smelling salts), in cold storage as a refrigerant, and in making artificial silk and fertilizers. It is not used as an anesthetic.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Mitosis can occur in : (a) Haploid cells only (b) Diploid cells only (c) Both haploid and diploid cells (d) Pollen mother cells

Answer

(c) Both haploid and diploid cells

Mitosis is equational division and occurs in both haploid cells (e.g. gametophyte cells, male honeybee cells) and diploid cells (body cells). Pollen mother cells divide by meiosis.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Blind spot is present in : (a) Ear (b) Nose (c) Retina (d) Cornea

Answer

(c) Retina

The blind spot is the point where the optic nerve leaves the eye. It has no rods or cones, so it cannot detect light.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Largest gland of the body is : (a) Liver (b) Pancreas (c) Pituitary (d) Thyroid

Answer

(a) Liver

The liver is the largest gland of the human body, weighing about 1.2–1.5 kg. The pancreas is the second largest of the digestive glands.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Viruses are considered to be : (a) Living organisms (b) Non - living (c) Transitional group between living and non living (d) Living organism with lost power

Answer

(c) Transitional group between living and non living

Viruses are non-living outside a host cell (they can be crystallised and show no metabolism), but they multiply and show heredity inside a living host cell. So they form a link between living and non-living.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Green plants form : (a) 1st trophic level (b) 2nd trophic level (c) 3rd trophic level (d) complete food chain

Answer

(a) 1st trophic level

Green plants are producers. They make food by photosynthesis and form the first trophic level of every food chain.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Process of blood formation is : (a) Plasmolysis (b) Haemolysis (c) Haemopoiesis (d) None

Answer

(c) Haemopoiesis

Haemopoiesis (haematopoiesis) is the formation of blood cells, mainly in red bone marrow in adults. Plasmolysis is shrinkage of a plant cell protoplast, and haemolysis is the bursting of red blood cells.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Afforestation should be with : (a) Exotic species (b) Indigenous species (c) Bamboos (d) Eucalyptus

Answer

(b) Indigenous species

Native species are adapted to local soil and climate, support local biodiversity and do not upset the ecosystem. Exotic species such as eucalyptus can deplete groundwater and harm native flora.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Typhoid is disease in which there is infection of: (a) Large intestine (b) Small intestine (c) Stomach (d) Large intestine

Answer

(b) Small intestine

Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi, which infects the small intestine (Peyer's patches). It spreads through contaminated food and water, and the Widal test is used for diagnosis.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Flying mammal is : (a) Bat (b) Ostrich (c) Kiwi (d) Penguin

Answer

(a) Bat

The bat is the only mammal capable of true flight, using wings of skin stretched over elongated fingers. Ostrich, kiwi and penguin are flightless birds.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

In plants water ascends by means of : (a) Xylem (b) Phloem (c) Pith (d) Stele

Answer

(a) Xylem

Xylem vessels and tracheids conduct water and minerals upward from roots to leaves. Phloem conducts the prepared food.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Spraying DDT on crops produce pollution of: (a) Air (b) Air and soil (c) Air, water and soil (d) None

Answer

(c) Air, water and soil

DDT sprayed on crops drifts in the air, settles on soil, and is washed by rain into water bodies. It persists and accumulates along food chains (biomagnification).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

A baby has been born with tail. It is case exhibiting : (a) Mutation (b) Atavism (c) Metamorphism (d) Retrogressive evolution

Answer

(b) Atavism

Atavism is the reappearance of an ancestral character that was lost in the course of evolution, such as a human baby born with a tail. It is evidence of organic evolution.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Anaerobic respirators is also called : (a) Respiration (b) Fragmentation (c) Multiplication (d) Fermentation

Answer

(d) Fermentation

Anaerobic respiration takes place without oxygen and is called fermentation, e.g. yeast converts glucose to ethanol and CO2_2.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Absence of Thumb is feature of : (a) Man (b) Frog (c) Rabbit (d) Monkey

Answer

(b) Frog

The frog's forelimb has four digits and no thumb. Humans, monkeys and rabbits have thumbs; the thumb is opposable in man and monkey.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 5 · 1 mark

Instruction for reproduction are stored in: (a) DNA (b) RNA (c) Proteins (d) Carbohydrates

Answer

(a) DNA

DNA is the genetic material. It carries the hereditary instructions for protein synthesis and for passing characters from parents to offspring.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Physical quantities are (a) quantities such as degrees, radians and steradians (b) quantities such as length, mass, time, electric current, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity (c) quantities such as pounds, dollars and rupees (d) quantities such as kilos, pounds and gallons

Answer

(b) quantities such as length, mass, time, electric current, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity

These are the seven base physical quantities of the SI system. Degrees and radians are units of angle, and pounds, dollars, rupees, kilos and gallons are units or currencies, not physical quantities.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

The dimensions of kinetic energy is (a) [M2L2T][M^2L^2T] (b) [ML2T][ML^2T] (c) [ML2T−2][ML^2T^{-2}] (d) [ML2T−1][ML^2T^{-1}]

Answer

(c) [ML2T−2][ML^2T^{-2}]

Kinetic energy is 12mv2\tfrac12 mv^2, so its dimensions are [M][LT−1]2=[ML2T−2][M][LT^{-1}]^2=[ML^2T^{-2}].

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Angular momentum is (a) A scalar vector (b) An axial-vector (c) A polar vector (d) A displacement vector

Answer

(b) An axial-vector

Angular momentum L⃗=r⃗×p⃗\vec L=\vec r\times\vec p is a cross product, and its direction is along the axis of rotation (given by the right-hand rule). Such quantities are axial vectors.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a scalar quantity? (a) Acceleration (b) Electric Field (c) Work (d) Displacement

Answer

(c) Work

Work is W=F⃗⋅s⃗W=\vec F\cdot\vec s, a dot product, so it has magnitude only. Acceleration, electric field and displacement are vectors.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of the moon would (a) have same velocities at any instant (b) have different acceleration (c) experience forces of same magnitude (d) undergo a change in their inertia

Answer

(a) have same velocities at any instant

On the moon all freely falling bodies have the same acceleration gmg_m regardless of mass, so starting from rest they have the same velocity v=gmtv=g_mt at any instant. Their weights (mgmmg_m) differ, and inertia (mass) does not change.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Friction is a (a) non-contact force (b) contact force (c) magnetic force (d) electrostatic force

Answer

(b) contact force

Friction arises from the interaction of two surfaces in contact and acts along the surface opposing relative motion.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is incident on it? (a) Concave mirror as well as convex lens (b) Convex mirror as well as concave lens (c) Two plane mirrors placed at 90∘90^\circ to each other (d) Concave mirror as well as concave lens

Answer

(a) Concave mirror as well as convex lens

A point source placed at the focus of a concave mirror or of a convex lens gives a parallel emergent beam. Convex mirrors and concave lenses always diverge light, and two plane mirrors at 90∘90^\circ do not collimate it.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

In going from a denser to rarer medium a ray of light is (a) Undeviated (b) Bent away from the normal (c) Bent towards the normal (d) polarised

Answer

(b) Bent away from the normal

Going from a denser to a rarer medium the speed of light increases, so by Snell's law the ray bends away from the normal.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Magnifying power of a simple microscope (a) Increases with increase in focal length (b) Increases with the decrease in focal length (c) No effect with decrease or increase with the focal length (d) Least distance of distinct vision

Answer

(b) Increases with the decrease in focal length

For a simple microscope, M=1+DfM=1+\dfrac{D}{f}, where DD is the least distance of distinct vision. A smaller ff gives a larger magnifying power.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a reliable measure? (a) Hotness (b) Coldness (c) Temperature (d) None of these

Answer

(c) Temperature

Hotness and coldness are subjective sensations that depend on the observer, whereas temperature is an objective, measurable quantity.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Which one is filled in the bulb of a thermometer? (a) Mercury (b) Lead (c) Copper (d) Silver

Answer

(a) Mercury

Mercury is used because it expands uniformly, does not wet glass, is opaque and shiny so it is easy to read, and has a wide liquid range with good conductivity.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Heat from the sun reaches to us by (a) radiation (b) conduction (c) convection (d) all of these

Answer

(a) radiation

Between the sun and the earth there is mostly vacuum, so heat cannot travel by conduction or convection. It reaches us as electromagnetic radiation, which needs no medium.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Gas laws are applicable to........ (a) Gases as well as vapours. (b) Gases alone and not to vapours. (c) Gases and steam. (d) Gases and vapours under certain conditions.

Answer

(d) Gases and vapours under certain conditions.

Gas laws hold exactly only for an ideal gas, and real gases and vapours obey them approximately at high temperature and low pressure, well away from condensation.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

A boy records that 4000 joule of work is required to transfer 10 coulomb of charge between two points of a resistor of 50 Ω\Omega. The current passing through it is (a) 2 A (b) 4 A (c) 8 A (d) 16 A

Answer

(c) 8 A

Work W=QVW=QV, so V=400010=400 VV=\dfrac{4000}{10}=400\ \text{V}. Then by Ohm's law I=VR=40050=8 A.I=\frac{V}{R}=\frac{400}{50}=8\ \text{A}.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Two devices are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The physical quantity that will remain the same between the two points is (a) current (b) voltage (c) resistance (d) None of these

Answer

(b) voltage

Devices in parallel are connected across the same two points, so they share the same potential difference. The current divides among them and the resistances are generally different.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Name the law that states the force between electric charges (a) Ohm's law (b) Coulomb's law (c) Faraday's law (d) Ampere's law

Answer

(b) Coulomb's law

Coulomb's law gives the force between two point charges: =k\dfrac{q_1q_2}{r^2}$. Ohm's law relates voltage and current, Faraday's law concerns induced emf, and Ampere's law concerns magnetic fields due to currents.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet: (a) do not exist (b) depends on area of cross-section of bar magnet (c) are from N-pole to S-pole of the magnet (d) are from S-pole to N-pole of the magnet.

Answer

(d) are from S-pole to N-pole of the magnet.

Magnetic field lines form closed loops. Outside the magnet they run from N to S, so inside the magnet they must run from S to N to complete the loop.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

S.I. unit of flux is : (a) Ohm (b) Weber (c) Tesla (d) None

Answer

(b) Weber

Magnetic flux is ϕ=BA\phi=BA, with unit tesla ×\times metre2^2, which is called the weber (Wb). Ohm is the unit of resistance and tesla is the unit of magnetic flux density.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

The number of electrons that pass per second through a section of wire carrying 1A current is : (a) 1.6×10−191.6\times10^{-19} (b) 0.25×10180.25\times10^{18} (c) 3.41×1093.41\times10^{9} (d) 9.97×10169.97\times10^{16}

Answer

*(b) /bin/bash.25\times10^{18}

Number of electrons per second =\dfrac{I}{e}=\dfrac{1}{1.6\times10^{-19}}=6.25\times10^{18}.Option(b)istheonlyoneoftheorder018. Option (b) is the only one of the order 0^{18} with the digits .25.25, so it is the intended choice (a misprint of .25\times10^{18}$).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Heavy water freezes at : (a) 0∘0^\circC (b) 3.8∘3.8^\circC (c) 38∘38^\circC (d) −0.38∘-0.38^\circC

Answer

(b) .8^\circ

Heavy water (D) has a freezing point of .8^\circ, higher than the /bin/bash^\circ of ordinary water.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

With the increase in atomic weights, melting points of the alkali metals : (a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain constant (d) Do not show definite trend

Answer

(b) Decrease

Down the alkali metal group, atomic size increases and metallic bonding weakens, so melting points fall (Li 80^\circ, Na 8^\circ, K 3^\circ, Rb 9^\circ, Cs 8^\circ).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

When washing soda is heated : (a) CO is released (b) CO + CO2_2 is released (c) CO2_2 is released (d) Water vapour is released

Answer

(d) Water vapour is released

Washing soda, Na\cdot10, loses its water of crystallisation on heating: 29925\mathrm{Na_2CO_3\cdot10H_2O\xrightarrow{\Delta}Na_2CO_3+10H_2O}29925 Sodium carbonate is stable to heat, so no CO or CO$ is given off.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Functional group of ester is (a) -OH (b) -COOH (c) -COOR (d) None

Answer

(c) -COOR

An ester has the functional group hmtBc\mathrm{COOR}(R−CO−O−R′).hmtBcOH (R-CO-O-R'). hmtBc\mathrm{OH} is alcohol and hmtBc\mathrm{COOH}$ is carboxylic acid.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Red lead is : (a) PbO (b) PbO2_2 (c) Pb3_3O4_4 (d) Pb2_2O3_3

Answer

*(c) Pb

Red lead (minium) is Pb,i.e.PbO⋅PbO2, i.e. \mathrm{PbO}\cdot\mathrm{PbO_2}.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Who discovered hydrogen : (a) Lavioser (b) Dalton (c) Bosch (d) Henry Cavendish

Answer

(d) Henry Cavendish

Henry Cavendish discovered hydrogen in 1766 (he called it inflammable air); Lavoisier later named it hydrogen.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Which one is diatomic ? (a) H2_2O (b) NH3_3 (c) O3_3 (d) HCl

Answer

(d) HCl

A diatomic molecule contains two atoms. HCl has two atoms, H has three, NHhasfourandO has four and O has three.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

The gas X diffuses four times slower than hydrogen under similar conditions. Determine the molecular weight of the gas X. (a) 16 (b) 8 (c) 32 (d) 24

Answer

(c) 32

By Graham's law, rH2rX=MXMH2\dfrac{r_{H_2}}{r_X}=\sqrt{\dfrac{M_X}{M_{H_2}}}.

299254=\sqrt{\frac{M_X}{2}};\Rightarrow;M_X=16\times2=3229925

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Which out of the following is the weakest base ? (a) NaOH (b) Ca(OH)2_2 (c) KOH (d) Zn(OH)2_2

Answer

*(d) Zn(OH)

NaOH, KOH and Ca(OH)arestrongbases(alkaliandalkaline−earthhydroxides).Zn(OH) are strong bases (alkali and alkaline-earth hydroxides). Zn(OH) is amphoteric and only weakly basic.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

What is the chemical formula of epsom salt ? (a) CuSO4_4.5H2_2O (b) (NH4_4)2_2SO4_4.Al2_2(SO4_4)3_3.6H2_2O (c) FeSO4_4.7H2_2O (d) MgSO4_4.7H2_2O

Answer

(d) MgSO$.7H

Epsom salt is hydrated magnesium sulphate, MgSO\cdot7. CuSO\cdot5 is blue vitriol, FeSO\cdot7 is green vitriol and the double sulphate in (b) is ammonium alum.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Ordinary O2_2 contains : (a) Only O-16 isotope (b) Only O-17 isotope (c) Mixture of O-16 and O-18 (d) Mixture of O-16, O-17, and O-18

Answer

(d) Mixture of O-16, O-17, and O-18

Natural oxygen consists of three stable isotopes: O-16 (about 99.76%), O-17 (about 0.04%) and O-18 (about 0.20%).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Pseudohalogen is : (a) F2_2 (b) Cl2_2 (c) Br2_2 (d) (CN)2_2

Answer

*(d) (CN)

Cyanogen, (CN),behaveslikeahalogen(formsCN, behaves like a halogen (forms CN^-ions,likehalideions,andaddstoalkenes),soitisapseudohalogen.F ions, like halide ions, and adds to alkenes), so it is a pseudohalogen. F, ClandBr and Br are true halogens.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Science of diversity of organism is : (a) Taxonomy (b) Systematics (c) Evolution (d) Paleontology

Answer

(b) Systematics

Systematics is the science of the diversity of organisms and their evolutionary relationships. Taxonomy deals with identification, naming and classification.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Gland which is mixed type ? (a) Adrenal (b) Pancreas (c) Thyroid (d) Pituitary

Answer

(b) Pancreas

The pancreas is a mixed gland: its endocrine part (islets of Langerhans) secretes insulin and glucagon, and its exocrine part secretes digestive juice through the pancreatic duct. Adrenal, thyroid and pituitary are purely endocrine.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Nitrogen cycle is : (a) Biogeochemical cycle (b) Chemical cycle (c) Biological cycle (d) Geological cycle

Answer

(a) Biogeochemical cycle

The nitrogen cycle moves nitrogen between living organisms (biotic) and the air, soil and water (abiotic), so it is a biogeochemical cycle.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Urine formation occurs in : (a) Liver (b) Kidney (c) Spleen (d) Heart

Answer

(b) Kidney

Urine is formed in the nephrons of the kidney by glomerular filtration, selective reabsorption and tubular secretion.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Sudden and abnormal mitosis in an organ shall produce : (a) New organ (b) Allergy (c) Cancer (d) HIV

Answer

(c) Cancer

Uncontrolled, abnormal mitotic division of cells forms a mass of cells called a tumour, which in malignant form is cancer.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Ascaris lumbricoides is also known as (a) Round worm (b) Hookworm (c) Pinworm (d) Whipworm

Answer

(a) Round worm

Ascaris lumbricoides is the common roundworm, an intestinal parasite of humans belonging to phylum Nematoda.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

How many does of DPT and Polio vaccine should be given to children. (a) 2 dose (b) 3 dose (c) 4 dose (d) 5 dose

Answer

(b) 3 dose

DPT (DPT-HepB-Hib) and polio vaccines are each given in 3 doses in the childhood immunisation schedule, at 6, 10 and 14 weeks.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Deficiency of protein in children cause. (a) Beri Beri (b) Scurvy (c) Kwashiorkor (d) Xerophthalmia

Answer

(c) Kwashiorkor

Kwashiorkor is the disease of severe protein deficiency in children (swollen belly, oedema, thin limbs). Beri Beri is due to vitamin B1_1, scurvy to vitamin C and xerophthalmia to vitamin A deficiency.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Which structure connects bone with bone ? (a) joint (b) ligament (c) tendon (d) bone

Answer

(b) ligament

A ligament is a tough fibrous connective tissue joining bone to bone at a joint. A tendon joins muscle to bone.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Who discovered living cell ? (a) Robert Hooke (b) A.V. Leeuwenhoek (c) Louis Pasteur (d) Aristotle

Answer

(b) A.V. Leeuwenhoek

Leeuwenhoek first observed living cells (protozoa, bacteria, sperm) with his simple microscope. Robert Hooke discovered the cell in 1665 from dead cork tissue.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Genetic material in viruses is : (a) Only DNA (b) Only RNA (c) Either DNA or RNA (d) DNA and RNA

Answer

(c) Either DNA or RNA

A virus has only one type of nucleic acid. Some viruses (e.g. bacteriophage) have DNA, others (e.g. HIV, influenza virus) have RNA, but never both in the same virus.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Green house effect refers to : (a) Cooling of the earth (b) Trapping of UV rays (c) Production of Cereals (d) Warming of the earth

Answer

(d) Warming of the earth

Gases such as CO2_2, CH4_4 and N2_2O trap the heat radiated back from the earth, raising the temperature of the lower atmosphere.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Starch is a polymer of : (a) Fructose (b) Glucose (c) Lactose (d) None

Answer

(b) Glucose

Starch is a polysaccharide made of many glucose units joined by α\alpha-glycosidic bonds.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Air pollution affects : (a) Leaves (b) Roots (c) Stem (d) Placenta

Answer

(a) Leaves

Pollutants such as SO2_2 and ozone enter through the stomata and damage the leaves (chlorosis, necrosis, reduced photosynthesis).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Biological name of Humans is : (a) Homo (b) Homo sapiens (c) Homo sapiens sapiens (d) None

Answer

(b) Homo sapiens

The binomial name of human beings is Homo sapiens (genus Homo, species sapiens). Modern humans are sometimes written as the subspecies Homo sapiens sapiens.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

A prokaryote cell lacks : (a) Nuclear membrane (b) Nucleolus (c) Membrane bounded organellels (d) All

Answer

(d) All

A prokaryotic cell has no nuclear membrane, no nucleolus and no membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria, ER or Golgi bodies; its DNA lies free in the nucleoid.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Sex organs is Bryophytes are : (a) Unicellular and jacketed (b) Unicellular and non jacketed (c) Multicellular and jacketed (d) Multicellular and non - jaceted

Answer

(c) Multicellular and jacketed

In bryophytes the antheridia (male) and archegonia (female) are multicellular and surrounded by a protective jacket of sterile cells.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

American sleeping sickness is caused by (a) Entamoeba (b) Trypanosoma (c) Leishmania (d) None

Answer

(b) Trypanosoma

American sleeping sickness (Chagas disease) is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi, spread by the reduviid (kissing) bug. African sleeping sickness is caused by T. gambiense/T. rhodesiense.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 10 · 1 mark

Life cannot originate now because of (a) High CO2_2 content of atmosphere (b) High nitrogen content (c) Low oxygen content of atmosphere (d) High oxygen content of atmosphere

Answer

(d) High oxygen content of atmosphere

The early atmosphere was reducing (no free O2_2). Today free oxygen would oxidise the simple organic molecules formed, so chemical evolution of life cannot occur again.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Displacement is a ..............quantity. (a) scaler (b) vector (c) tensor (d) none of the above

Answer

(b) vector

Displacement has both magnitude and direction (the shortest straight line from initial to final position), so it is a vector.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

A steel tape gives the correct measurement at 20∘20^\circC. A piece of wood is measured with the steel tape at 0∘0^\circC. The reading is 25 cm on the tape. The real length of the given piece of wood must be: (a) 25 cm (b) less than 25 cm (c) more than 25 cm (d) Cannot say

Answer

(b) less than 25 cm

The steel tape is calibrated at 20∘20^\circC. At 0∘0^\circC it contracts, so its divisions are slightly shorter than their marked values. A length that reads 25 divisions is therefore actually 25(1−α ΔT)<2525(1-\alpha\,\Delta T)<25 cm.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The displacement SS of a particle along a straight line at time tt is given S=a+bt+ct2S=a+bt+ct^2. The acceleration of the particle is: (a) aa (b) bb (c) 2b2b (d) 2c2c

Answer

(d) 2c2c

v=dSdt=b+2ct,a=dvdt=2cv=\frac{dS}{dt}=b+2ct,\qquad a=\frac{dv}{dt}=2c

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

A man of weight 60 kg takes a body of mass 15 kg at a height of 10 m on a building in 3 minutes. The efficiency of the man is: (a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 40%

Answer

(b) 20%

Useful work is the work done in raising the body: 15g×1015g\times10. The man must lift his own weight as well as the body, so the total work is (60+15)g×10(60+15)g\times10.

η=1560+15×100%=20%\eta=\frac{15}{60+15}\times100\%=20\%

(The time of 3 minutes is not needed for efficiency.)

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

A man is sitting on a boat which is floating in water in a pond. If the man drinks some water from the pond, the level of water in the pond: (a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Remains unchanged (d) May increase or decrease

Answer

(c) Remains unchanged

The man and boat float, so the water displaced equals their total weight. When the man drinks a mass mm of water, the pond loses volume m/ρm/\rho, but the boat-plus-man (heavier by mm) displaces exactly m/ρm/\rho more water. The total volume below the surface is unchanged, so the level stays the same.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

A difference of temperature of 25∘25^\circC is equivalent to: (a) 45∘45^\circF (b) 72∘72^\circF (c) 32∘32^\circF (d) 25∘25^\circF

Answer

(a) 45∘45^\circF

A temperature difference scales by 95\frac95 between the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales (the +32+32 cancels in a difference):

ΔF=95×25=45∘F\Delta F=\frac95\times25=45^\circ\text{F}

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

50 gram of benzene occupies: (a) More volume in summer than in winter (b) Equal volume in summer than in winter (c) Less volume in summer than in winter (d) Equal volume always

Answer

(a) More volume in summer than in winter

The mass is fixed at 50 g, but benzene expands on heating, so its density falls and the same mass occupies a larger volume in the warmer season.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Angle of deviation caused by a prism is least for: (a) Violet colour (b) Red colour (c) Yellow colour (d) Same for all colours

Answer

(b) Red colour

The refractive index of glass is smallest for red light, so red bends least and has the least deviation. Violet has the largest refractive index and the greatest deviation.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Earth's magnetic field always has a horizontal component except at: (a) Equator (b) Magnetic pole (c) At latitude 60∘60^\circ (d) at latitude 45∘45^\circ

Answer

(b) Magnetic pole

The horizontal component is H=Bcos⁡δH=B\cos\delta, where δ\delta is the angle of dip. At the magnetic poles δ=90∘\delta=90^\circ, so H=0H=0. At the equator δ=0∘\delta=0^\circ and HH is maximum.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

If a⃗\vec a and b⃗\vec b are perpendicular to each other then dot product will be. (a) Zero (b) 1 (c) Maximum (d) Minimum

Answer

(a) Zero

a⃗⋅b⃗=abcos⁡θ\vec a\cdot\vec b=ab\cos\theta. For perpendicular vectors θ=90∘\theta=90^\circ, so cos⁡θ=0\cos\theta=0 and the dot product is zero.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

A particle experiences a constant force for time 2T2T seconds after starting from rest. It travels a distance S1S_1 in first TT seconds and a distance S2S_2 in next TT seconds. Then: (a) S1=S2S_1=S_2 (b) S2=2S1S_2=2S_1 (c) S2=3S1S_2=3S_1 (d) S2=4S1S_2=4S_1

Answer

(c) S2=3S1S_2=3S_1

From rest with constant acceleration aa:

S1=12aT2,S1+S2=12a(2T)2=2aT2S_1=\tfrac12aT^2,\qquad S_1+S_2=\tfrac12a(2T)^2=2aT^2

So S2=2aT2−12aT2=32aT2=3S1S_2=2aT^2-\tfrac12aT^2=\tfrac32aT^2=3S_1.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

A parrot sitting on the floor of a wire cage which is being carried by a boy starts flying. The boy will feel that the box is: (a) Lighter (b) Heavier (c) No change (d) Nothing

Answer

(a) Lighter

A flying parrot stays up by pushing air downward. In a wire (open) cage this air passes through the wires and escapes, so the cage does not receive the parrot full weight as a downward force. The boy therefore feels the cage lighter than when the parrot was standing on its floor.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The image of an object formed by a device is always virtual and small. The device may be: (a) Convex lens (b) Concave mirror (c) A glass plate (d) Convex mirror

Answer

(d) Convex mirror

A convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image for any real object. A convex lens and a concave mirror can form real or enlarged images, and a glass plate forms an image of the same size.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

In desert, mirage is observed because: (a) Refractive index of air decreases with height (b) Refractive index of air increases with height (c) both (d) none of the above

Answer

(b) Refractive index of air increases with height

In a desert the air near the ground is very hot and less dense, so its refractive index is lower and increases with height. Light from the sky travelling downward goes from denser to rarer layers, is bent away from the normal, and undergoes total internal reflection, so it appears to come from below and forms a mirage.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Electromagnetic radiation with minimum wavelengths is: (a) Infrared (b) Cosmic rays (c) X-rays (d) Ultraviolet

Answer

(b) Cosmic rays

In order of increasing wavelength: cosmic rays (shortest), gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet, visible, infrared. So cosmic rays have the minimum wavelength among the options.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Grass appears green because of: (a) Grass absorbs green colour only & reflects all others (b) Grass transmits green colour only and absorbs all others (c) Grass reflects green colour only and absorbs all others (d) Glass reflects all colour equally, but our eye is most sensitive to green colour

Answer

(c) Grass reflects green colour only and absorbs all others

An opaque object has the colour of the light it reflects (scatters). Grass reflects green light and absorbs the other colours, so it looks green.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Sweetness of a sound depends upon its: (a) Wavelength (b) Frequency (c) Amplitude (d) Periodicity and regularity

Answer

(d) Periodicity and regularity

Sweetness (musical quality) of a sound depends on its waveform: a regular, periodic wave with harmonics in proper relation sounds pleasant, while irregular, non-periodic waves are noise. Frequency determines pitch and amplitude determines loudness.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The number of images formed by two plane mirrors inclined at an angle 60∘60^\circ will be (a) 13 (b) 11 (c) 6 (d) 5

Answer

(d) 5

n=360∘θ−1=360∘60∘−1=6−1=5n=\frac{360^\circ}{\theta}-1=\frac{360^\circ}{60^\circ}-1=6-1=5

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

At what angle does a driver see the setting sun? (a) at 49∘49^\circ to the horizon (b) at 90∘90^\circ to the horizon (c) at 41∘41^\circ to the horizon (d) at 60∘60^\circ to the horizon

Answer

(c) at 41∘41^\circ to the horizon

The sun at the horizon sends light at grazing incidence (90∘90^\circ) onto the water surface. In water (μ=43\mu=\frac43) the refraction angle is the critical angle:

sin⁡r=sin⁡90∘4/3=0.75⇒r≈49∘\sin r=\frac{\sin90^\circ}{4/3}=0.75\Rightarrow r\approx49^\circ

This is measured from the normal, so the setting sun appears at 90∘−49∘≈41∘90^\circ-49^\circ\approx41^\circ to the horizon (as seen by an observer under water).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The rainbow is produced by: (a) Refraction of light only (b) Total internal reflection only (c) Diffraction of light (d) Both (a) & (b)

Answer

(d) Both (a) & (b)

A rainbow forms when sunlight is refracted (and dispersed) on entering a raindrop, totally internally reflected inside it, and refracted again on leaving.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following is the electronic configuration of a noble gas? (a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p51s^2\,2s^2\,2p^6\,3s^2\,3p^5 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s11s^2\,2s^2\,2p^6\,3s^1 (c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p61s^2\,2s^2\,2p^6\,3s^2\,3p^6 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s21s^2\,2s^2\,2p^6\,3s^2

Answer

(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p61s^2\,2s^2\,2p^6\,3s^2\,3p^6

This is argon (Z = 18) with a completely filled valence shell of 8 electrons (3s23p63s^2 3p^6), the stable octet of a noble gas.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The king of chemical (a) H2_2SO4_4 (b) HCl (c) HNO3_3 (d) None of the above.

Answer

(a) H2_2SO4_4

Sulphuric acid is called the king of chemicals because of its enormous use in industry (fertilisers, dyes, explosives, detergents, batteries and petroleum refining).

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Incovalency: (a) The transference of electrons takes place (b) Sharing of electrons take place (c) The electrons are shared by only one atom (d) None of these take place

Answer

(b) Sharing of electrons takes place

Covalency is the number of electrons an atom shares with other atoms to complete its octet, so a covalent bond forms by mutual sharing of electrons. Transfer of electrons is ionic bonding.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

NH3_3 has a much higher B.P. than PH3_3 because: (a) NH3_3 has a larger molecular weight (b) NH3_3 undergoes umbrella inversion (c) NH3_3 forms H-bond (d) NH3_3 contains ionic bonds whereas PH3_3 contains covalent bonds

Answer

(c) NH3_3 forms H-bond

Nitrogen is small and highly electronegative, so NH3_3 molecules are linked by intermolecular hydrogen bonds, which need extra energy to break. Phosphorus is much less electronegative, so PH3_3 has only weak van der Waals forces and a lower boiling point.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The major binding force of diamond, silicon and quartz is: (a) Electrostatic force (b) Electrical attraction (c) Covalent bond force (d) Van der Waal's force

Answer

(c) Covalent bond force

Diamond, silicon and quartz (SiO2_2) are giant covalent (network) solids in which every atom is joined to its neighbours by strong covalent bonds throughout the crystal.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The solubility of a salt in water at 75∘75^\circC is 155. When 80 g of its saturated solution of 75∘75^\circC was cooled to 15∘15^\circC, 40 grams of salt was crystallized out. The solubility of salt at 15∘15^\circC is: (a) 21 (b) 27.5 (c) 155 (d) none

Answer

(b) 27.5

In 80 g of saturated solution at 75∘75^\circC, solubility 155 means 155 g salt per 100 g water, i.e. 255 g solution:

salt=80×155255=48.63 g,water=80−48.63=31.37 g\text{salt}=80\times\frac{155}{255}=48.63\ \text{g},\qquad \text{water}=80-48.63=31.37\ \text{g}

After 40 g crystallises, salt left =48.63−40=8.63=48.63-40=8.63 g in the same 31.37 g water, so at 15∘15^\circC:

S=8.6331.37×100≈27.5S=\frac{8.63}{31.37}\times100\approx 27.5

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

White vitriol is (a) ZnSO4_4.7H2_2O (b) FeSO4_4.7H2_2O (c) CuSO4_4.5H2_2O (d) MgSO4_4.7H2_2O

Answer

(a) ZnSO4⋅_4\cdot7H2_2O

White vitriol is hydrated zinc sulphate. FeSO4⋅_4\cdot7H2_2O is green vitriol and CuSO4⋅_4\cdot5H2_2O is blue vitriol.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Separation of two substances by fractional crystallization depends upon their difference in: (a) Densities (b) Volatility (c) Solubility (d) Crystalline shape

Answer

(c) Solubility

In fractional crystallization, a mixture is dissolved and cooled or evaporated; the less soluble substance crystallises first and the more soluble one stays in solution, so separation depends on the difference in solubility.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The molecular formula of corrosive sublimate is: (a) HgCl2_2 (b) Hg2_2Cl2_2 (c) HgS (d) HgCl

Answer

(a) HgCl2_2

Corrosive sublimate is mercuric chloride, HgCl2_2, a poisonous compound that sublimes on heating. Hg2_2Cl2_2 is calomel.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following element is preserved in water? (a) Phosphorus (b) Na (c) Zn (d) Fe

Answer

(a) Phosphorus

White phosphorus catches fire spontaneously in air at about 35 ∘^\circC, so it is stored under water. Sodium reacts with water, so it is kept under kerosene.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The functional group of amine is: (a) -CO (b) -CONH2_2 (c) -NH2_2 (d) -Cl

Answer

(c) −-NH2_2

The amino group −NH2-\text{NH}_2 is the functional group of amines (e.g. CH3_3NH2_2). −CONH2-\text{CONH}_2 is the amide group.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is a metalloid? (a) C (b) Si (c) Ge (d) Pb

Answer

(b) Si

Silicon is a metalloid: it has properties between those of metals and non-metals, and it is a semiconductor. Carbon is a non-metal and Pb is a metal. Ge is also a metalloid, but Si is the most standard example.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following electronic configurations in the outermost shell is characteristic of alkali metal? (a) (n−1)s2p6ns2p1(n-1)s^2p^6ns^2p^1 (b) (n−1)s2p6d10ns1(n-1)s^2p^6d^{10}ns^1 (c) (n−1)s2p6ns1(n-1)s^2p^6ns^1 (d) ns2p6d1ns^2p^6d^1

Answer

(c) (n−1)s2p6 ns1(n-1)s^2p^6\,ns^1

Alkali metals have a single electron in the outermost s-orbital, preceded by the noble-gas core of the previous shell, e.g. Na: 2s22p63s12s^2 2p^6 3s^1.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The meniscus of mercury in a glass tube is: (a) Plane (b) Convex inwards (c) Convex upward (d) Concave upward

Answer

(c) Convex upward

Cohesion between mercury molecules is greater than adhesion between mercury and glass, so mercury does not wet glass and its surface bulges upward.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Kipps apparatus is used in the laboratory preparation of: (a) H2_2O (b) CO2_2 (c) H2_2S (d) HNO3_3

Answer

(b) CO2_2

Kipp's apparatus gives a regular supply of gas on demand from a solid and a liquid without heating, e.g. CO2_2 from marble chips and dilute HCl:

CaCO3+2HCl→CaCl2+H2O+CO2\text{CaCO}_3+2\text{HCl}\rightarrow\text{CaCl}_2+\text{H}_2\text{O}+\text{CO}_2

(It is also used for H2_2S from FeS and dilute acid.)

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Which part of the brain is associated with voluntary actions and its control? (a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Limbic system (d) Medulla oblongata

Answer

(a) Cerebrum

The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and controls voluntary actions, thinking, memory and intelligence. The cerebellum controls balance and the medulla controls involuntary actions.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Double helical model of DNA is given by: (a) Watson & Crick (b) Sciedian & Schwann (c) Oparin & Haldane (d) Mendel & Bateson

Answer

(a) Watson & Crick

James Watson and Francis Crick proposed the double helix model of DNA in 1953.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Chromosomes can be counted at: (a) Prophase (b) Metaphase (c) Anaphase (d) Telophase

Answer

(b) Metaphase

At metaphase the chromosomes are fully condensed and lined up at the equatorial plate, so they are most clearly visible and best counted.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Pyramid of biomass is inverted in: (a) Pond ecosystem (b) Forest ecosystem (c) Tree ecosystem (d) All of these

Answer

(a) Pond ecosystem

In a pond the producers (phytoplankton) are tiny and multiply fast, so their standing biomass is less than that of the consumers they support. The biomass pyramid is therefore inverted. In a forest it is upright.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

High concentration of CO2_2 around leaf results: (a) Opening of stomata (b) Closing of stomata (c) No effect on stomatal opening (d) None

Answer

(b) Closing of stomata

A high CO2_2 concentration in the leaf makes the guard cells lose turgor, so the stomata close. Low CO2_2 promotes opening.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The only living element of the xylem is: (a) Tracheids (b) Vessels (c) Xylem fibres (d) Xylem parenchyma

Answer

(d) Xylem parenchyma

Tracheids, vessels and xylem fibres are dead at maturity, with lignified walls and no protoplasm. Xylem parenchyma is the only living component of xylem.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The edible part of Apple is: (a) Mesocarp (b) Cotyledon (c) Endocarp (d) Thalamus

Answer

(d) Thalamus

Apple is a false fruit (pome): the fleshy edible part develops from the swollen thalamus (receptacle), while the core is the true fruit.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The fern rhizome is: (a) Root (b) Stem (c) Rhizoid (d) Rhizopore

Answer

(b) Stem

The fern rhizome is a horizontal underground stem. It bears roots and leaves (fronds) at its nodes.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Lichens are the best indicators of: (a) Water pollution (b) Soil pollution (c) Air pollution (d) All of these

Answer

(c) Air pollution

Lichens absorb water and minerals directly from the air and are very sensitive to sulphur dioxide, so they are the best bio-indicators of air pollution.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Animals with metameric segmentation, bilateral symmetry and closed circulatory system belongs to the phylum: (a) Annelida (b) Echinodermata (c) Arthropoda (d) Mollusca

Answer

(a) Annelida

Annelids such as earthworm have a body divided into segments (metamerism), bilateral symmetry and a closed circulatory system.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The cross-section of the trunk showed 50 annual rings. The age of the tree is: (a) 25 years (b) 50 years (c) 50 months (d) 100 years

Answer

(b) 50 years

One annual ring is laid down each year by the vascular cambium, so counting 50 rings gives an age of 50 years.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Insect-pollinated flowers have pollen grains: (a) Light & sticky (b) Hygroscopic (c) Light & rough (d) Heavy & coloured

Answer

(a) Light & sticky

Insect-pollinated flowers produce pollen that is sticky (often with a sticky pollenkitt coat) so that it clings to the insect body. Wind-pollinated flowers have dry, smooth, non-sticky pollen.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Mode of nutrition by killing the host is called: (a) Predation (b) Parasitism (c) Symbiosis (d) Commensalism

Answer

(a) Predation

In predation the predator kills its prey and feeds on it. A parasite normally lives on or in a living host without killing it, so the killing mode of nutrition is predation.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

A fibrous root system is better adapted than a tap root system for: (a) Storage of food (b) Anchorage of plant to soil (c) Absorption of water & minerals (d) Transportation of water & organic food

Answer

(b) Anchorage of plant to soil

A fibrous root system is a dense mat of many thin roots spreading through the topsoil, which holds the soil and anchors the plant firmly, as in grasses and cereals.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following is true nut? (a) Walnut (b) Ground nut (c) Cashew nut (d) Areca nut

Answer

(c) Cashew nut

A true nut is a dry, single-seeded fruit with a hard pericarp that does not open. The cashew fruit is of this type. Groundnut is a legume (pod), and walnut and areca nut are drupe-like fruits.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

If the number of chromosomes in the megaspore mother cell of angiosperm is 16, what would be the number of chromosomes in the endosperm of the same plant? (a) 16 (b) 8 (c) 32 (d) 24

Answer

(d) 24

The megaspore mother cell is diploid, so 2n=162n=16 and n=8n=8. Endosperm is triploid, formed by fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei:

3n=3×8=243n = 3\times 8 = 24

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following statements is not true for bryophytes? (a) They undergo meiosis to produce sporophytes. (b) They lack trachieds & sieve tubes. (c) Their spores germinate to produce gametophyte. (d) They are photosynthetic.

Answer

(a) They undergo meiosis to produce sporophytes.

This statement is false. In bryophytes the sporophyte develops from the zygote by mitosis. Meiosis occurs inside the sporophyte capsule and produces haploid spores, which germinate into the gametophyte.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The Father of Botany is (a) Theophrastus (b) A.G. Tansley (c) Aristotle (d) Albert Einstein

Answer

(a) Theophrastus

Theophrastus (a student of Aristotle) wrote Historia Plantarum and is called the Father of Botany.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The tricuspid valve in heart guards the opening between: (a) Left auricle and left ventricle (b) Left ventricle and right auricle (c) Right auricle and right ventricle (d) Pulmonary trunk and right auricle

Answer

(c) Right auricle and right ventricle

The tricuspid (three-flap) valve lies in the right atrioventricular opening and prevents backflow into the right auricle. The bicuspid (mitral) valve guards the left side.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The protein sheath of virus is called: (a) Plasma membrane (b) Viritheca (c) Virilemma (d) Capsid

Answer

(d) Capsid

The protein coat surrounding the viral nucleic acid is the capsid, made of capsomeres.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

A cell organelle that converts light energy to chemical energy: (a) Chioroplast (b) Chromoplast (c) Leucoplast (d) Plastid

Answer

(a) Chloroplast

Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and carry out photosynthesis, converting light energy into chemical energy stored in glucose. Chromoplasts and leucoplasts do not do this.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Disjunction refers to: (a) The separation of homologous chromosomes at anaphase-I (b) The type of chromosomal aberration in which there is loss of a part of chromosomes (c) Modification of gene action by a non-allelic gene (d) All of the above

Answer

(a) The separation of homologous chromosomes at anaphase-I

Disjunction is the separation of homologous chromosomes (or chromatids) to opposite poles. Loss of a chromosome part is deletion, and modification of gene action by a non-allelic gene is epistasis.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The association of certain ants with some plants like mango & litchi is: (a) Symbiosis (b) Myrmecophily (c) Commensalism (d) Entomophily

Answer

(b) Myrmecophily

Myrmecophily is the association between ants and plants, where ants live on or protect the plant and get food or shelter in return.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

"Naked seeds" of gymnosperms mean: (a) Seeds without seed coat (b) Seeds not enclosed in the ovary wall (c) Seeds without tegmen (d) All of these

Answer

(b) Seeds not enclosed in the ovary wall

In gymnosperms the ovules are exposed on the surface of scales (no ovary), so the seeds are not covered by a fruit wall. They still have a seed coat.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

The annulus of the sporangium of fern assists in the dispersal of spores by: (a) Collapsing in strong wind (b) Taking up water from air (c) Losing all air of its cells (d) Losing water from its cells

Answer

(d) Losing water from its cells

The annulus is a row of thick-walled cells. As it dries, water is lost from the cells, tension builds, and the sporangium snaps open and flings out the spores.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

Yeast produces an enzyme that is responsible for fermentation is: (a) Zymase (b) Invertase (c) Aldolase (d) None

Answer

(a) Zymase

Yeast contains the zymase complex, which converts glucose into ethyl alcohol and CO2\text{CO}_2 during alcoholic fermentation. Invertase only hydrolyses sucrose.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

A plant producing flowers and fruits once in its life is called: (a) Holocrpic (b) Monocarpic (c) Perennial (d) Annual

Answer

(b) Monocarpic

A monocarpic plant flowers and fruits once and then dies, for example bamboo and agave. Annuals complete their life cycle in one season but are not defined by fruiting only once.

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  • 2025 Bridge Course Practice Set 4 · 1 mark

A boy is trying to focus an object under a compound microscope. He sees a magnified image of the object. How many lenses are involved? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Answer

(b) 2

A compound microscope uses two convex lenses: the objective lens, which forms a magnified real image, and the eyepiece, which magnifies that image further.

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

When an object floats in water, the apparent weight of the object will be ………. (a) zero (b) greater than real weight (c) less than real weight (d) equal to real weight

Answer

(a) zero

A floating object is in equilibrium: the upthrust equals its weight. The net downward pull felt by the object in the water is therefore zero, so its apparent weight is zero.

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

A steel ball sinks in water but a glass ball floats in mercury. Both will float in…….. (a) molten gold (b) molten platinum (c) molten uranium (d) molten copper

Answer

(a) molten gold

A steel ball sinks in water, so it is denser than water, and a glass ball floats in mercury, so glass is less dense than mercury. Both float in a liquid denser than both of them. Molten gold (density about 19 g/cm319\text{ g/cm}^3) is much denser than steel (about 7.8 g/cm37.8\text{ g/cm}^3) and glass (about 2.5 g/cm32.5\text{ g/cm}^3), so both float in it.

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

When an object is kept in between optical centre and focal length in convex lens, the final image formed will be …….. (a) real and magnified (b) virtual and magnified (c) real and diminished (d) virtual and diminished

Answer

(b) virtual and magnified

For an object between the optical centre and the focus of a convex lens (u<fu<f), the refracted rays diverge. The image is formed on the same side as the object, and it is virtual, erect and magnified (the magnifying-glass case).

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

The direction of induced emf was first found by ……… (a) Farady's law (b) Lenz's law (c) Kepler's law (d) Newton's law

Answer

(b) Lenz's law

Lenz's law gives the direction of the induced emf: it opposes the change in magnetic flux that produces it. Faraday's law gives only the magnitude.

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

A fully dressed astronaut can jump 1.5 meter on earth. What height can be jumped on mars whose gravity is one quarter than that of earth? (a) 6 m (b) 4 m (c) 3 m (d) 1.5 m

Answer

(a) 6 m

The take-off speed vv is the same, and h=v22gh=\frac{v^2}{2g}, so h∝1gh\propto\frac1g. With gMars=g4g_{Mars}=\frac{g}{4}: hMars=4×1.5=6 m.h_{Mars}=4\times1.5=6\text{ m}.

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

Cell theory was proposed by …….. (a) Robert Hooke (b) Aristotle (c) Schleiden and Schwaan (d) Leeuwonhock

Answer

(c) Schleiden and Schwann

The cell theory was proposed by the botanist M. J. Schleiden (1838) and the zoologist Theodor Schwann (1839). Robert Hooke only discovered and named cells (1665).

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

Vascular Cryptogams are ………….. (a) Thallophytes (b) Bryophytes (c) Pteridophytes (d) Gymnosperms

Answer

(c) Pteridophytes

Pteridophytes (ferns and their allies) are seedless plants that have vascular tissue (xylem and phloem), so they are called vascular cryptogams. Thallophytes and bryophytes lack vascular tissue, and gymnosperms are seed-bearing.

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

A cell divides ……….. times to produce 32 daughter cells. (a) 16 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 32

Answer

(a) 16

Each division of a cell gives 22 daughter cells, so 3232 daughter cells arise from 32÷2=1632\div2=16 divisions. In terms of successive rounds, 1→2→4→8→16→321\to2\to4\to8\to16\to32: the last round of 1616 divisions yields the 3232 daughter cells.

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

Which of the following group of animals are found only in sea? (a) Porifera (b) Echinodermata (c) Mollusca (d) None of above

Answer

(b) Echinodermata

Echinoderms (starfish, sea urchin, sea cucumber) are exclusively marine. Porifera and Mollusca also have freshwater members (for example freshwater sponges and snails, mussels).

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

Pinnae are found in ………. (a) Frog (b) Gasialis (c) Rabbit (d) Crow

Answer

(c) Rabbit

Pinnae are the external ear flaps, a feature of mammals. Among the options, only the rabbit is a mammal; frogs and gharials have no pinna, and birds such as the crow have none either.

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

When copper sulphate solution is treated with less amount of ammonia solution, bluish white precipitate of ……………. is formed. (a) Cu(OH)2_2 (b) [Cu(NH3_3)4_4]++^{++}SO4_4 (c) CuSO4_4 (d) NH4_4OH

Answer

(a) Cu(OH)2_2

With a small amount of ammonia solution, copper sulphate gives a bluish-white precipitate of copper hydroxide: CuSO4+2NH4OH→Cu(OH)2↓+(NH4)2SO4.\text{CuSO}_4+2\text{NH}_4\text{OH}\rightarrow \text{Cu(OH)}_2\downarrow+(\text{NH}_4)_2\text{SO}_4. With excess ammonia, the precipitate dissolves to give the deep blue [Cu(NH3)4]SO4[\text{Cu(NH}_3)_4]\text{SO}_4.

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

What composition should be necessary for the preparation of CO2_2 gas in the laboratory? (a) CaCO3_3 + dil. H2_2SO4_4 (b) CaCO3_3 + dil. HCl (c) CaCO3_3 (d) Ca(HCO3_3)2_2

Answer

(b) CaCO3_3 + dil. HCl

In the laboratory, CO2\text{CO}_2 is prepared from marble chips and dilute hydrochloric acid: CaCO3+2HCl→CaCl2+H2O+CO2↑.\text{CaCO}_3+2\text{HCl}\rightarrow\text{CaCl}_2+\text{H}_2\text{O}+\text{CO}_2\uparrow. Dilute H2SO4\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 is not used because insoluble CaSO4\text{CaSO}_4 coats the marble and stops the reaction.

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

Ammonia is ……… (a) acidic (b) basic (c) neutral (d) amphoteric

Answer

(b) basic

Ammonia has a lone pair on nitrogen and accepts a proton (NH3+H2O⇌NH4++OH−\text{NH}_3+\text{H}_2\text{O}\rightleftharpoons\text{NH}_4^++\text{OH}^-). Its solution is alkaline and turns red litmus blue.

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

Glycerol is ………. (a) monohydric alcohol (b) dihydric alcohol (c) trihydric alcohol (d) aldehyde

Answer

(c) trihydric alcohol

Glycerol, CH2OH-CHOH-CH2OH\text{CH}_2\text{OH-CHOH-CH}_2\text{OH} (propane-1,2,3-triol), has three −OH-\text{OH} groups, so it is a trihydric alcohol.

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  • 2080 Science Entrance Model Question · 1 mark

In the modern periodic law, the physical and chemical properties of the elements are the periodic function of ……… (a) atomic number (b) atomic weight (c) electronegativity (d) none of all

Answer

(a) atomic number

The modern periodic law (Moseley) states that the physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers. Mendeleev's law was based on atomic weight.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Choose the odd one: (a) acceleration (b) gravitational field strength (c) acceleration due to gravity (d) gravitational potential

Answer

(d) gravitational potential

Acceleration, gravitational field strength and acceleration due to gravity are all vector quantities (and the last two are the same thing, force per unit mass). Gravitational potential is a scalar.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

The work done to project a body with velocity v in air is W, how much more work is necessary to double its velocity? (a) W (b) 2W (c) 3W (d) 4W

Answer

(c) 3W

The work done equals the kinetic energy given, so W=12mv2W=\tfrac12 mv^2. At velocity 2v2v the energy is 12m(2v)2=4W\tfrac12 m(2v)^2=4W.

Extra work=4W−W=3W\text{Extra work}=4W-W=3W

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

A wooden cube supporting 200g just floats in water. When the mass is removed cube rises by 2cm, the side of the cube is: (a) 5cm (b) 10cm (c) 15cm (d) 20cm

Answer

(b) 10 cm

When the 200 g mass is removed, the cube rises by 2 cm, so the volume of water no longer displaced equals the weight removed divided by the density of water:

a2×2=2001 cm3⇒a2=100⇒a=10 cma^2\times 2=\frac{200}{1}\ \text{cm}^3 \Rightarrow a^2=100 \Rightarrow a=10\ \text{cm}

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

The equivalent resistance of two wires when connected in series is 9 Ω and when the wires are connected in parallel the equivalent resistance is 2 Ω. The resistance of the wires are: (a) 7 Ω and 2 Ω (b) 4 Ω and 5 Ω (c) 6 Ω and 3 Ω (d) 1 Ω and 8 Ω

Answer

(c) 6 Ω and 3 Ω

Let the resistances be R1R_1 and R2R_2. Series: R1+R2=9R_1+R_2=9. Parallel: R1R2R1+R2=2\dfrac{R_1R_2}{R_1+R_2}=2, so R1R2=18R_1R_2=18.

The numbers with sum 9 and product 18 are 6 and 3.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

The intensity of sound increases at night due to: (a) increase in density of air (b) decrease in density of air (c) low temperature (d) all of the above

Answer

(c) low temperature

At night the air near the ground is cooler than the air above it, so the speed of sound is lower near the ground. The sound waves are refracted (bent) downward towards the ground, which increases the intensity heard.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Two substances having specific heat C1C_1 cal/gm∘^\circC and C2C_2 cal/gm∘^\circF. Then which of the following relation is valid? (a) C1=C2C_1=C_2 (b) C1<C2C_1<C_2 (c) C1≤C2C_1\le C_2 (d) C1>C2C_1>C_2

Answer

(d) C1>C2C_1>C_2

One Celsius degree equals 1.8 Fahrenheit degrees, so the same amount of heat raises the temperature by a larger number of Fahrenheit degrees. The specific heat per ∘^\circF is therefore smaller: C2=C1/1.8C_2=C_1/1.8, giving C1>C2C_1>C_2.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Which sets of planets among the following are inner planets? (a) Mercury, Mars, Earth and Jupiter (b) Mars, Venus, Earth and Mercury (c) Mars, Venus, Uranus and Earth (d) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune

Answer

(b) Mars, Venus, Earth and Mercury

The inner (terrestrial) planets lie inside the asteroid belt: Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are outer planets.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Myopic eye of a person having far point 75 cm be cured by using: (a) convex lens of focal length 50 cm (b) concave lens of focal length 25 cm (c) concave lens of focal length 75 cm (d) convex lens of focal length 37.5 cm

Answer

(c) concave lens of focal length 75 cm

Myopia is corrected by a diverging (concave) lens that forms the image of a distant object at the far point. So f=−75f=-75 cm, a concave lens of focal length 75 cm.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Two quantities A and B have different dimensions. Which mathematical operation given below is physically meaningful? (a) A/B (b) A+B (c) A-B (d) all (a, b and c )

Answer

(a) A/B

Quantities of different dimensions can be multiplied or divided (for example, distance/time gives speed) but cannot be added or subtracted.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Two planets of equal density have radii of R and 2R. Then the ratio of acceleration due to gravity on their surfaces will be (a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 1:3 (d) 1:4

Answer

(b) 1:2

g=GMR2=GR2⋅43πR3ρ=43πGρRg=\dfrac{GM}{R^2}=\dfrac{G}{R^2}\cdot\dfrac{4}{3}\pi R^3\rho=\dfrac{4}{3}\pi G\rho R, so for equal density g∝Rg\propto R.

g1:g2=R:2R=1:2g_1:g_2=R:2R=1:2

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

An object of 2500 g has the volume of 0.5 litre. Its density in SI unit is (a) 5 kg/m3^3 (b) 5000 g/litre (c) 500 kg/m3^3 (d) 5000 kg/m3^3

Answer

(d) 5000 kg/m3^3

Mass =2500 g=2.5=2500\ \text{g}=2.5 kg and volume =0.5 L=0.5×10−3 m3=0.5\ \text{L}=0.5\times10^{-3}\ \text{m}^3.

ρ=2.50.5×10−3=5000 kg/m3\rho=\frac{2.5}{0.5\times10^{-3}}=5000\ \text{kg/m}^3

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Which of the following can’t be resultant of 6 N and 8N? (a) 15 N (b) 6 N (c) 2 N (d) 10 N

Answer

(a) 15 N

The resultant of 6 N and 8 N lies between 8−6=28-6=2 N and 8+6=148+6=14 N. So 15 N is impossible, while 2 N, 6 N and 10 N are all possible.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

A weightless rubber balloon has 100 gm of water in it. Its weight in the water will be (a) 100 gm (b) 50 gm (c) 200 gm (d) Zero

Answer

(d) Zero

The weightless balloon displaces 100 cm3^3 of water, so the upthrust is 100 gf, which equals the weight of the water inside. The apparent weight in water is 100−100=0100-100=0.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

The length of day due to earth’s atmosphere is: (a) shorter (b) longer (c) shorter in winter and longer in summer (d) remains unchanged

Answer

(b) longer

Atmospheric refraction bends sunlight so the Sun is seen before it actually rises above the horizon and after it has set. This makes the day a few minutes longer.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant? (a) ozone (b) carbon dioxide (c) carbon monoxide (d) sulphur dioxide

Answer

(a) ozone

Secondary pollutants are formed in the atmosphere by reactions between primary pollutants. Ground-level ozone forms from nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons in sunlight, whereas CO2_2, CO and SO2_2 are emitted directly.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Which is correct about traits chosen by Mendel? (a) constricted pod is dominant (b) inflated pod is recessive (c) green pod is dominant (d) terminal pod is dominant

Answer

(c) green pod is dominant

In Mendel's pea traits, inflated pod is dominant over constricted, green pod is dominant over yellow, and axial flower position is dominant over terminal.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

The term mutation was coined by: (a) Carl Correns (b) Tschermak (c) Hugo de Vries (d) T.H. Morgan

Answer

(c) Hugo de Vries

Hugo de Vries coined the term mutation (1901) from his work on the evening primrose, Oenothera lamarckiana.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Regeneration of plant cell to give rise to new plant is called: (a) totipotency (b) budding (c) reproduction (d) pleuripotency

Answer

(a) totipotency

Totipotency is the ability of a plant cell to regenerate into a complete new plant. This principle underlies plant tissue culture.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

The endosperm cells in angiosperm are: (a) haploid (b) diploid (c) triploid (d) tetraploid

Answer

(c) triploid

Endosperm forms by double fertilization, when a sperm nucleus (n) fuses with the two polar nuclei (n + n) of the central cell, giving a 3n3n (triploid) tissue.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Klinefelter’s syndrome is: (a) due to XXY chromosome (b) due to XXX chromosomes (c) due to XYY chromosomes (d) due to XXYY chromosome

Answer

(a) due to XXY chromosome

Klinefelter's syndrome is a sex chromosome disorder of males with karyotype 44 + XXY (47 chromosomes), caused by non-disjunction. XXX is triple-X syndrome and XYY is Jacob's syndrome.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

The ecosystem having ecological pyramid of biomass inverted is: (a) grassland ecosystem (b) desert ecosystem (c) forest ecosystem (d) pond ecosystem

Answer

(d) pond ecosystem

In a pond the producers (phytoplankton) are tiny and reproduce rapidly, so their standing biomass is smaller than that of the consumers they support. The pyramid of biomass is therefore inverted.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Desert biomes do not support vegetation because they lack: (a) favorable temperature (b) enough light (c) sufficient water (d) sufficient nutrients

Answer

(c) sufficient water

Deserts have very low rainfall, so water is the limiting factor that restricts vegetation to a few drought-adapted plants.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Which of the following were first formed? (a) eobionts (b) coacervates (c) genes (d) cells

Answer

(b) coacervates

In Oparin's theory, organic molecules first aggregated into coacervates (colloidal droplets). These developed into eobionts, then genes became organised, and cells were formed last.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Islets of Langerhans are found in: (a) kidney (b) liver (c) pancreas (d) stomach

Answer

(c) pancreas

The islets of Langerhans are clusters of endocrine cells in the pancreas. Their alpha cells secrete glucagon and their beta cells secrete insulin.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Progesterone is a: (a) carbohydrate (b) steroid (c) protein (d) sterol

Answer

(b) steroid

Progesterone is a steroid hormone made from cholesterol, mainly by the corpus luteum. It prepares and maintains the uterus for pregnancy.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Carbonic anhydrase is active in: (a) RBC (b) WBC (c) platelets (d) blood plasma

Answer

(a) RBC

Carbonic anhydrase is abundant in red blood cells. It catalyses CO2+H2O⇌H2CO3\mathrm{CO_2 + H_2O \rightleftharpoons H_2CO_3}, which helps carry carbon dioxide as bicarbonate.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

The muscle coordination is done by: (a) cerebellum (b) cerebrum (c) pons (d) medulla

Answer

(a) cerebellum

The cerebellum coordinates voluntary muscle movement and maintains balance and posture. The cerebrum handles thought and voluntary action, and the pons and medulla handle other functions such as breathing.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

In earthworm, genital papillae occur in segments: (a) 16 and 17 (b) 16 and 18 (c) 17 and 19 (d) 17 and 18

Answer

(c) 17 and 19

In the earthworm, genital papillae are small raised areas on the ventral surface of segments 17 and 19. They help hold the worms together during copulation.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Which of the following is hermaphrodite? (a) Ascaris (b) Taenia (c) Labeo (d) Periplaneta

Answer

(b) Taenia

Taenia (tapeworm) is hermaphrodite, with both male and female reproductive organs in each proglottid. Ascaris, Labeo and Periplaneta have separate sexes.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Which of the following is having strongest covalent bond? (a) H - Cl (b) Cl - Cl (c) C – Cl (d) Na - Cl

Answer

(a) H - Cl

Na-Cl is ionic, so it is not covalent. Among the covalent bonds, the bond energies are H-Cl about 431 kJ mol−1431\ \mathrm{kJ\,mol^{-1}}, C-Cl about 339339 and Cl-Cl about 242242. H-Cl is the strongest.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

C2H6(g)+O2→CO2(g)+H2O(l)\mathrm{C_2H_6(g)+O_2\to CO_2(g)+H_2O(l)} In this equation (balanced), the ratio of coefficients of CO2_2 & H2_2O is: (a) 1:1 (b) 2:3 (c) 3:2 (d) 1:3

Answer

(b) 2:3

The balanced equation is 2C2H6+7O2→4CO2+6H2O2\mathrm{C_2H_6} + 7\mathrm{O_2} \to 4\mathrm{CO_2} + 6\mathrm{H_2O} so the ratio of coefficients of CO2\mathrm{CO_2} to H2O\mathrm{H_2O} is 4:6=2:34:6 = 2:3.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

In solids, the constituent particles may be: (a) atoms (b) ions (c) molecules (d) either of the above

Answer

(d) either of the above

The particles of a solid may be atoms (diamond, argon), ions (NaCl) or molecules (ice, iodine), depending on the type of solid.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Alum is a water purifier because it: (a) softens hard water (b) coagulates the impurities (c) destroys the pathogenic bacteria (d) gives taste

Answer

(b) coagulates the impurities

Alum supplies Al3+\mathrm{Al^{3+}} ions, which neutralise the charge on colloidal particles and coagulate them. The coagulated impurities then settle out.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Which of the following imparts brick red colour to the flame? (a) Ca (b) Ba (c) Sr (d) None

Answer

(a) Ca

Calcium salts give a brick red flame. Strontium gives crimson red and barium gives apple green.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Formation of soap involves: (a) hydrolysis (b) polymerization (c) esterification (d) condensation

Answer

(a) hydrolysis

Soap is made by saponification, which is alkaline hydrolysis of a fat or oil (an ester) with NaOH. This gives sodium salts of fatty acids (soap) and glycerol.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Which is a natural polymer? (a) Polythene (b) PVC (c) Teflon (d) Protein

Answer

(d) Protein

Proteins are natural polymers of amino acids. Polythene, PVC and Teflon are synthetic polymers.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

In a crystal, the atom are located at the position of: (a) maximum P.E. (b) minimum P.E. (c) zero P.E. (d) infinite P.E.

Answer

(b) minimum P.E.

Atoms in a crystal sit at the equilibrium positions where the net force is zero and the potential energy is a minimum, which makes the structure stable.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

Which metal can't be obtained by the electrolysis of its aqueous solution? (a) Cu (b) Mg (c) Cr (d) Ni

Answer

(b) Mg

Magnesium is more reactive than hydrogen, so electrolysis of its aqueous solution discharges H2\mathrm{H_2} at the cathode instead of Mg. Mg is obtained by electrolysis of the molten chloride. Cu, Cr and Ni can be deposited from aqueous solutions.

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  • 2079 Grade XI Model Question · 1 mark

One gram of hydrogen contains how many molecules: (a) 6.023×10236.023\times10^{23} (b) 6.023×10266.023\times10^{26} (c) 3.01×10233.01\times10^{23} (d) 3.02×10253.02\times10^{25}

Answer

(c) 3.01×10233.01\times10^{23}

n=1 g2 g mol−1=0.5 moln = \frac{1\ \mathrm{g}}{2\ \mathrm{g\,mol^{-1}}} = 0.5\ \mathrm{mol} N=0.5×6.023×1023=3.01×1023 moleculesN = 0.5 \times 6.023\times10^{23} = 3.01\times10^{23}\ \text{molecules}

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Three identical cylindrical vessels, A, B, and C, contain liquids with densities ρA<ρB<ρC. The height of the liquid columns in all three vessels is the same. Which of the following statements is true about the pressure exerted by the liquids on the base of the vessels? (a) Pressure is maximum in vessel A (b) Pressure is maximum in vessel B (c) Pressure is maximum in vessel C (d) Pressure is equal in all the vessels

Answer

(c) Pressure is maximum in vessel C

Pressure at the base is P=hρgP=h\rho g. With the same hh and gg, pressure is proportional to density, so it is greatest for the densest liquid, ρC\rho_C.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Specific heat capacity of a substance can be expressed as C1C_1 cal/g∘^\circC or C2C_2 cal/g∘^\circF. What is the value of C1C_1 in terms of C2C_2? (a) C2/1.8C_2/1.8 (b) C2×1.8C_2\times1.8 (c) C2C_2 (d) C2+1.8C_2+1.8

Answer

(b) C2×1.8C_2\times1.8

A change of 1∘1^\circC equals a change of 1.8∘1.8^\circF. The same heat raises 1 g by 1∘1^\circC or by 1.8∘1.8^\circF, so C1⋅1=C2⋅1.8C_1\cdot1=C_2\cdot1.8, giving C1=1.8 C2C_1=1.8\,C_2.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

When two liquids of equal mass but different temperatures are mixed, the final temperature of the mixture is observed to be closer to the initial temperature of one of the liquids. What does this imply about the specific heats of the two liquids? (a) The specific heat of the liquid whose initial temperature is closer to the final temperature is higher. (b) The specific heat of the liquid whose initial temperature is closer to the final temperature is lower. (c) The specific heats of both liquids are equal. (d) It implies nothing about their specific heats.

Answer

(a) The specific heat of the liquid whose initial temperature is closer to the final temperature is higher.

Heat lost equals heat gained, so mc1ΔT1=mc2ΔT2mc_1\Delta T_1=mc_2\Delta T_2. The liquid with the smaller temperature change ΔT\Delta T (the one whose initial temperature is closer to the final temperature) must have the larger specific heat.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Which of the following combinations correctly expresses 1 Volt in terms of other SI based units? (a) 1 kg m2s3A1\,\frac{\mathrm{kg\,m^2}}{\mathrm{s^3A}} (b) 1 kg m2s2C1\,\frac{\mathrm{kg\,m^2}}{\mathrm{s^2C}} (c) 1 Nm/A (d) 1 C/s

Answer

(a) 1 kg m2s3A1\,\frac{\mathrm{kg\,m^2}}{\mathrm{s^3A}}

V=workcharge=kg m2 s−2A s=kg m2 s−3A−1V=\frac{\text{work}}{\text{charge}}=\frac{\mathrm{kg\,m^2\,s^{-2}}}{\mathrm{A\,s}}=\mathrm{kg\,m^2\,s^{-3}A^{-1}}. Option (b) is also equal to a volt, but it uses the coulomb, which is not a base unit.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

A boat of dimensions 3 meters in length and 2 meters in breadth sinks by 1 cm when a person gets on it. If the density of water is 1000 kg/m³, what is the approximate mass of the person? (a) 50 kg (b) 60 kg (c) 70 kg (d) 80 kg

Answer

(b) 60 kg

The extra water displaced has weight equal to the weight of the person: m=ρ A Δh=1000×(3×2)×0.01=60m=\rho\,A\,\Delta h=1000\times(3\times2)\times0.01=60 kg.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

If the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the Earth is g and at a height 2R above the surface is g′, what is the value of g′? (a) g/2 (b) g/4 (c) g/9 (d) g/16

Answer

(c) g/9

g∝1r2g\propto\frac1{r^2}, and at height 2R2R the distance from the centre is 3R3R. So gnew=g(R3R)2=g9g_{new}=g\left(\frac R{3R}\right)^2=\frac g9.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

A ray of light passes from vacuum to medium of refractive index μ\mu, the deviation suffered by refracted ray is equal to the half of angle of incidence. The angle of incidence is (a) cos⁡−1(μ/2)\cos^{-1}(\mu/2) (b) 2cos⁡−1(μ/2)2\cos^{-1}(\mu/2) (c) 2sin⁡−1μ2\sin^{-1}\mu (d) 2sin⁡−1(μ/2)2\sin^{-1}(\mu/2)

Answer

(b) 2cos⁡−1(μ/2)2\cos^{-1}(\mu/2)

Deviation =i−r=i2=i-r=\frac i2, so r=i2r=\frac i2. Snell law: sin⁡i=μsin⁡i2\sin i=\mu\sin\frac i2, i.e. 2sin⁡i2cos⁡i2=μsin⁡i22\sin\frac i2\cos\frac i2=\mu\sin\frac i2. Hence cos⁡i2=μ2\cos\frac i2=\frac\mu2 and i=2cos⁡−1(μ2)i=2\cos^{-1}\left(\frac\mu2\right).

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

An ant is approaching a convex lens with a uniform speed up to first focus. How does the speed of image of ant formed by the lens change? (a) remains constant (b) increases uniformly (c) first increases and then decreases (d) first decreases and then increases

Answer

(b) increases uniformly

From the lens formula, the image speed is vi=(fu−f)2vov_i=\left(\frac{f}{u-f}\right)^2v_o (with uu the object distance). As the ant moves from far away toward the focus, u−fu-f decreases, so the image speed keeps increasing (without bound as u→fu\to f). Of the options given, "increases" is the correct trend, although the increase is not strictly uniform.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Which of the following sounds has maximum speed in air? (a) sound produced by explosion of bomb (b) roaring of lion (c) buzzing sound of mosquito (d) all have equal speed

Answer

(d) all have equal speed

The speed of sound in air depends only on the medium and its temperature, not on the source, loudness or frequency.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

A car covers the first half of the distance between two places at 40km/h and another half at 60km/h then what is the average speed of the car ? (a) 40km/h (b) 48km/h (c) 50km/h (d) 60km/h

Answer

(b) 48km/h

For equal distances dd each way, the average speed is the harmonic mean: vavg=2dd40+d60=2×40×6040+60=48 km/hv_{avg}=\frac{2d}{\frac d{40}+\frac d{60}}=\frac{2\times40\times60}{40+60}=48\ \text{km/h}

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

The kinetic energy acquired by a mass mm in travelling distance dd, starting from rest, under the action of constant force is directly proportional to (a) mm (b) m0m^0 (c) m\sqrt m (d) 1/m1/\sqrt m

Answer

(b) m0m^0

By the work-energy theorem, KE=FdKE=Fd. The force and distance are fixed, so the kinetic energy does not depend on mm, i.e. it is proportional to m0m^0.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

What is the minimum distance between real object and its real image formed by concave mirror? (a) f (b) infinity (c) 4f (d) zero

Answer

(c) 4f

For a real image, D=u+vD=u+v with 1u+1v=1f\frac1u+\frac1v=\frac1f, giving D=u2u−fD=\frac{u^2}{u-f}. This is minimum at u=2fu=2f, where D=4f2f=4fD=\frac{4f^2}{f}=4f.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Three resistors of resistances R1, R2 & R3 are connected in parallel grouping. If R1 < R2 < R3 , then what is the equivalent resistance ? (a) less than R1 (b) greater than R3 (c) equal to R2 (d) (R1+R2+R3)/3

Answer

(a) less than R1

1Req=1R1+1R2+1R3>1R1\frac1{R_{eq}}=\frac1{R_1}+\frac1{R_2}+\frac1{R_3}>\frac1{R_1}

so Req<R1R_{eq}<R_1, the smallest resistance.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Which of the following is transformer's formula? (Symbols carry their usual meanings) (a) N1/N2 =V2/V1 (b) N1/N2 =I2/I1 (c) I2/I1 =V2/V1 (d) N1/N2 =I1/I2

Answer

(b) N1/N2=I2/I1N_1/N_2=I_2/I_1

For an ideal transformer, N1N2=V1V2=I2I1\frac{N_1}{N_2}=\frac{V_1}{V_2}=\frac{I_2}{I_1}, since input power equals output power (V1I1=V2I2V_1I_1=V_2I_2).

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

What is the significance of the slope in a temperature vs. time graph during heating or cooling? (a) It indicates the rate at which time passes. (b) It shows the amount of heat energy transferred. (c) It represents the rate of temperature change. (d) It determines the specific heat capacity of the substance.

Answer

(c) It represents the rate of temperature change.

The slope is ΔT/Δt\Delta T/\Delta t, the change in temperature per unit time. A steeper line means faster heating or cooling.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

In halogen group which tendency works with increase in atomic number ? (a) ionization energy increases (b) tendency to lose electrons decreases (c) ionization energy decreases (d) MX2 (M=metal, X=halogen) covalent character decreases

Answer

(c) ionization energy decreases

Down the halogen group the atomic size increases, so the outer electrons are held less tightly and ionization energy decreases.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

The isomeric pair is (a) ethane and propane (b) propane and butane (c) ethane and ethane (d) butane and 2-methyl propane.

Answer

(d) butane and 2-methyl propane.

Both have the molecular formula C4H10C_4H_{10} but different structures (straight chain and branched chain), so they are chain isomers.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Which information is not conveyed by a balanced chemical equation? (a) Physical states of reactants and products (b) Symbols and formulae of all the substances involved in a particular reaction (c) Number of atoms/molecules of the reactants and products formed (d) Whether a particular reaction is actually feasible or not

Answer

(d) Whether a particular reaction is actually feasible or not

A balanced equation shows formulae, states and the amounts of substances, but it does not say whether the reaction can actually occur or how fast.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

On immersing an iron nail in CuSO4 solution for few minutes, we will observe (a) no reaction takes place (b) the colour of solution fades away (c) the surface of iron nails acquire a black coating (d) the colour of solution changes to green

Answer

(b) the colour of solution fades away

Iron is more reactive than copper, so Fe+CuSO4→FeSO4+CuFe + CuSO_4 \rightarrow FeSO_4 + Cu. The blue colour of CuSO4CuSO_4 fades to pale green and a reddish-brown copper coating forms on the nail.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Soaps are formed by saponification of (a) alcohols (b) glycosides (c) simple esters (d) carboxylic acids

Answer

(c) simple esters

Saponification is the alkaline hydrolysis of esters. Fats and oils are esters of glycerol with long-chain fatty acids, and on heating with NaOH they give soap (sodium salts of fatty acids) and glycerol.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Which among the following alloys contain non-metal as one of its constituents? (a) Brass (b) Amalgam (c) Gun metal (d) Steel

Answer

(d) Steel

Steel is an alloy of iron with carbon, which is a non-metal. Brass (Cu, Zn), amalgam (Hg with another metal) and gun metal (Cu, Sn, Zn) contain only metals.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

The compound in which the Hydroxy group is attached to the saturated carbon atom which has other two carbon atom attached to it. (a) aldehyde (b) secondary alcohol (c) tertiary alcohol (d) carboxylic acid

Answer

(b) secondary alcohol

In a secondary alcohol the carbon bearing the −OH-OH group is bonded to two other carbon atoms, as in propan-2-ol, CH3CH(OH)CH3CH_3CH(OH)CH_3.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

A greenish coating develops on copper utensils due to formation of (a) CuSO4.5H2O (b) Cu(OH)2 (c) Cu(OH)2.CuCO3 (d) CuO

Answer

(c) Cu(OH)2⋅CuCO3Cu(OH)_2 \cdot CuCO_3

Copper reacts slowly with moist air containing CO2CO_2 to form basic copper carbonate, which is green. This is corrosion of copper.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

An element has an atomic number of 15, with which the element will show similar chemical properties. (a) Be (b) Ne (c) N (d) O

Answer

(c) N

The element with Z=15Z = 15 is phosphorus, with configuration 2,8,52,8,5. Nitrogen (2,52,5) has five valence electrons too, so it is in the same group and has similar chemical properties.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

4.2 gm of N3−^{3-} contain …….. no of valence electrons (NA=6.023×1023N_A=6.023\times10^{23}) (a) 1.6NAN_A (b) 2.2NAN_A (c) 2.4NAN_A (d) 3NAN_A

Answer

(c) 2.4NA2.4N_A

Molar mass of N3−N^{3-} is about 1414 g/mol, so n=4.214=0.3 moln = \frac{4.2}{14} = 0.3\ \text{mol} Each N3−N^{3-} ion has 88 valence electrons (2s22p62s^2 2p^6), so the number of valence electrons is 0.3×8×NA=2.4NA0.3 \times 8 \times N_A = 2.4N_A.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Which tissue type in plants is responsible for the transport of water and nutrients? (a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma (c) Sclerenchyma (d) Xylem and phloem

Answer

(d) Xylem and phloem

Xylem carries water and minerals upward, and phloem carries food (nutrients) throughout the plant. These are the vascular tissues.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

The development of a specialized structure that allows plants to reproduce without seeds is called: (a) Fragmentation (b) Budding (c) Alternation of generations (d) Apomixis

Answer

(a) Fragmentation

In fragmentation a plant body breaks into pieces and each piece grows into a new plant. This is vegetative reproduction without seeds. Alternation of generations is a life-cycle pattern, and apomixis produces seeds without fertilization.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Select which of the following is not a characteristic of all vertebrates? (a) Bilateral symmetry (b) Notochord at some stage of development (c) Dorsal hollow nerve cord (d) Pharyngeal gill slits

Answer

(a) Bilateral symmetry

Notochord, dorsal hollow nerve cord and pharyngeal gill slits are the defining chordate characters, present at some stage in all vertebrates. Bilateral symmetry is a general body-plan feature shared by many non-chordate animals, not a defining chordate character.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

The "fight or flight" response in humans is primarily regulated by: (a) Endocrine system (b) Nervous system (c) Circulatory system (d) Lymphaticsystem

Answer

(b) Nervous system

The sympathetic nervous system triggers the rapid fight-or-flight response, and it stimulates the adrenal medulla to release adrenaline, which supports it. The nervous system is the primary regulator.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Which of the following is a function of the human liver? (a) Production of insulin (b) Production of bile (c) Regulation of body temperature (d) Regulation of blood pressure

Answer

(b) Production of bile

The liver makes bile, which emulsifies fats. Insulin is made by the pancreas.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

The human skeleton is divided into how many major parts? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

Answer

(a) 2

The human skeleton is divided into the axial skeleton (skull, vertebral column, ribs, sternum) and the appendicular skeleton (limbs and girdles).

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Cytokinesis in plant cells differs from that in animal cells because it involves: (a) Formation of a cleavage furrow (b) Formation of a cell plate (c) Binary fission (d) Fragmentation of the cell wall

Answer

(b) Formation of a cell plate

In plant cells a cell plate forms at the centre and grows outwards to become the new cell wall. Animal cells divide by a cleavage furrow.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Crossing over, which increases genetic diversity, occurs in: (a) Prophase I (b) Metaphase I (c) Anaphase I (d) Telophase I

Answer

(a) Prophase I

Homologous chromosomes pair (synapsis) and exchange segments at chiasmata during the pachytene stage of prophase I.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Given that honey bees exhibit complex dances to communicate food source locations, what inference can be drawn about their cognitive abilities? (a) Honey bees have advanced problem-solving skills comparable to primates (b) The dance communication suggests a high degree of social intelligence (c) Honey bees rely solely on instinct and genetic programming for foraging (d) The dance is a form of territorial marking rather than communication

Answer

(b) The dance communication suggests a high degree of social intelligence

The waggle dance tells nestmates the direction and distance of food, which shows sophisticated social communication. It does not show that bees are comparable to primates, and it is not territorial marking.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

The reason for daughter cells to differ from parent cells and also each other in meiosis is: (a) Segregation and crossing over (b) Segregation and independent assortment (c) Segregation, crossing over, and independent assortment (d) Independent assortment and crossing over

Answer

(c) Segregation, crossing over, and independent assortment

Crossing over mixes genes between homologous chromosomes, and independent assortment and segregation of homologues give different chromosome combinations. Together they make the daughter cells genetically different from the parent and from each other.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

In a monohybrid cross, homozygous recessive in the F2 generation will be: (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100%

Answer

(a) 25%

A monohybrid cross Tt×TtTt \times Tt gives the F2 genotypic ratio 1 TT:2 Tt:1 tt1\,TT : 2\,Tt : 1\,tt, so homozygous recessive tttt is 14=25%\frac{1}{4} = 25\%.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

In the context of forensic science, what genetic technology is commonly used to compare DNA samples from crime scenes with those of suspects? (a) CRISPR-Cas9 (b) DNA microarrays (c) DNA fingerprinting (d) Gene cloning

Answer

(c) DNA fingerprinting

DNA fingerprinting compares the pattern of repeated sequences (such as STRs) in crime-scene DNA with that of suspects.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

The condition in which heart beat occurs slowly than the normal is: (a) Tachycardia (b) Bradycardia (c) Cardiac arrest (d) Stenocardia

Answer

(b) Bradycardia

Bradycardia is a heart rate below normal (under 60 beats per minute). Tachycardia is a faster-than-normal rate.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

Among the following viral diseases, which one primarily affects the parotid glands and can lead to complications such as orchitis or oophoritis? (a) Typhoid (b) Mumps (c) Plague (d) Whooping cough

Answer

(b) Mumps

Mumps is caused by a virus and causes swelling of the parotid glands. Complications include orchitis in males and oophoritis in females.

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  • 2025 (2082) Grade XI Model Question Set A · 1 mark

The intrinsic conduction system of the heart, which enables it to function continuously without rest, includes all the following components except……………… (a) Sinoatrial (SA) node (b) Atrioventricular (AV) node (c) Bundle of His (d) Pancreatic duct

Answer

(d) Pancreatic duct

The conduction system consists of the SA node (pacemaker), AV node and Bundle of His with its Purkinje fibres. The pancreatic duct belongs to the digestive system, not the heart.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Ratio of effort distance to the load distance is known as (a) MA (b) VR (c) efficiency (d) load

Answer

(b) VR

Velocity ratio =distance moved by effortdistance moved by load=\dfrac{\text{distance moved by effort}}{\text{distance moved by load}}.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

When the inclination of an inclined plane is 30o, the VR of the inclined plane is (a) 30 (b) ½ (c) 1/30 (d) 2

Answer

(d) 2

For an inclined plane, VR=1sin⁡θ=1sin⁡30∘=11/2=2VR=\dfrac{1}{\sin\theta}=\dfrac{1}{\sin30^\circ}=\dfrac{1}{1/2}=2.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

If a pulley system has four pulleys, it has VR (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 8

Answer

(b) 4

In a pulley system, the VR equals the number of pulleys (the number of rope segments supporting the load), so four pulleys give VR=4VR=4.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Which of the machine is also known as a continuous lever? (a) screw (b) wedge (c) pulley (d) wheel and axle

Answer

(d) wheel and axle

A wheel and axle behaves like a lever that rotates continuously about the axle, with the wheel radius as the effort arm and the axle radius as the load arm.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

If a force of 2N is applied on a body on its axis of rotation, then the torque is produced in (a) clockwise direction (b) anticlockwise direction (c) perpendicular direction to the force (d) not in any direction

Answer

(d) not in any direction

Torque =F×r=F\times r, where rr is the perpendicular distance from the axis. A force applied on the axis of rotation has r=0r=0, so the torque is zero and has no direction.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

In a machine, (a) total force is conserved (b) total energy is conserved (c) total load is conserved (d) total effort is conserved

Answer

(b) total energy is conserved

A machine only transforms or transfers energy. Work input = useful work output + work lost against friction, so the total energy stays constant, although force and effort are changed (for example MA=load/effort\text{MA}=\text{load}/\text{effort} need not be 1).

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

In wheel and axle (a) the radius of wheel should be equal to the radius of the axle (b) the radius of wheel should be smaller than the radius of the axle (c) the radius of wheel should be greater than the radius of the axle (d) does not have any relationship

Answer

(c) the radius of wheel should be greater than the radius of the axle

For a wheel and axle, MA=Rr\text{MA}=\dfrac{R}{r} (wheel radius over axle radius). A small effort on the larger wheel balances a larger load on the axle only if R>rR>r.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Which type of inertia we do not have in straight-line motion? (a) inertia of rest (b) inertia of direction (c) inertia of color (d) inertia of motion

Answer

(c) inertia of color

Inertia is of three kinds: rest, motion and direction. "Inertia of colour" does not exist. Inertia of direction is the one that matters in circular or curved motion, but the options ask which one is not a type at all.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

If a ball of mass m is dropped which hits the ground with the velocity v and it renounces vertically upward with the velocity v, then the change in momentum is (a) 0kgm/sec (b) 2vkgm/sec (c) 2mv kgm/sec (d) 1kgm/sec

Answer

(c) 2mv2mv kg m/s

Taking upward as positive, the momentum changes from −mv-mv (just before hitting) to +mv+mv (just after).

Δp=mv−(−mv)=2mv\Delta p = mv-(-mv)=2mv

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

If the displacement of two points is x which is 2m, what is the possible longest distance between the points? (a) 2m (b) infinity (c) 2x (d) none of above

Answer

(b) infinity

Displacement is only the shortest (straight-line) separation, 22 m here. The distance travelled is the length of the actual path, which can follow any route (loops, detours) between the two points, so it can be arbitrarily large; it can never be less than 22 m.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not a vector quantity? (a) momentum (b) acceleration (c) current (d) force

Answer

(c) current

Momentum, acceleration and force have both magnitude and direction. Electric current has direction along a wire but obeys ordinary algebraic addition, so it is a scalar.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

To have the maximum positive work done by a force, the angle between the force and displacement should be (a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 180°

Answer

(a) 0∘0^\circ

W=Fscos⁡θW=Fs\cos\theta

WW is maximum and positive when cos⁡θ=1\cos\theta=1, i.e. θ=0∘\theta=0^\circ.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

If a body is given the kinetic energy of 100J, how much work is done to bring it into motion? (a) 0J (b) 100J (c) depends on the speed given to body (d) depends on the mass of body

Answer

(b) 100 J

By the work-energy theorem, the work done on the body equals the kinetic energy it gains: W=ΔK=100 J−0=100 JW=\Delta K=100\ \text{J}-0=100\ \text{J}.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

A body is lifted to a height. Which of the following form of energy is given to it? (a) Kinetic (b) chemical (c) nuclear (d) potential

Answer

(d) potential

Lifting a body against gravity does work on it, and that work is stored as gravitational potential energy mghmgh.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

A mass 1kg has kinetic energy 100J and it is thrown vertically upward. What is the maximum height it can attain? (a) 100m (b) 10m (c) 1000m (d) 1m

Answer

(b) 10 m

At the highest point all the kinetic energy has become potential energy (taking g=10 m/s2g=10\ \text{m/s}^2):

mgh=100 ⇒ h=1001×10=10 mmgh=100\ \Rightarrow\ h=\frac{100}{1\times10}=10\ \text{m}

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

A jet plane is flying at constant altitude with increasing speed. Which form of energy is changing? (a) Kinetic energy (b) potential energy (c) nuclear energy (d) light energy

Answer

(a) kinetic energy

The altitude is constant, so mghmgh does not change (ignoring fuel mass loss). The speed increases, so 12mv2\tfrac12 mv^2 increases.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

A bullet is flying with the energy of 900J and it is penetrated into a wall where it is stopped after travelling a displacement of 3m. How much force is applied by the wall to stop it? (a) 900N (b) 90N (c) 30N (d) 2700N

Answer

None of (a)–(d) matches the correct value, 300 N.

The wall does work equal to the bullet's kinetic energy to stop it:

Fs=900 J ⇒ F=9003=300 NF s = 900\ \text{J}\ \Rightarrow\ F=\frac{900}{3}=300\ \text{N}

The listed options (900 N, 90 N, 30 N, 2700 N) do not contain this value.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

On walking on a horizontal surface, the work done by the gravitational force is (a) Positive (b) zero (c) negative (d) none of above

Answer

(b) zero

Gravity acts vertically downward while the displacement is horizontal, so the angle is 90∘90^\circ and W=Fscos⁡90∘=0W=Fs\cos90^\circ=0.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

The apparent weight of a body in a satellite revolving round the earth is zero because (a) weight is zero (b) acceleration due to gravity is zero (c) its mass becomes zero (d) its weight is used to provide centripetal force

Answer

(d) its weight is used to provide centripetal force

The satellite and everything in it are in free fall with the same acceleration, so the body does not press on its support. The gravitational pull is entirely used as the centripetal force, giving zero apparent weight. The real weight and gg are not zero, and mass never changes.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

The value of acceleration due to gravity is (a) maximum at the poles of the earth (b) minimum at the poles of the earth (c) maximum at the equator of the earth (d) maximum at the centre of the earth

Answer

(a) maximum at the poles of the earth

The earth is flattened at the poles, so the poles are nearer the centre, and there is no centrifugal effect of rotation there. Hence gg is greatest at the poles and least at the equator. At the centre of the earth g=0g=0.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

The intensity of gravitational field produced by a body of the given volume does not depend on (a) mass of the body which produces the field (b) distance of the place from the centre of the body (c) mass of the body which is used to measure the intensity (d) density of the body

Answer

(c) mass of the body which is used to measure the intensity

Gravitational intensity is force per unit test mass:

E=Fm0=GMr2E=\frac{F}{m_0}=\frac{GM}{r^2}

The test mass m0m_0 cancels out. It depends on the source mass MM (and so on density for a given volume) and the distance rr.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Thrust exerted by the liquid depends on (a) size of the surface of the container (b) density of liquid (c) acceleration due to gravity (d) all of above

Answer

(d) all of above

Thrust on a surface at depth hh is

F=PA=hρgAF=PA=h\rho g A

so it depends on the area of the surface, the density of the liquid and gg (and the depth).

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

To make a body float , (a) the density of the body should be greater than that of liquid. (b) the density of the body should be smaller than that of liquid. (c) the density of the body should be equal that of liquid. (d) both b and c

Answer

(d) both b and c

A body floats when its weight is balanced by the buoyant force. If its density is less than that of the liquid it floats partly submerged; if equal, it floats fully submerged. If its density is greater, it sinks.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

At the centre of the earth, what will be the pressure exerted by a liquid? (a) infinity (b) zero (c) any value is possible (d) none of above

Answer

(b) zero

Pressure due to a liquid is P=hρgP=h\rho g. At the centre of the earth g=0g=0 (the gravitational pulls from all sides cancel), so the pressure due to the liquid is zero.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

The conversion of heat into electrical energy is known as (a) chemical effect (b) physical effect (c) thermoelectric effect (d) electromotive effect

Answer

(c) thermoelectric effect

In the Seebeck (thermoelectric) effect, a temperature difference between the junctions of two different metals produces an emf, converting heat into electrical energy.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Water is used to cool the hot substances because of its (a) high density (b) low density (c) low specific heat capacity (d) high specific heat capacity

Answer

(d) high specific heat capacity

Water has a high specific heat capacity (4200 J kg−1K−14200\ \text{J kg}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}), so it absorbs a large amount of heat for a small rise in temperature, which makes it a good coolant.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Which of the following depends on the mass of the body? (a) specific heat capacity (b) thermal heat capacity (c) latent heat of fusion (d) latent heat of vaporization

Answer

(b) thermal heat capacity

Thermal (heat) capacity is C=mcC = mc, so it grows with the mass of the body. Specific heat capacity and the latent heats are per unit mass and are properties of the material only.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

When a cold body absorbs 4200J from one kg of water at 42K, what is the change in the temperature of water? (a) 4200K (b) 1000K (c) 1K (d) 100K

Answer

(c) 1K

Using Q=mcΔTQ = mc\Delta T with c=4200 J kg−1K−1c = 4200\ \text{J kg}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1} for water:

ΔT=Qmc=42001×4200=1 K\Delta T = \frac{Q}{mc} = \frac{4200}{1 \times 4200} = 1\ \text{K}

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

To increase the length of rod, the --------- of the rod should be increased. (a) temperature (b) material (c) density (d) mass

Answer

(a) temperature

Linear expansion is ΔL=Lα ΔT\Delta L = L\alpha\,\Delta T, so the length of a rod increases when its temperature is raised. Material, density and mass do not change the length of a given rod.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

If the kinetic energy of the molecules is high, it means it (a) has high heat energy (b) has more number of molecules (c) has high temperature (d) has more mass

Answer

(c) has high temperature

Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the molecules. Heat energy also depends on the number of molecules and mass, so high kinetic energy per molecule indicates high temperature.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

When potassium chlorate is heated, (a) hydrogen is liberated (b) nitrogen is liberated (c) potassium is liberated (d) oxygen is liberated

Answer

(d) oxygen is liberated

On heating, potassium chlorate decomposes (with MnO2\text{MnO}_2 as catalyst):

2KClO3→Δ2KCl+3O2↑2\text{KClO}_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} 2\text{KCl} + 3\text{O}_2\uparrow

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

If the bodies are in thermal equilibrium, they should have (a) same amount of mass (b) same amount of heat (c) same dimension (d) same temperature

Answer

(d) same temperature

Bodies in thermal equilibrium have no net heat flow between them, which happens exactly when their temperatures are equal. Mass, heat content and size can differ.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

When light enters from one medium to another, ------- of light remains the same. (a) speed (b) wavelength (c) frequency (d) path

Answer

(c) frequency

Frequency is fixed by the source. On changing the medium the speed and wavelength change (v=fλv = f\lambda) and the path bends, but ff stays the same.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

If a lens makes an image which is equal in size as object, the lens must be (a) concave (b) convex (c) Plano-concave (d) convexo-concave

Answer

(b) convex

A convex (converging) lens forms a real, inverted image equal in size to the object when the object is at 2f2f (image also at 2f2f). A concave lens always gives a diminished image.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

What is the deviation produced when a ray of light is reflected back normally from a surface? (a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 180° (d) 360°

Answer

(c) 180°

A ray striking a surface normally (i=0i = 0) is reflected straight back along its own path, so its direction is reversed: the deviation is 180∘180^\circ.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

To treat astigmatism, we have to use (a) Convex lens (b) concave lens (c) cylindrical lens (d) bifocal lens

Answer

(c) cylindrical lens

Astigmatism arises because the cornea or lens has different curvatures in different planes. A cylindrical lens, which has curvature in one plane only, corrects this.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

To have total internal reflection, the angle of incidence should be (a) equal to the angle of refraction (b) smaller than the angle of refraction (c) smaller than the angle of refraction and equal to critical angle (d) smaller than the angle of refraction and greater than critical angle

Answer

(d) smaller than the angle of refraction and greater than critical angle

Total internal reflection occurs when light goes from a denser to a rarer medium, so the angle of incidence is smaller than the angle of refraction, and the angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle CC.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Lens is used in (a) camera (b) binocular (c) hand lens (d) all of above

Answer

(d) all of above

Lenses are used in cameras, binoculars and hand lenses (magnifying glasses).

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Eye lens changes its focal length with the help of (a) retina (b) cornea (c) eye lens (d) ciliary muscles

Answer

(d) ciliary muscles

The ciliary muscles change the curvature of the eye lens, and so its focal length, to focus objects at different distances (accommodation).

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the non mechanical wave? (a) sound wave (b) water wave (c) light wave (d) ultrasonic wave

Answer

(c) light wave

Light is an electromagnetic wave and needs no medium. Sound, water and ultrasonic waves are mechanical waves.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

When sound wave enters from one medium to another, which of the factor of wave remains constant? (a) frequency (b) wavelength (c) speed (d) none of above

Answer

(a) frequency

Frequency depends only on the source. When sound enters another medium its speed and wavelength change, with v=fλv = f\lambda.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

The loudness of sound depends on (a) frequency (b) intensity (c) timbre (d) pitch

Answer

(b) intensity

Loudness depends on the intensity (amplitude) of the sound, as well as the listener's distance and sensitivity. Pitch depends on frequency, and timbre (quality) on waveform.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Noise pollution may cause (a) myopia (b) typhoid (c) hypertension (d) astigmatism

Answer

(c) hypertension

Prolonged exposure to loud noise raises stress and blood pressure and can cause hypertension. Myopia and astigmatism are eye defects; typhoid is a bacterial disease.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

To have echo, the minimum distance between the listener and the reflecting surface is (a) 17 m (b) 15m (c) 20m (d) 27m

Answer

(a) 17 m

The ear retains a sound for 0.10.1 s, so the echo must return after at least 0.10.1 s. With speed of sound 340 m/s340\ \text{m/s}:

d=vt2=340×0.12=17 md = \frac{vt}{2} = \frac{340 \times 0.1}{2} = 17\ \text{m}

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Which one is the infrasonic wave? (a) 20Hz (b) 20kHz (c) 10Hz (d) 200kHz

Answer

(c) 10Hz

Infrasonic waves have frequency below 2020 Hz. 2020 kHz and 200200 kHz are at or above the audible limit (ultrasonic range).

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Which of the following depends on the distance of the listener and the source of sound? (a) loudness (b) pitch (c) timbre (d) quality

Answer

(a) loudness

Loudness decreases as the distance from the source increases, since intensity falls with distance. Pitch and timbre depend on frequency and waveform.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

When the length of a conductor is doubled, its resistivity will be (a) soubled (b) halved (c) same (d) four times

Answer

(c) same

Resistivity ρ\rho depends only on the material (and temperature), not on dimensions. Doubling the length doubles the resistance (R=ρL/AR = \rho L/A) but leaves ρ\rho unchanged.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Fuse wire is made of alloy because it has (a) low melting point (b) high melting point (c) low specific heat capacity (d) high specific heat capacity

Answer

(a) low melting point

A fuse wire (e.g. tin–lead alloy) melts quickly when excess current flows, breaking the circuit and protecting appliances.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Which color wire is used for earth wire in our house wiring? (a) red (b) black (c) yellow (d) brown

Answer

(c) yellow

The earth wire is coloured green/yellow (yellow among the given options), distinguishing it from the live (red/brown) and neutral (black/blue) wires.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

If the number of turns in primary coil is six times greater than the number of turns in secondary coil in a transformer and 6V dc voltage is applied in primary coil. What is the secondary voltage? (a) 0V (b) 6V (c) 36V (d) 1V

Answer

(a) 0V

A transformer works only on alternating current. A dc supply gives a constant flux, so no emf is induced in the secondary and the secondary voltage is 00 V (not 11 V, which the turns ratio would give for ac).

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

Angle of dip is maximum at (a) the geographical poles of the earth (b) the magnetic poles of the earth (c) magnetic meridian of the earth (d) no where

Answer

(b) the magnetic poles of the earth.

The angle of dip is 0∘0^\circ at the magnetic equator and rises to its maximum of 90∘90^\circ at the magnetic poles, where the field points vertically.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Physics) · 1 mark

The chemical effect of electricity was discovered by (a) M.Faraday (b) Oerested (c) Ohm (d) Fleming

Answer

(a) M. Faraday.

Faraday studied the chemical effect of electric current (electrolysis) and gave its laws. Oersted discovered the magnetic effect, Ohm gave the law relating VV and II, and Fleming gave the hand rules.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

The difference between ammonia and ammonium is (a) an electron (b) a neutron (c) a proton (d) radioactivity

Answer

(c) a proton.

Ammonium NH4+NH_4^+ is formed from ammonia NH3NH_3 by gaining a proton (H+H^+): NH3+H+→NH4+NH_3 + H^+ \rightarrow NH_4^+.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

The most active non-metallic element is (a) chlorine (b) fluorine (c) oxygen (d) sulphur

Answer

(b) fluorine.

Fluorine is the most electronegative and most reactive non-metal, as it has the smallest size among the halogens and a very high tendency to gain an electron.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

The order of decreasing activity of the halogen is (a) F, Cl, I, Br (b) F, Cl, Br, I (c) Cl, F, Br, I (d) Cl, Br, I, F

Answer

(b) F, Cl, Br, I.

Reactivity of halogens decreases down the group as atomic size increases and the tendency to gain an electron falls.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Which of the following process is used to prepare ammonia commercially, (a) ostwald process (b) arc process (c) contact process (d) haber process

Answer

(d) Haber process.

Ammonia is made commercially by N2+3H2⇌2NH3N_2 + 3H_2 \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3 using an iron catalyst at about 450450-500 ∘C500\,^\circ C and high pressure. Ostwald makes nitric acid, the arc process makes nitric oxide, and the contact process makes sulphuric acid.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Which of the following is observed when ammonium chloride is heated with calcium hydroxide? (a) no rxn (b) odour of NH3 (c) fruity smell of an ester (d) fumes of nitric acid

Answer

(b) odour of NH3NH_3.

2NH4Cl+Ca(OH)2→CaCl2+2H2O+2NH3↑2NH_4Cl + Ca(OH)_2 \rightarrow CaCl_2 + 2H_2O + 2NH_3\uparrow

Ammonia is released and is recognised by its pungent smell.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Which of the following is formed when carbon dioxide gas is bubbled into line water? (a) CaCl2 (b) H2CO3 (c) Ca(HCO3)2 (d) CaCO3

Answer

(d) CaCO3CaCO_3.

Ca(OH)2+CO2→CaCO3↓+H2OCa(OH)_2 + CO_2 \rightarrow CaCO_3\downarrow + H_2O

Lime water turns milky due to insoluble calcium carbonate. Only with excess CO2CO_2 does it dissolve as Ca(HCO3)2Ca(HCO_3)_2.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Which of the following usually forms four covalent bonbs by sharing of electrons? (a) C (b) Na (c) Mg (d) N2

Answer

(a) C.

Carbon has four valence electrons (configuration 2s22p22s^22p^2) and completes its octet by sharing four electrons, forming four covalent bonds.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Which of the following is functional group of alcohol? (a) -CHO (b) -OH (c) – O - (d) –COOH

Answer

(b) −OH-OH.

The hydroxyl group is the functional group of alcohols. −CHO-CHO is aldehyde, −O−-O- is ether and −COOH-COOH is carboxylic acid.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

The first member of alkyne series is (a) ethene (b) ethyne (c) ethene (d) ethanol

Answer

(b) ethyne.

Alkynes have the general formula CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2}. The first member (n=2n=2) is ethyne, HC≡CHHC\equiv CH.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

The number of electron of an atom having atomic number 17 is (a) 17 (b) 16 (c) 19 (d) 20

Answer

(a) 17.

For a neutral atom, the number of electrons equals the atomic number, so it has 17 electrons (chlorine, 2,8,72,8,7).

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Which of the following substance act as a catalyst in the given chemical change? PClO3 + Q → PCl + O2(g) + Q (a) P (b) Q (c) PClO3 (d) PCl

Answer

(b) Q.

A catalyst changes the rate of a reaction but is unchanged at the end. Q appears unchanged on both sides, so it is the catalyst.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Ammonia gas can be collected in a gas jar by (a) the downward displacement of air. (b) the downward displacement of water. (c) the upward displacement of water. (d) the upward displacement of air

Answer

(a) the downward displacement of air.

Ammonia is lighter than air and extremely soluble in water, so it cannot be collected over water. It is collected by downward displacement of air, with the jar held upside down.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Which of the following in used as a fire extinguisher? (a) NH3 (b) H2 (c) O2 (d) CO2

Answer

(d) CO2CO_2.

Carbon dioxide neither burns nor supports combustion and is denser than air, so it blankets the fire and cuts off oxygen.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Which of the following general formula represent alcohol? (a) CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2} (b) CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2} (c) CnH2n+1C_nH_{2n+1}.OH (d) CnH2nC_nH_{2n}

Answer

(c) CnH2n+1C_nH_{2n+1}.OH

Alcohols are alkyl groups bonded to −OH-OH, with the alkyl group CnH2n+1C_nH_{2n+1}, e.g. CH3OHCH_3OH, C2H5OHC_2H_5OH.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Word "Eth" represent, (a) Prefix (b) Word root (c) Primary suffix (d) Secondary suffix

Answer

(b) Word root.

In IUPAC names the word root gives the number of carbons in the main chain: Meth (1), Eth (2), Prop (3), But (4).

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

–Ol is secondary suffix of (a) Alcohol (b) Alkane (c) Carboxylic acid (d) Aldehyde

Answer

(a) Alcohol.

In IUPAC names, the secondary suffix shows the functional group. For alcohols it is −ol-ol, e.g. ethanol.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Which of the following metallurgical process not describe the refining? (a) smelting (b) leaching (c) liquation (d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

(d) both (a) and (b).

Smelting is reduction of the ore to metal, and leaching is concentration of the ore by dissolving it. Neither is refining. Liquation is a refining method.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Following character represent the metals. (a) metals are malleable. (b) metals are good conductor. (c) metals generally forms basic oxides. (d) all of the above

Answer

(d) all of the above.

Metals are malleable, good conductors of heat and electricity, and generally form basic oxides.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

The electronic configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d6 represent (a) iron (b) copper (c) aluminium (d) silver

Answer

(a) iron.

The configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d61s^22s^22p^63s^23p^64s^23d^6 has 2+2+6+2+6+2+6=262+2+6+2+6+2+6 = 26 electrons, so Z=26Z=26, which is iron.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

Atoms constituting atomic number 58-71 represent. (a) d-block element (b) s- block element (c) p- block element (d) f- block element

Answer

(d) f-block element.

Elements with Z=58Z=58 to 7171 (Ce to Lu) are lanthanides, in which the 4f subshell is being filled.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Chemistry) · 1 mark

"O" – group element represent (a) noble gases (b) representative elements. (c) transitional elements (d) inner-transitional elements

Answer

(a) noble gases

The "O" (zero) group of the periodic table holds the inert gases He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe and Rn. Their valency is zero because their outer shells are complete.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Characteristic of simple epithelium is that they (a) are arranged indiscriminately (b) make a definite layer (c) continue to divide and help in organ function (d) none of the above

Answer

(b) make a definite layer

Simple epithelium is a single layer of cells resting on a basement membrane. The cells are tightly packed in an orderly arrangement, and they line body cavities, ducts and tubes.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Basement membrane is made up of (a) no cell product of epithelial cell (b) epidermal cell only (c) endodermal cell (d) both b and c

Answer

(d) both b and c

The basement membrane is a thin non-cellular layer under the epithelium. It is formed from the secretions of the epithelial cells and underlying connective tissue, and epithelia arise from ectoderm (epidermal) and endoderm.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Lymph differs from blood in possessing (a) only WBC (b) more RBC and WBC (c) more RBC and few WBC (d) more WBC and few RBC

Answer

(d) more WBC and few RBC

Lymph is colourless because it has no RBCs (or very few) and no platelets. It is rich in lymphocytes, a type of WBC.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Mineral found in red pigment of vertebrate blood is (a) magnesium (b) iron (c) calcium (d) copper

Answer

(b) iron

The red pigment haemoglobin has an iron (Fe2+^{2+}) atom in the centre of each haem group. This iron binds oxygen.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Histamine secreting cells are found in (a) connective tissues (b) lungs (c) muscular tissue (d) nervous tissue

Answer

(a) connective tissues

Histamine is secreted by mast cells, which lie in loose (areolar) connective tissue. It is released in allergic and inflammatory reactions.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Characteristics of smooth muscle fibres are (a) spindle-shaped, unbranched, nonstriated, uninucleate and involuntary (b) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriped, multinucleate and involuntary (c) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriped, multinucleate and involuntary (d) cylindrical, unbranched, striated, multinucleate and voluntary

Answer

(a) spindle-shaped, unbranched, nonstriated, uninucleate and involuntary

Smooth muscle fibres are long, tapering and unstriped, each with one central nucleus. They are found in the walls of the gut and blood vessels and are controlled involuntarily.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Afferent nerve fibre carries impulses from (a) effector to central nervous system (b) receptor to central nervous system (c) central nervous system to muscles (d) central nervous system to receptors

Answer

(b) receptor to central nervous system

Afferent (sensory) fibres carry impulses inward from receptors to the brain or spinal cord. Efferent (motor) fibres carry impulses from the CNS to effectors.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Which of the following is agranulocyte? (a) basophil (b) neutrophil (c) lymphocyte (d) eosinophil

Answer

(c) lymphocyte

Agranulocytes have no visible cytoplasmic granules. They are the lymphocytes and monocytes. Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are granulocytes.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Protein present in cartilage is (a) cartilagin (b) ossein (c) chondrin (d) none of these

Answer

(c) chondrin

The matrix of cartilage is made of a firm, rubbery protein called chondrin. It is secreted by the chondrocytes.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Which of the following is not the main function of lymph glands? (a) forming RBCs (b) destroying bacteria (c) forming WBCs (d) forming antibodies

Answer

(a) forming RBCs

Lymph glands (nodes) filter lymph, destroy bacteria, and make lymphocytes (WBCs) and antibodies. RBCs are formed in red bone marrow.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Tendon is made up of (a) yellow fibrous connective tissue (b) modified white fibrous tissue (c) areolar tissue (d) adipose tissue

Answer

(b) modified white fibrous tissue

Tendons join muscle to bone. They are dense bundles of parallel white collagen fibres, so they are strong and inelastic.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Ligament is a/an (a) inelastic white fibrous tissue (b) modified white fibrous tissue (c) modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue (d) none of the above

Answer

(c) modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue

Ligaments join bone to bone. They are made mainly of yellow elastic fibres and so can stretch a little, which gives flexibility at joints.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

The joint between atlas and axis is called (a) angular joint (b) hinge joint (c) pivot joint (d) saddle joint

Answer

(c) pivot joint

The atlas rotates on the odontoid process of the axis. This gives the head a rotating movement (as in saying "no"), which is the movement of a pivot joint.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

What is sarcomere? (a) part between two H-line (b) part between two A-line (c) part between two I-band (d) part between two Z-line

Answer

(d) part between two Z-line

The sarcomere is the structural and functional unit of a myofibril. It lies between two successive Z-lines and contains one A-band and half of each neighbouring I-band.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Collagen is (a) fibrous protein (b) globular protein (c) lipid (d) carbohydrate

Answer

(a) fibrous protein

Collagen is a tough, rope-like structural protein made of triple helices. It is the main protein of connective tissue, found in tendons, skin and bone.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of few cells of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells? (a) liver cells (b) neurons (c) malpighian layer of the skin (d) osteocytes

Answer

(b) neurons

Mature neurons do not divide, so they are not replaced when lost. Liver cells, the Malpighian layer of skin and bone cells can regenerate.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Silk thread is obtained from silk moth during (a) pupal stage (b) larval stage (c) nymph stage (d) adult stage

Answer

(a) pupal stage

Silk comes from the cocoon, the protective case that the silkworm spins around itself as it changes into a pupa. The silk is a secretion of the larva's salivary glands, and the cocoon is unwound for reeling before the moth emerges.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Which is not a true amphibian animal? (a) salamander (b) toad (c) tortoise (d) frog

Answer

(c) tortoise

Tortoises are reptiles with dry scaly skin and lay shelled eggs on land. Salamanders, toads and frogs are true amphibians.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Phenomenon of organisms resembling others for escaping from enemies is (a) adaptation (b) mimicry (c) homology (d) analogy

Answer

(b) mimicry

In mimicry an organism resembles another organism or object to avoid predators. An example is a harmless butterfly that looks like a distasteful one.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Fish which can be used in biological control of mosquitoes/ Larvicidal fish is (a) Eel (b) carp (c) cat fish (d) Gambusia

Answer

(d) Gambusia

Gambusia (mosquito fish) feeds on the larvae of mosquitoes. It is therefore used in biological control of malaria and other mosquito-borne diseases.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

A chordate character is (a) gills (b) spiracles (c) post-anal tail (d) chitinous exoskeleton

Answer

(c) post-anal tail

The chordate characters are a notochord, a dorsal tubular nerve cord, pharyngeal gill slits and a post-anal tail. Chitinous exoskeleton and spiracles are found in arthropods.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Blood of Pheretima is (a) blue with haemocyanin in corpuscles (b) blue with haemocyanin in plasma (c) red with haemoglobin in corpuscles (d) red with haemoglobin in plasma

Answer

(d) red with haemoglobin in plasma

Earthworm (Pheretima) blood is red because it has dissolved haemoglobin in the plasma. Its blood corpuscles are colourless.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Malpighian tubules are (a) excretory organs of insects (b) excretory organs of annelids (c) respiratory organs of insects (d) respiratory organs of annelids

Answer

(a) excretory organs of insects

Malpighian tubules are thin tubes that open into the junction of the midgut and hindgut. They remove nitrogenous waste (uric acid) from the haemolymph. Annelids use nephridia.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

An insect regarded as greatest mechanical carrier of diseases is (a) Pediculus (b) Cimex (c) Musca (d) Xenopsylla

Answer

(c) Musca

The housefly Musca domestica carries pathogens on its body hairs and feet. It spreads cholera, typhoid and dysentery mechanically. Pediculus, Cimex and Xenopsylla are not the main mechanical carriers.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Which one occurs in echinodermata? (a) bilateral symmetry (b) radial symmetry (c) porous body (d) soft skin

Answer

(b) radial symmetry

Adult echinoderms (starfish, sea urchin) show pentamerous radial symmetry, although their larvae are bilaterally symmetrical.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Adult Culex and Anopheles can be distinguished with the help of (a) mouth parts/colour (b) sitting posture (c) antennae/wings (d) feeding habits

Answer

(b) sitting posture

An adult Anopheles rests with its body tilted at an angle to the surface (head down, abdomen raised), while Culex rests with its body parallel to the surface, giving a humped look.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

What is common in whale, bat and rat? (a) absence of neck (b) muscular diaphragm between thorax and abdomen (c) extra-abdominal testes to avoid high temperature of body (d) presence of external ears

Answer

(b) muscular diaphragm between thorax and abdomen

Whale, bat and rat are all mammals, and a muscular diaphragm separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities is a mammalian character. Whales lack external ears and an obvious neck, and their testes are internal, so (a), (c) and (d) are not common to all three.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

In man and mammals, air passes from outside into the lungs through (a) nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli (b) nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli (c) nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli (d) nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

Answer

(d) nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

Air enters the nostrils, then passes through the pharynx and larynx into the trachea. The trachea divides into bronchi, which branch into bronchioles ending in alveoli, where gas exchange occurs.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

The nephridia in earthworm are analogous to (a) nematoblasts of Hydra (b) flame cells of Planaria (c) gills of Prawn (d) trachea of insects

Answer

(b) flame cells of Planaria

Nephridia and flame cells are both excretory/osmoregulatory organs with the same function but different structure and origin, so they are analogous.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Pneumatic bone is found in (a) shark (b) Rana (c) pigeon (d) whale

Answer

(c) pigeon

Birds have pneumatic (hollow, air-filled) bones connected to the air sacs, which make the body light for flight.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Temperature changes, in the environment, affect most of the animals which are (a) poikilothermic (b) homioiothermic (c) aquatic (d) desert living

Answer

(a) poikilothermic

Poikilotherms (cold-blooded animals such as fish, amphibians and reptiles) cannot regulate body temperature, so it changes with the environment and affects their activity.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the phylum (a) annelid (b) mollusca (c) cnidaria (d) echinodermata

Answer

(d) echinodermata

Echinoderm larvae are bilaterally symmetrical, but after metamorphosis the adults become pentamerous radially symmetrical.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

“Continuity of germplasm” theory was given by (a) De Vries (b) Weismann (c) Darwin (d) Lamarck

Answer

(b) Weismann

August Weismann proposed the germplasm theory: the germ cells carry the hereditary material continuously from generation to generation, separate from the somatic cells.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by (a) Wallace (b) Lamarck (c) Darwin (d) De Vries

Answer

(b) Lamarck

Lamarck proposed that characters acquired by an organism during its life through use and disuse are inherited by its offspring.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time of origin of life? (a) NH3 (b) H2 (c) O2 (d) CH4

Answer

(c) O2_2

The primitive atmosphere was reducing and contained NH3_3, H2_2, CH4_4 and water vapour. Free oxygen appeared later through photosynthesis.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Correct order is (a) palaeozoic —> archaeozoic —> coenozoic (b) archaeozoic —> palaeozoic —> proterozoic (c) palaeozoic —> mesozoic —> coenozoic (d) mesozoic —> archaeozoic —> proterozoic

Answer

(c) palaeozoic → mesozoic → coenozoic

The order of eras from oldest to newest is Archaeozoic, Proterozoic, Palaeozoic, Mesozoic, Coenozoic. Only (c) keeps this order.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

The homologous organs are those that show similarity in (a) appearance (b) function (c) origin (d) size

Answer

(c) origin

Homologous organs have the same basic structure and embryonic origin but may perform different functions, for example the forelimbs of a human, whale and bat.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Which of the following is the correct group of vestigial organs in man? (a) nictitating membrane, ear muscles, eyelids and coccyx (b) appendix, coccyx, ear muscles and elbow joint (c) wisdom tooth, coccyx, body hair and ear muscles (d) wisdom tooth, body hairs, nictitating membrane and vermiform appendix

Answer

(d) wisdom tooth, body hairs, nictitating membrane and vermiform appendix

All four are reduced, functionless remnants of organs that were functional in ancestors. Eyelids and the elbow joint are functional, which rules out (a) and (b).

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Evolutionary convergence is characterized by (a) development of dissimilar characteristics in closely related groups (b) development of a common set of characteristics in groups of different ancestry (c) development of characteristics by random mating (d) replacement of common characteristics in different groups

Answer

(b) development of a common set of characteristics in groups of different ancestry

Convergent evolution occurs when unrelated groups living in similar environments evolve similar features, for example the streamlined bodies of fish and dolphins.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

Which of the following are homologous organs? (a) wings of bird and hands of human (b) nails of human being and claws in animals (c) wings of bird and wings of insect (d) wings of bat and wings of cockroach

Answer

(a) wings of bird and hands of human

Both are modified forelimbs with the same basic bone plan and origin, so they are homologous. The wings of insects have a different origin from those of birds and bats, so those pairs are analogous.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

There is no life on moon due to the absence of (a) O2 (b) water (c) light (d) temperature

Answer

(b) water

The moon has no atmosphere and no liquid water, which life needs for its chemical reactions, so life cannot exist there.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Zoology) · 1 mark

In which era reptiles were dominant? (a) coenozoic era (b) mesozoic era (c) palaeozoic era (d) archaeozoic era

Answer

(b) mesozoic era

The Mesozoic is called the "age of reptiles" because dinosaurs and other reptiles dominated the land, sea and air.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The study of nuclear cytology is called (a) cell biology (b) neurology (c) anatomy (d) karyology

Answer

(d) karyology

Karyology is the study of the nucleus, including its structure and chromosomes.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Biology is widely known as science of exceptions. Which of the following dicot plant is exceptional in having no distinct cotyledons? (a) Cuscuta (b) maize (c) Cycas (d) rice

Answer

(a) Cuscuta

Cuscuta (dodder) is a dicot parasite with no distinct cotyledons. Maize and rice are monocots and Cycas is a gymnosperm.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

“I have same color of my eyes as my father does”. Which branch of biology most probably explains the cause of the above mentioned statement? (a) morphology (b) genetics (c) taxonomy (d) physiology

Answer

(b) genetics

Genetics studies heredity, that is, how characters such as eye colour pass from parents to offspring.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

What is the mode of nutrition in mushrooms? (a) autotrophic (b) parasitic (c) saprophytic (d) symbiotic

Answer

(c) saprophytic

Mushrooms are fungi without chlorophyll. They absorb nutrients from dead and decaying organic matter.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Which of the following plant group is composite, formed by symbiotic association of algae & fungi, and widely called biological indicators of pollution? (a) legumes (b) virus (c) bryophytes (d) lichen

Answer

(d) lichen

A lichen is a symbiotic association of an alga (or cyanobacterium) and a fungus. Lichens are very sensitive to air pollution, especially SO2_2, so they are used as pollution indicators.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not a dividing stage? (a) prophase (b) interphase (c) metaphase (d) telophase

Answer

(b) interphase

Interphase is the non-dividing (preparatory) phase in which the cell grows and replicates its DNA. Prophase, metaphase and telophase are stages of the dividing M phase.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

An organelle in which respiration occurs is (a) golgi bodies (b) ribosome (c) mitochondria (d) chloroplast

Answer

(c) mitochondria

Mitochondria are the "powerhouses" of the cell, where the Krebs cycle and electron transport of aerobic respiration take place and ATP is produced.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Ability of a plant or animal cell to repeatedly divide and differentiate into a complete organism is (a) cloning (b) breeding (c) totipotency (d) mitosis

Answer

(c) totipotency

Totipotency is the capacity of a single living cell to divide repeatedly and differentiate into a complete organism. It is the basis of plant tissue culture.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Reduction of chromosomes into half occurs in which of the following stages? (a) anaphase I (b) anaphase II (c) prophase I (d) telophase II

Answer

(a) anaphase I

In anaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles, so each daughter nucleus receives only one chromosome of each pair. This halves the chromosome number (reductional division).

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The cell of a corn plant has a diploid number of 20 chromosomes. When it divides by mitosis, what is the number of chromosomes in each of the daughter cells? (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40

Answer

(b) 20

Mitosis is an equational division, so each daughter cell has the same chromosome number as the parent cell: 2n=202n = 20.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Chromatin is to chromosomes as DNA is to (a) daughter cells (b) meiosis (c) genes (d) mitosis

Answer

(c) genes

Chromosomes are the condensed, organised form of chromatin, and chromatin is made of DNA and proteins. Likewise, a gene is a functional unit or segment of DNA, so the analogy that fits is chromatin : chromosomes :: DNA : genes.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Spindle fibers are attached to the chromosomes at (a) chromatids (b) interphase (c) metaphase (d) centromere

Answer

(d) centromere

Spindle fibres attach to the kinetochore, which lies on the centromere (primary constriction) of each chromosome. Chromatids are the two arms/copies, not the point of attachment.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

All of the following are true for bryophyta except (a) have no vascular bundles (b) need water for fertilization (c) have independent sporophyte (d) sperms are motile

Answer

(c) have independent sporophyte

In bryophytes the dominant plant is the gametophyte, and the sporophyte is dependent on it for water and nutrients. The other statements are true: there is no xylem or phloem, water is needed for fertilization, and the sperms are motile.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

In which of the following groups would you place a plant that produces spores, has vascular tissues but lacks seeds? (a) thallophyta (b) bryophyta (c) pteridophyta (d) gymnosperm

Answer

(c) pteridophyta

Pteridophytes (ferns and allies) reproduce by spores and have xylem and phloem, but they do not produce seeds. Bryophytes lack vascular tissue, and gymnosperms bear seeds.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Which one of the following plants is odd? (a) Marchantia (b) Selaginella (c) Horsetail (d) Adiantum

Answer

(a) Marchantia

Marchantia is a liverwort, a bryophyte. Selaginella, horsetail (Equisetum) and Adiantum are all pteridophytes.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Algae are different from fungi (a) presence of roots (b) saprophytic mode of nutrition (c) autotrophic nutrition (d) production of seeds

Answer

(c) autotrophic nutrition

Algae contain chlorophyll and make their own food by photosynthesis. Fungi lack chlorophyll and are heterotrophic (saprophytic or parasitic). Neither group produces seeds or true roots.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The zygote forms embryo in all plants except (a) algae (b) gymnosperm (c) bryophyta (d) angiosperm

Answer

(a) algae

In algae the zygote develops directly into a new plant body, or divides to form spores, without forming a multicellular embryo. Bryophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms are embryophytes.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Vessels and companions cells are present in the vascular bundles of (a) moss (b) fern (c) mango (d) Cycas

Answer

(c) mango

Vessels (in xylem) and companion cells (in phloem) are characteristic of angiosperms such as mango. Moss has no vascular bundles, and ferns and Cycas have tracheids and sieve cells instead.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Which of the following is a true moss? (a) reindeer moss (b) club moss (c) Iceland moss (d) peat moss

Answer

(d) peat moss

Peat moss (Sphagnum) is a true moss, a bryophyte. Reindeer moss and Iceland moss are lichens, and club moss (Lycopodium) is a pteridophyte.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

An organism which is generally without plastids and can synthesize its food (a) fungi (b) bacteria (c) algae (d) lichen

Answer

(b) bacteria

Bacteria are prokaryotes without plastids, yet some can make their own food by photosynthesis (using bacteriochlorophyll in membrane infoldings) or by chemosynthesis. Algae have plastids, and fungi and lichen do not fit the description.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The organism capable of destroying bacterial colonies is (a) virus (b) tadpole (c) lysosome (d) bacteriophage

Answer

(d) bacteriophage

A bacteriophage is a virus that infects bacteria, multiplies inside them and lyses (destroys) them, which destroys bacterial colonies.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Rod-shaped bacteria are called (a) bacilli (b) spirilla (c) cocci (d) pleomorphic

Answer

(a) bacilli

Rod-shaped bacteria are bacilli. Cocci are spherical and spirilla are spiral.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

All bacteria are classified as (a) algae (b) monera (c) parasite (d) virus

Answer

(b) monera

In the five-kingdom classification all bacteria (prokaryotes) are placed in kingdom Monera.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Which one of the following diseases is caused by bacteria? (a) small pox (b) rabies (c) AIDS (d) tetanus

Answer

(d) tetanus

Tetanus is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani. Smallpox, rabies and AIDS are viral diseases.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Viruses do not fit into biological concept of cell because they (a) lack cytoplasm (b) cannot reproduce (c) contain DNA (d) are small

Answer

(a) lack cytoplasm

Viruses have only a nucleic acid core and a protein coat, with no cytoplasm, organelles or metabolism of their own. They reproduce only inside host cells, so they do not fit the cell concept.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

During the life history of a fern, the fern plant is (a) sporophyte (b) gametophyte (c) prothallus (d) zygote

Answer

(a) sporophyte

The conspicuous fern plant with roots, rhizome and leaves is the diploid sporophyte, which is the dominant phase. The gametophyte is the small, free-living prothallus.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Male gamete of fern is (a) monoflagellated (b) biflagellated (c) multiflagellated (d) aflagellated

Answer

(c) multiflagellated

The antherozoid (sperm) of a fern is spirally coiled and bears many flagella, so it is multiflagellated and swims to the archegonium in water.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The male gametes of fern are attracted towards the archegonium by (a) malic acid (b) sugar (c) aspartic acid (d) protein

Answer

(a) malic acid

Fern antherozoids are chemotactically attracted to the archegonium by malic acid secreted from the neck canal cells (sucrose attracts those of bryophytes in some cases, but malic acid is the fern answer).

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The first cell of gametophytic generation is (a) zygote (b) gamete (c) spore (d) prothallus

Answer

(c) spore

The gametophytic generation begins with the haploid spore, which germinates into the prothallus. The zygote is the first cell of the sporophytic generation.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The most common function of xylem is (a) buoyancy (b) photosynthesis (c) storage (d) conduction of water & mineral salts

Answer

(d) conduction of water & mineral salts

Xylem carries water and dissolved minerals upward from roots to the rest of the plant, and also gives mechanical support.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Anaerobic respiration in yeast produces (a) alcohol and CO2 (b) CO2 only (c) lactic acid (d) formic acid

Answer

(a) alcohol and CO2

Yeast ferments glucose without oxygen: C6H12O6→2C2H5OH+2CO2+energyC_6H_{12}O_6 \rightarrow 2C_2H_5OH + 2CO_2 + \text{energy}.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The exchange of gases between a leaf and its environment takes place through special structures known as the (a) lenticels (b) xylem (c) stomata (d) phloem

Answer

(c) stomata

Stomata, pores in the leaf epidermis surrounded by guard cells, allow exchange of CO2CO_2, O2O_2 and water vapour. Lenticels do this in woody stems.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The correct order of arrangement, in terms of increasing complexity, of the following: 1- organ 2 – tissue 3 – cell 4 – system 5 – organism (a) 1-2-3-4-5 (b) 5-4-3-2-1 (c) 2-3-4-5-1 (d) 3-2-1-4-5

Answer

(d) 3-2-1-4-5

Cell (3) →\rightarrow tissue (2) →\rightarrow organ (1) →\rightarrow system (4) →\rightarrow organism (5).

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The growing region of a plant stem is called (a) bark (b) meristem (c) wood (d) phloem

Answer

(b) meristem

Meristematic tissue consists of actively dividing cells at the growing regions (apices) of stems and roots.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The food made during photosynthesis may be used for all of the following purposes except (a) protein synthesis (b) fat synthesis (c) storage (d) transpiration

Answer

(d) transpiration

Food from photosynthesis is used to make proteins and fats and is stored as starch. Transpiration is loss of water vapour and does not use food.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The response of a plant stem in growing upward in the dark is known as (a) positive geotropism (b) negative geotropism (c) positive phototropism (d) negative phototropism

Answer

(b) negative geotropism

The stem grows upward, away from the direction of gravity, so the response is negative geotropism. Since it is in the dark, light (phototropism) is not involved.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The vascular bundles in monocot stem are arranged in (a) ring (b) scattered form (c) mixed (d) tubular form

Answer

(b) scattered form

In a monocot stem the vascular bundles are scattered in the ground tissue and are closed (no cambium). In dicot stems they form a ring.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Which of the following has a clover leaf shaped structure? (a) DNA (b) tRNA (c) rRNA (d) mRNA

Answer

(b) tRNA

Transfer RNA folds into a clover-leaf secondary structure with an anticodon loop and an amino acid attachment site.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The molecule which contains all the information for carrying all the life processes (a) rRNA (b) tRNA (c) DNA (d) mRNA

Answer

(c) DNA

DNA is the genetic material that stores the information controlling all life processes. RNAs only help carry out its expression.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

A gene is said to be dominant if (a) it expresses its effect only in homozygous state (b) it expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous state (c) it expresses its effect only in heterozygous state (d) it never expresses

Answer

(b) it expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous state

A dominant allele shows its phenotype in both TTTT and TtTt; a recessive allele shows only in the homozygous state.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

During the process of respiration, energy is transferred from glucose molecules to molecules of (a) ATP (b) ADP (c) DNA (d) RNA

Answer

(a) ATP

Energy released from the oxidation of glucose is transferred to ATP (formed from ADP and phosphate), the energy currency of the cell.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

When hybrids are crossed with each other, the genotype ratio in the F1 generation (a) 3:1 (b) 1:1 (c) 1:2:1 (d) 2:1

Answer

(c) 1:2:1

Tt×TtTt \times Tt gives TT:Tt:tt=1:2:1TT : Tt : tt = 1:2:1 genotypic ratio, while the phenotypic ratio is 3:13:1.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

One similarity of DNA and RNA molecules is that they contain (a) nucleotides (b) thymine (c) uracil (d) ribose sugar

Answer

(a) nucleotides

Both DNA and RNA are polymers of nucleotides. Thymine and deoxyribose are specific to DNA, uracil and ribose to RNA.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Mendel’s dihybrid cross ratio is (a) 1:2:1 (b) 9:3:3:1 (c) 3:1 (d) 1:2:1:4:3:2

Answer

(b) 9:3:3:1

The F2F_2 phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross such as RrYy×RrYyRrYy \times RrYy is 9:3:3:19:3:3:1.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

What is present instead of thymine in RNA? (a) adenine (b) guanine (c) cytosine (d) uracil

Answer

(d) uracil

RNA has uracil in place of thymine; it pairs with adenine.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The uniting cells in sexual reproduction are called (a) zygotes (b) zygospores (c) spores (d) gametes

Answer

(d) gametes

Gametes (male and female sex cells) unite in fertilisation to form the zygote.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

A fruit develops from the part of a plant called (a) embryo sac (b) ovary (c) egg (d) pollen tube

Answer

(b) ovary

After fertilisation the ovary develops into the fruit and the ovules into seeds.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

A tuber is an underground (a) root (b) leaf (c) stem (d) flower

Answer

(c) stem

A tuber (for example potato) is a swollen underground stem tip with buds (eyes) at the nodes.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

All of the following are advantages of asexual reproduction except (a) the offspring are same as parents (b) cross-pollination is easier (c) increased number of progeny (d) reproduction is faster

Answer

(b) cross-pollination is easier

Asexual reproduction gives identical offspring, in large numbers and quickly. Cross-pollination belongs to sexual reproduction and is not an advantage of asexual reproduction.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Ovules develop within (a) calyx (b) corolla (c) anther (d) ovary

Answer

(d) ovary

Ovules are the structures that become seeds, and they develop inside the ovary (attached to the placenta) of the carpel. After fertilization the ovary becomes the fruit.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Morphologically onion is (a) root (b) stem (c) tuber (d) fruit

Answer

(b) stem

An onion is a bulb, a modified underground stem. Its short disc-like stem bears fleshy scale leaves and buds, and adventitious roots arise from the base.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Vivipary is a type of (a) germination (b) pollination (c) fertilization (d) respiration

Answer

(a) germination

Vivipary is the premature germination of seeds inside the fruit while it is still attached to the parent plant, as in mangrove plants such as Rhizophora.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Which of the following is not an artificial method of vegetative reproduction? (a) tuber (b) grafting (c) layering (d) cutting

Answer

(a) tuber

Grafting, layering and cutting are artificial methods of vegetative propagation. A tuber (for example potato) is a natural vegetative propagule formed by the plant itself.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

The plant propagated through roots is (a) sweet potato (b) Asparagus (c) Dahlia (d) all of the above

Answer

(d) all of the above

Sweet potato (tuberous roots), Asparagus (tuberous roots) and Dahlia (tuberous roots) can all be propagated from their roots.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Which of the following is the richest source of vegetarian protein? (a) rice (b) barley (c) soybean (d) gram

Answer

(c) soybean

Soybean contains about 40% protein, far more than rice, barley or gram, so it is the richest vegetarian protein source.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Nitrogen compounds in nitrogen cycle are broken down by decomposers to release (a) methane (b) ammonia (c) urea (d) nitrogen gas

Answer

(b) ammonia

Decomposers (ammonifying bacteria and fungi) break down proteins, urea and other nitrogenous wastes of dead organisms into ammonia. This is the ammonification step of the nitrogen cycle.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

An empty space is inhabited by grass, trees, ants, soil bacteria, earthworms, and mice. Together, all of these organisms comprise a (a) population (b) biome (c) community (d) species

Answer

(c) community

A community is made up of all the different populations (plants, animals, microbes) living together in an area. A population is a single species and a biome is a large regional ecosystem type.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Japanese beetles are a worse pest in America than in Japan because here (a) the soil is more fertile (b) there are fewer natural enemies (c) there are more plants (d) there is longer winter

Answer

(b) there are fewer natural enemies

The beetle was introduced into America without the predators, parasites and diseases that control it in Japan. With few natural enemies its population grows unchecked.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Which organism in this food chain can transform light energy to chemical energy? (a) lizard (b) beetle (c) aphid (d) apple tree

Answer

(d) apple tree

Only the apple tree is a green plant (producer). It carries out photosynthesis and converts light energy into chemical energy. The beetle, aphid and lizard are consumers.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

What is the association between two organisms called if both get advantage from each other? (a) mutualism (b) commensalism (c) predation (d) Parasitism

Answer

(a) mutualism

In mutualism both organisms benefit, as in lichens (alga and fungus) or legume roots with Rhizobium. In commensalism only one benefits, in predation and parasitism one gains at the other's expense.

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

In an ecosystem, the flow of energy is always (a) unidirectional (b) bidirectional (c) multidirectional (d) tridirectional

Answer

(a) unidirectional

Energy enters an ecosystem as sunlight, passes from producers to consumers, and is lost as heat at each step. It cannot be recycled, so it flows in one direction only (unlike nutrients).

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  • 2018 Practice MCQs (Botany) · 1 mark

Which of the following can explain the energy stored in an ecosystem? (a) trophic level (b) food chain (c) food web (d) pyramid of biomass

Answer

(d) pyramid of biomass

The pyramid of biomass shows the amount of living matter, and hence the energy stored, at each trophic level. A trophic level, food chain or food web describes feeding position or relationships, not the quantity stored.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

1 Å is equal to (a) 10−1010^{-10} m (b) 10−1010^{-10} mm (c) 10−1010^{-10} cm (d) 10−1010^{-10} km

Answer

(a) 10−1010^{-10} m

One angstrom is 10−1010^{-10} m.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

1 horse power is: (a) 746 joule (b) 746 watt (c) 476 watt (d) 764 watt

Answer

(b) 746 watt

1 horse power =746=746 W.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

The dimensional formula of PV is same as: (a) force (b) energy (c) moment of inertia (d) upthrust

Answer

(b) energy

[P][V]=[F][L2]⋅[L3]=[F][L]=[ML2T−2][P][V]=\dfrac{[F]}{[L^2]}\cdot[L^3]=[F][L]=[ML^2T^{-2}], which is the dimension of work or energy.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

The minimum no.of coplanar vectors of unequal magnitude can be added to give zero resultant are: (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5

Answer

(c) 3

Two vectors of unequal magnitude cannot cancel each other. Three coplanar vectors of unequal magnitude can sum to zero (they form a triangle), so the minimum is 3.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

The numerical ratio of displacement to distance is (a) always < 1 (b) always = 1 (c) always > 1 (d) may be less than equal to 1

Answer

(d) may be less than equal to 1

Displacement is never greater than distance, so the ratio is at most 1. It equals 1 for straight-line motion in one direction and is less than 1 otherwise.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which law gives the quantitative definition of force? (a) 1st law (b) 2nd law (c) 3rd law (d) law of gravitation

Answer

(b) 2nd law

Newton's second law, F=maF=ma (the rate of change of momentum), gives force its quantitative definition. The first law only defines force qualitatively.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which is not the unit of pressure? (a) pascal (b) dyne/cm² (c) Nm (d) N/m²

Answer

(c) Nm

Pressure is force per area, with units pascal == N/m2^2 and dyne/cm2^2. Nm is the unit of work (energy) or torque.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

“ If a body is emerged in a liquid the weight of displaced liquid is equal to the upthrust.” this is knownas (a) Pascal’s law (b) Ohm’s law (c) Newton’s law (d) Archimedes principle

Answer

(d) Archimedes principle

The upthrust on a body immersed in a fluid equals the weight of the fluid it displaces.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

If two masses of 4 kg and 16 kg are moving with equal kinetic energy. What will be the ratio of their momentum (a) 4:1 (b) 1:4 (c) 1:2 (d) 1:√2

Answer

(c) 1:2

Kinetic energy E=p22mE=\dfrac{p^2}{2m}, so p=2mE∝mp=\sqrt{2mE}\propto\sqrt m for equal EE. Thus p1:p2=4:16=2:4=1:2p_1:p_2=\sqrt4:\sqrt{16}=2:4=1:2.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

According to table, in which substance does temperature rise much if equal amount of heat is supplied in same time interval to equal mass.
SubstanceABCD
Sp.H.C (J/kg°C)4200800600400
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Answer

(d) D

For equal heat and equal mass, Δθ=Qmc\Delta\theta=\dfrac{Q}{mc}, so the rise is largest for the smallest specific heat capacity. D has the smallest value, 400 J/kg°C.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

An amount of water of mass 20 gm at 0°C is mixed with 40 gm of water at 10°C. Final temperature of the mixture is: (a) - 20°C (b) 6.60°C (c) 5°C (d) 0°C

Answer

(b) 6.60°C

By the principle of calorimetry (heat lost == heat gained, same specific heat), 20(θ−0)=40(10−θ)20(\theta-0)=40(10-\theta). So 20θ=400−40θ20\theta=400-40\theta, giving 60θ=40060\theta=400 and θ≈6.67∘\theta\approx6.67^\circC. The nearest option is 6.60°C.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

The specific heat capacity of boiling water is: (a) infinite (b) zero (c) 4200 J kg⁻¹ k⁻¹ (d) one

Answer

(a) infinite

At the boiling point, heat supplied changes the state without changing temperature. Since c=QmΔθc=\dfrac{Q}{m\Delta\theta} with Δθ=0\Delta\theta=0, the specific heat capacity is infinite.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

What amount of heat is required to increase the temperature of 10gm of water from 20°C to 30°C? (a) 420 J (b) 4200 J (c) 240 J (d) 2400 J

Answer

(a) 420 J

Q=mcΔθ=0.01×4200×(30−20)=420Q=mc\Delta\theta=0.01\times4200\times(30-20)=420 J.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following formula represents the definition of electric current? (a) I=QtI=\frac{Q}{t} (b) I=PVI=\frac{P}{V} (c) I=VRI=\frac{V}{R} (d) none of the above

Answer

(a) I=QtI=\dfrac{Q}{t}

Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of charge. I=V/RI=V/R is Ohm's law and I=P/VI=P/V comes from the power formula.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Three resistors of 4,5 and 6 ohms are joined in series. The total resistance will be: (a) 15 Ω (b) 1/15 Ω (c) 37/60 Ω (d) 37/30 Ω

Answer

(a) 15 Ω

In series the resistances add: R=4+5+6=15 ΩR = 4 + 5 + 6 = 15\ \Omega.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following instrument works under the principle of electromagnetic induction? (a) generator (b) motor (c) magnetic needle (d) electric bulb

Answer

(a) generator

A generator turns mechanical energy into electrical energy by changing the magnetic flux through a coil, which induces an emf (electromagnetic induction). A motor works on the force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Refractive index of light for glass is 1.5. The velocity of light in the glass is, (a) 3 × 10⁸ m/s (b) 2 × 10⁸ / m/s (c) 1 × 10⁸ m/s (d) 4.5 × 10⁸ m/s

Answer

(b) 2×1082\times10^{8} m/s

v=cn=3×1081.5=2×108 m/sv=\frac{c}{n}=\frac{3\times10^{8}}{1.5}=2\times10^{8}\ \text{m/s}

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Mirage is observed due to--------of light. (a) dispersion (b) interference (c) diffraction (d) total internal reflection

Answer

(d) total internal reflection

In a mirage, light from the sky passes through hot, less dense air layers near the ground. It bends away from the normal and meets the layer at an angle greater than the critical angle, so it is totally internally reflected and reaches the eye as if it came from water on the road.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

The suitable mirror for shaving is (a) plane (b) concave (c) convex (d) may be plane or concave

Answer

(b) concave

A concave mirror forms an erect, magnified virtual image when the face is within its focal length, so it is used for shaving.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Correct order of reactivity of the following: (a) Na > Li > K (b) Li > Na > K (c) K > Na > Li (d) K > Li > Na

Answer

(c) K > Na > Li

Reactivity of alkali metals increases down the group, because the larger atom loses its outer electron more easily. Li, Na and K are in that order down the group.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

The highest electronegativity is of (a) Fluorine (b) Chlorine (c) Bromine (d) Iodine

Answer

(a) Fluorine

Electronegativity decreases down a group. Fluorine is the smallest halogen and has the highest value (4.0 on the Pauling scale).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Latin name of gold is, (a) Ag (b) Hg (c) Au (d) Co

Answer

(c) Au

The Latin name of gold is aurum, so its symbol is Au. Ag is silver, Hg is mercury and Co is cobalt.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Zero group elements has valency, (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 8 (d) 18

Answer

(a) 0

Zero group (noble gas) elements have complete outer shells (octet, or duplet for He), so they neither gain, lose nor share electrons. Their valency is zero.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

1 Mole of carbon contains (a) 6.023× 10²³ ions of carbon (b) 6.023× 10²³ molecules of carbon (c) 6.023× 10²³ atoms of carbon (d) 6.023× 10²³ electrons of carbon

Answer

(c) 6.023×10236.023\times10^{23} atoms of carbon

One mole of any substance contains Avogadro number 6.023×10236.023\times10^{23} particles. Carbon is monoatomic, so the particles are atoms.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

When iron is treated with very dilute nitric acid then product is, (a) N2O (b) NO (c) NO2 (d) NH4NO3

Answer

(d) NH4_4NO3_3

Very dilute nitric acid is reduced all the way to ammonia, which combines with excess acid to give ammonium nitrate:

4Fe+10HNO3→4Fe(NO3)2+NH4NO3+3H2O4Fe+10HNO_3\rightarrow 4Fe(NO_3)_2+NH_4NO_3+3H_2O

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following compound gives hydrogen ion when dissolved in water? (a) NaOH (b) H3PO4 (c) MgO (d) CO2

Answer

(b) H3_3PO4_4

H3_3PO4_4 is an acid and ionises in water to give H+^+ ions. NaOH is a base, MgO is a basic oxide and CO2_2 is an acidic oxide that only forms H2_2CO3_3 with water.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following compound is base? (a) HCl (b) KOH (c) H2SO4 (d) PbSO4

Answer

(b) KOH

KOH gives OH−^- ions in water, so it is a base. HCl and H2_2SO4_4 are acids, and PbSO4_4 is a salt.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

During electrolysis of CuSO4, Cu++ move towards. (a) anode (b) cathode (c) both (d) solution

Answer

(b) cathode

Cu2+^{2+} is a positive ion (cation), so it moves to the negative electrode, the cathode, where it is reduced: Cu2++2e−→CuCu^{2+}+2e^-\rightarrow Cu.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Electrolysis is carried out by, (a) AC (b) DC (c) either AC or DC (d) non

Answer

(b) DC

Electrolysis needs a steady direction of current so that cations always go to one electrode and anions to the other. AC keeps reversing the polarity of the electrodes.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which gas is living gas? (a) H2 (b) O2 (c) N2 (d) CO2

Answer

(b) O2_2

Oxygen is called the living gas (gas of life) because it is needed for respiration and combustion.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

What is the general formula of alkyne?: (a) CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2} (b) CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2} (c) CnH2nC_nH_{2n} (d) CnH2n+1C_nH_{2n+1}

Answer

(a) CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2}

Alkynes contain a carbon-carbon triple bond. For example, ethyne is C2H2C_2H_2 and propyne is C3H4C_3H_4. CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2} is the formula for alkanes and CnH2nC_nH_{2n} for alkenes.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following compounds is Iodoform? (a) CHI3 (b) CHBr3 (c) CHCl3 (d) CH4

Answer

(a) CHI3_3

Iodoform is triiodomethane, CHI3_3. CHCl3_3 is chloroform and CHBr3_3 is bromoform.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following process is used for the production of alcohol? (a) Distillation process (b) Sublimation process (c) Evaporation process (d) Decantation process

Answer

(a) Distillation process

Alcohol is made by fermentation of sugar with yeast, and the dilute alcohol is then concentrated by distillation. Distillation is therefore the process used to produce (separate) alcohol.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Raksi is called; (a) methyl alcohol (b) ethyl alcohol (c) ether (d) acetic acid

Answer

(b) ethyl alcohol

Raksi is a local liquor made by fermenting grains and distilling. It contains ethyl alcohol (ethanol), C2H5OHC_2H_5OH. Methyl alcohol is poisonous.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Aquaregia is, (a) conc HNO3 + conc 3HCl (b) conc H2SO4 + conc 3HCl (c) conc HCl + conc 3H2SO4 (d) conc HNO3 + conc 3H2SO4

Answer

(a) conc HNO3_3 + conc 3HCl

Aqua regia is a mixture of one part conc nitric acid and three parts conc hydrochloric acid, by volume. It dissolves noble metals such as gold and platinum.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Molecular weight of CO2 is, (a) 22 (b) 28 (c) 44 (d) 18

Answer

(c) 44

M(CO2)=12+2×16=44M(CO_2)=12+2\times16=44

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing species? (a) Na+ (b) Li+ (c) Ba+2 (d) Mg+2

Answer

(d) Mg2+^{2+}

A stronger oxidising species has a higher (less negative) reduction potential. The standard reduction potentials are Li+^+ −3.04-3.04 V, Ba2+^{2+} −2.91-2.91 V, Na+^+ −2.71-2.71 V and Mg2+^{2+} −2.37-2.37 V. Mg2+^{2+} has the highest value, so it is the strongest oxidising species.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

The strongest reducing agent is, (a) HNO2 (b) H2S (c) H2SO3 (d) SnCl2

Answer

(d) SnCl2_2

Sn2+^{2+} is oxidised easily to Sn4+^{4+} (Eox∘≈+0.15E^\circ_{\text{ox}} \approx +0.15 V), a stronger tendency than H2_2S to S (≈−0.14\approx -0.14 V) or H2_2SO3_3 to SO42−_4^{2-} (≈−0.17\approx -0.17 V). HNO2_2 is mainly an oxidising agent.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Genetics is the study of (a) Heredity and variations (b) Forms and features of plant organs (c) Growth and differentiation in living organisms (d) Classification based on characters of somatic chromosome

Answer

(a) Heredity and variations

Genetics is the branch of biology that deals with the inheritance of characters from parents to offspring and the differences (variations) among individuals.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

The science of vegetable culture is called (a) Agriculture (b) Horticulture (c) Olericulture (d) Floriculture

Answer

(c) Olericulture

Olericulture is the science of growing vegetables. Horticulture covers fruits, vegetables and ornamentals, and floriculture deals with flowers.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Ginger is a (a) root (b) stem (c) tuber (d) leaves

Answer

(b) stem

Ginger is a rhizome, an underground modified stem. It has nodes, internodes and axillary buds, which a root does not have.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Mucor reproduces only by (a) vegetative reproduction (b) asexual reproduction (c) sexual reproduction (d) all

Answer

(d) all

Mucor reproduces vegetatively by fragmentation of hyphae, asexually by sporangiospores, and sexually by zygospores formed by the fusion of + and − hyphae.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Animal viruses mostly contains genetic material (a) DNA (b) RNA (c) DNA or RNA (d) none

Answer

(c) DNA or RNA

Animal viruses may have either DNA (e.g. herpes, smallpox) or RNA (e.g. influenza, HIV, polio), but never both in the same virus particle.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Viruses can multiply in (a) bacterial cells only (b) all living cells (c) specific cells only (d) rotten food

Answer

(c) specific cells only

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites and are host-specific. They multiply only inside particular host cells that have the right receptors.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

The main difference between animal and plant cell is that (a) animal cell lack rigid cell wall (b) animal cells have vacuoles (c) plant cell lack rigid cell wall (d) plant cells have small vacuoles

Answer

(a) animal cell lack rigid cell wall

Plant cells have a rigid cellulose cell wall outside the plasma membrane, while animal cells have only the flexible plasma membrane. Plant cells usually have a large central vacuole.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Extra nuclear DNA is found in (a) Chloroplast (b) Endoplasmic reticulum (c) Ribosomes (d) Nucleus

Answer

(a) Chloroplast

Besides the nucleus, DNA is also present in mitochondria and chloroplasts. This is extra-nuclear (cytoplasmic) DNA.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Blood is a (a) reddish fluid tissue (b) brownish yellow tissue (c) greenish white tissue (d) none

Answer

(a) reddish fluid tissue

Blood is a fluid connective tissue made of plasma and blood cells. Its red colour is due to haemoglobin in the red blood cells.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Nervous tissue consists of (a) neutrons (b) neurons (c) electrons (d) protons

Answer

(b) neurons

Nervous tissue is made of neurons (nerve cells) and supporting neuroglia cells.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Father of genetic is (a) Mendel (b) Wateson (c) Bateson (d) Darwin

Answer

(a) Mendel

Gregor Johann Mendel is called the father of genetics for his pea plant experiments. Bateson coined the term "genetics".

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Response of organism to stimulus of touch is called (a) phototaxis (b) thermo taxis (c) hydro taxis (d) thigmo taxis

Answer

(d) thigmo taxis

Thigmotaxis is the movement of an organism in response to touch (contact). Photo-, thermo- and hydrotaxis respond to light, heat and water.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Plant grows in desert is called (a) Pteriodophyte (b) cyclophyte (c) xerophyte (d) hydrophyte

Answer

(c) xerophyte

Xerophytes are plants adapted to dry habitats such as deserts (e.g. cactus). Hydrophytes grow in water.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Pollination occurs in (a) bryophytes and angiosperms (b) pteridophytes and angiosperms (c) gymnosperms and angiosperms (d) bryophytes and gymnosperms

Answer

(c) gymnosperms and angiosperms

Pollination, the transfer of pollen to the stigma or ovule, occurs only in seed plants, i.e. gymnosperms and angiosperms. Bryophytes and pteridophytes have no pollen.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Reproduction in yeast is (a) fission (b) budding (c) sporulation (d) all

Answer

(b) budding

Yeast reproduces mainly by budding, in which a small outgrowth forms on the parent cell and is then cut off. Sexual reproduction by ascospores also occurs, but budding is the usual method.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Globulin is found in: (a) liver (b) pancreas (c) lymph (d) kidney

Answer

(c) lymph

Globulins are plasma proteins. Lymph is derived from tissue fluid and contains plasma proteins such as globulin and fibrinogen, along with lymphocytes.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Which artery carries the deoxygenated to blood? (a) Pulmonary artery (b) Hepatic artery (c) Umbilical artery (d) Coronary artery

Answer

(a) Pulmonary artery

Arteries normally carry oxygenated blood, but the pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Fungi is (a) producers (b) consumers (c) decomposers (d) all

Answer

(c) decomposers

Fungi are heterotrophs that secrete enzymes and absorb nutrients from dead organic matter, so they act as decomposers (saprophytes).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 1 · 1 mark

Rabbit is (a) consumers (b) producers (c) decomposers (d) none

Answer

(a) consumers

A rabbit is a herbivore that feeds on plants, so it is a primary consumer.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

The dimensional formula [ML²T⁻²] represents: (a) acceleration (b) Force (c) angular momentum (d) energy

Answer

(d) energy

Energy=force×distance=[MLT−2][L]=[ML2T−2]\text{Energy}=\text{force}\times\text{distance}=[MLT^{-2}][L]=[ML^2T^{-2}]. Force is [MLT−2][MLT^{-2}] and angular momentum is [ML2T−1][ML^2T^{-1}].

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

One astronomical unit (AU) is equal to: (a) 10−1010^{-10} (b) 1.496×10111.496\times10^{11} m (c) 9.45×10159.45\times10^{15} m (d) 4.964×10114.964\times10^{11} m

Answer

(b) 1.496×10111.496\times10^{11} m

One AU is the mean Earth-Sun distance, about 1.496×10111.496\times10^{11} m. (9.46×10159.46\times10^{15} m is a light year.)

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

For which action, more force is required: (a) to pull a body (b) to push a body (c) both requires equal force (d) depend on condition

Answer

(b) to push a body

While pushing, the applied force has a downward component that increases the normal reaction, hence friction increases. While pulling, the upward component reduces the normal reaction and friction, so less force is needed.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

A body can have zero velocity and still be accelerating. (a) True (b) False (c) Can’t say unless the mass is unknown (d) None of the above

Answer

(a) True

Velocity and acceleration are independent quantities. For a ball thrown vertically upward, the velocity is zero at the highest point but the acceleration is still gg downward.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

The initial magnitude of momentum of a projectile projected at an angle θ is P, the magnitude of momentum at top most point will be: (a) P cosθ (b) P tanθ (c) p sinθ (d) P Cotθ

Answer

(a) Pcos⁡θP\cos\theta

At the top only the horizontal velocity component ucos⁡θu\cos\theta remains, so the momentum is mucos⁡θ=Pcos⁡θmu\cos\theta=P\cos\theta.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

The refractive index is: (a) scalar (b) vector (c) both scalar and vector (d) neither scalar nor vector

Answer

(a) scalar

Refractive index μ=cv\mu=\dfrac{c}{v} is a ratio of two speeds, so it has magnitude only and no direction.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Glittering of diamond is due to, (a) interference (b) dispersion (c) refraction (d) total internal reflection

Answer

(d) total internal reflection

Diamond has a very small critical angle (≈24∘\approx24^\circ), so light entering it undergoes repeated total internal reflection inside and emerges sparkling.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

The velocity of light is maximum in, (a) diamond (b) water (c) glass (d) vaccum

Answer

(d) vacuum

v=cμv=\dfrac{c}{\mu} and μ=1\mu=1 is the least for vacuum, so light travels fastest there (3×1083\times10^8 m/s).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

For which of the following color of light refractive index of the material is high? (a) Red (b) Green (c) Yellow (d) Violet

Answer

(d) Violet

By Cauchy's relation μ=A+Bλ2\mu=A+\dfrac{B}{\lambda^2}, shorter wavelength gives higher refractive index. Violet has the shortest visible wavelength.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

The field of view is maximum for: (a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror (c) convex mirror (d) cylindrical mirror

Answer

(c) convex mirror

A convex mirror forms a diminished, erect, virtual image and diverges the rays, so it covers a wider field of view than a plane or concave mirror. This is why it is used as a rear-view mirror.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

If sky is seen from moon’s surface it will appear: (a) blue (b) black (c) white (d) red

Answer

(b) black

The moon has no atmosphere, so there is no scattering of sunlight. Hence the sky appears black.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

In the celcius scale the correct value of absolute zero temperature is: (a) 0°C (b) -273.15°C (c) -32°C (d) 100°C

Answer

(b) −273.15∘-273.15^\circC

Absolute zero is 00 K, and T(K)=t(∘C)+273.15T(\text{K})=t(^\circ\text{C})+273.15, so 0 K=−273.15∘0\text{ K}=-273.15^\circC.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

1 cal = (a) 1/4.2 J (b) 4.2 J (c) 4200 J (d) 42.0 J

Answer

(b) 4.2 J

The mechanical equivalent of heat is 1 cal≈4.21\text{ cal}\approx4.2 J (exactly 4.186 J).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which has the highest specific heat capacity, (a) copper (b) water (c) hydrogen (d) silver

Answer

(b) water

Water has a specific heat capacity of about 4200 J kg−1K−14200\ \text{J kg}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}, much higher than copper (about 390390) and silver (about 235235). This is why water is used as a coolant and heat store.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Hailstones are produced/formed by freezing of (a) cloud (b) water vapour (c) rain drops (d) none

Answer

(c) rain drops

Hailstones form when raindrops are carried up by strong air currents into very cold layers of the atmosphere and freeze into balls of ice.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

At what temperature do celcius and fahrenheit scale coincide, (a) 40° (b) 50° (c) -40° (d) -50°

Answer

(c) −40∘-40^\circ

Setting C=FC=F in C5=F−329\dfrac{C}{5}=\dfrac{F-32}{9}:

9C=5C−160⇒C=−409C=5C-160 \Rightarrow C=-40

So −40∘C=−40∘F-40^\circ\text{C}=-40^\circ\text{F}.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

The minimum value of charge on any charged body may be (a) 1.6×10−191.6\times10^{-19} C (b) 1 C (c) 14\frac14 C (d) 4.8×10−124.8\times10^{-12} C

Answer

(a) 1.6×10−191.6\times10^{-19} C

Charge is quantised, q=neq=ne, so the smallest possible charge on a body is one electron charge, e=1.6×10−19e=1.6\times10^{-19} C.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

The diameter of a wire is reduced to half. Now the resistance changes by factor: (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16

Answer

(b) 4

R=ρlAR=\rho\dfrac{l}{A} and A=πd24A=\dfrac{\pi d^2}{4}, so R∝1d2R\propto \dfrac{1}{d^2} for fixed length. Halving dd gives a new resistance R(1/2)2=4R\dfrac{R}{(1/2)^2}=4R.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which of the following instrument is used to record sound? (a) Amplifier (b) Headphone (c) Dictaphone (d) Phonograph

Answer

(d) Phonograph

The phonograph records sound (as grooves on a cylinder or disc) and plays it back. An amplifier only strengthens signals and a headphone only reproduces sound.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which is the chemical formula of water-glass. (a) NaCO3 (b) SiO3 (c) Na2SiO3 (d) CaCO3

Answer

(c) Na2SiO3\text{Na}_2\text{SiO}_3

Water glass is sodium silicate, Na2SiO3\text{Na}_2\text{SiO}_3, a viscous solution used as an adhesive and preservative.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

The chemical formula of lime water is .... (a) CaO (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) CaCO3 (d) CO2

Answer

(b) Ca(OH)2\text{Ca(OH)}_2

Lime water is a dilute aqueous solution of calcium hydroxide. It turns milky with CO2\text{CO}_2 because CaCO3\text{CaCO}_3 forms.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

The elements which reacted with water and forms hydroxide and hydrogen called., (a) non metal (b) alkali metal (c) both a and b (d) none

Answer

(b) alkali metal

Alkali metals react with water giving the metal hydroxide and hydrogen, e.g. 2Na+2H2O→2NaOH+H22\text{Na}+2\text{H}_2\text{O}\to2\text{NaOH}+\text{H}_2. Non-metals do not form hydroxides this way.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

In the modern periodic table, the elements are arranged in the order of their, (a) atomic number (b) atomic weight (c) valency (d) all

Answer

(a) atomic number

The modern periodic law states that the properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic number, and the modern table is arranged in increasing atomic number.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Balanced chemical equation is..... (a) NH4Cl + NaNO2 → NaCl + N2 + H2O (b) Mg + N2 → Mg3N2 (c) CO2 + H2O → H2CO3 (d) Mg + O2 → MgO

Answer

(c) CO2+H2O→H2CO3\text{CO}_2+\text{H}_2\text{O}\to\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3

Each side has 1 C, 2 H and 3 O, so it is balanced. The others are not: (a) needs 2H2O2\text{H}_2\text{O}, (b) needs 3Mg+N2→Mg3N23\text{Mg}+\text{N}_2\to\text{Mg}_3\text{N}_2, (d) needs 2Mg+O2→2MgO2\text{Mg}+\text{O}_2\to2\text{MgO}.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Given reaction is the example of : 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2 (a) acid-base reaction (b) decomposition reaction (c) displacement reaction (d) addition reaction

Answer

(b) decomposition reaction

One compound, KClO3\text{KClO}_3, breaks down on heating into two simpler substances, KCl\text{KCl} and O2\text{O}_2.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

When moist blue litmus paper is dipped into acidic solution ,it changes into. (a) red (b) green (c) black (d) no change

Answer

(a) red

Acids turn blue litmus red.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

What is the PH value of strong acid? (a) less than 2 (b) more than 2 (c) less than 7 (d) more than 7

Answer

(a) less than 2

A strong acid ionises completely and gives a high [H+][\text{H}^+], so its pH is very low, between 0 and about 2.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

The gas collected at anode during electrolysis of water is: (a) hydrogen (b) oxygen (c) both a and b (d) none

Answer

(b) oxygen

At the anode (positive electrode) water is oxidised, releasing O2\text{O}_2; hydrogen is released at the cathode. The volume ratio is H2:O2=2:1\text{H}_2:\text{O}_2=2:1.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

When CaCl2 is ionized the it decompose on (a) Ca+ and Cl-- (b) Ca++ and Cl- (c) Ca- and Cl+ (d) none

Answer

(b) Ca++\text{Ca}^{++} and Cl−\text{Cl}^-

CaCl2→Ca2++2Cl−\text{CaCl}_2\to\text{Ca}^{2+}+2\text{Cl}^-. Calcium loses two electrons and each chlorine gains one.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

One of the property of nitrogen gas is..... (a) heavier than oxygen (b) heavier than carbon dioxide (c) inert in nature (d) easily soluble in water

Answer

(c) inert in nature

Nitrogen is chemically unreactive at ordinary temperature because of its strong N≡N\text{N}\equiv\text{N} triple bond. It is slightly lighter than air and oxygen, and almost insoluble in water.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

How many electrons does carbon have in its outermost shell..... (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 6

Answer

(b) 4

Carbon has atomic number 6, electronic configuration 2,42,4, so its outermost shell has 4 electrons.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Glycerol is (a) ...............alcohol a) trihydric (b) dihydric (c) ketone (d) none

Answer

(a) trihydric

Glycerol, C3H5(OH)3\text{C}_3\text{H}_5(\text{OH})_3 (propane-1,2,3-triol), contains three −OH-\text{OH} groups, so it is a trihydric alcohol.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Smoke particle is an example of; (a) solution (b) suspension (c) colloids (d) all

Answer

(c) colloids

Smoke is solid particles dispersed in air (an aerosol), with particle size between 1 nm and 1000 nm, so it is a colloid.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Milk is an example of: (a) solution (b) suspension (c) colloids (d) none

Answer

(c) colloids

Milk is an emulsion, with fat droplets dispersed in water. This is a colloid.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Metals have the property........ (a) electropositivity (b) electronegativity (c) both and b (d) none of a and b

Answer

(a) electropositivity

Metals readily lose electrons to form positive ions, so they are electropositive. Non-metals are electronegative.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Extraction of aluminium is done from its....... (a) magnetic ore (b) bauxite ore (c) haematite ore (d) chalcocite ore

Answer

(b) bauxite ore

Aluminium is extracted from bauxite, Al2O3⋅2H2O\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3\cdot2\text{H}_2\text{O}, by purification followed by electrolysis in molten cryolite (Hall-Heroult process).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Artificial silk is, (a) rayon (b) nylon (c) polyester (d) polythene

Answer

(a) rayon

Rayon is artificial silk, made from regenerated cellulose (wood pulp). Nylon and polyester are fully synthetic fibres, and polythene is a plastic.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which one is correct regarding coloured glass? (a) CaO used for blue glass (b) CuO is used for red glass (c) Cr2O3 is used for green glass (d) All are correct

Answer

(c) Cr2O3\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_3 is used for green glass

Chromium(III) oxide gives green glass. Blue glass uses cobalt oxide (not CaO) and red glass uses cuprous oxide, Cu2O\text{Cu}_2\text{O} (not CuO).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Metabolism refers to (a) Release of energy (b) Gain of energy (c) Catabolism (d) Gain or release of energy

Answer

(d) Gain or release of energy

Metabolism is the sum of all chemical reactions in a cell. Anabolism stores (gains) energy by building molecules, while catabolism releases energy by breaking them down, so metabolism covers both.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

What is nomenclature? (a) Genus name is written after species (b) Genus and species names are written in italics (c) Genus and species have the same name (d) The first letter of genus and species name is capital

Answer

(b) Genus and species names are written in italics

In binomial nomenclature the scientific name has a capitalised genus and a lower-case species, printed in italics (or underlined when handwritten), e.g. Homo sapiens.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

The term Cell was coined by (a) Robert Hooke (b) Cuvier (c) Haeckel (d) Theophrastus

Answer

(a) Robert Hooke

In 1665 Robert Hooke observed thin slices of cork under a simple microscope and called the box-like compartments "cells".

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Binomial nomenclature was given by (a) Linnaeus (b) Hugo De Vries (c) John Ray (d) Huxley

Answer

(a) Linnaeus

Carolus Linnaeus introduced the two-word (genus + species) naming system in Species Plantarum (1753).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

The Father of cytology is (a) Aristotle (b) Theophrastos (c) Cuvier (d) Robert Hook

Answer

(d) Robert Hooke

Hooke first observed and named cells, so he is regarded as the father of cytology, the study of cells.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Connecting link between living and non living organism is (a) Virus (b) Euglena (c) Archeoptenyx (d) none

Answer

(a) Virus

A virus is non-living outside a host (crystallisable, no metabolism) but becomes living inside a host cell, where it reproduces. It is therefore the connecting link between living and non-living things.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Science deals with the study of reptiles is (a) herpetology (b) Ichthyology (c) Entomology (d) Ornithology

Answer

(a) Herpetology

Herpetology is the study of reptiles (and amphibians). Ichthyology is fishes, entomology insects and ornithology birds.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Fins are well developed in (a) aquatic animals (b) flying animals (c) diggings animals (d) running animals

Answer

(a) aquatic animals

Fins are paddle-like organs for swimming, balance and steering, and are well developed in aquatic animals such as fishes.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Response of an animal to the stimulus of touch is (a) Thermotaxis (b) Thigmotaxis (c) Volant adaptation (d) Desert adaptation

Answer

(b) Thigmotaxis

Thigmotaxis is the movement of an organism in response to touch. Thermotaxis is the response to temperature.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which one is the smallest bone in the human body? (a) Radius (b) Ulna (c) Stapes (d) Incus

Answer

(c) Stapes

The stapes (stirrup) in the middle ear is the smallest bone in the human body, about 3 mm long.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which one is called mixed gland? (a) Pancreas (b) Thyroid (c) Pituitary (d) Thymus

Answer

(a) Pancreas

The pancreas is a mixed gland. Its acinar cells secrete digestive enzymes through a duct (exocrine), and the islets of Langerhans secrete insulin and glucagon directly into blood (endocrine).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which one is not a plant? (a) Mango (b) Orange (c) Banyan (d) Bamboo

Answer

(b) Orange

Mango, banyan and bamboo are named as plants (trees or grass). "Orange" here refers to the fruit or colour rather than the plant, which is the orange tree (Citrus), so it is the odd one out.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which one is called the brain of cells? (a) Ribosome (b) Mitochondria (c) Nucleus (d) Plastids

Answer

(c) Nucleus

The nucleus contains the DNA and controls all cell activities such as growth, metabolism and reproduction, so it is called the brain (control centre) of the cell.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Study of blood is called? (a) Serology (b) Pathology (c) Haematology (d) None of the above

Answer

(c) Haematology

Haematology is the study of blood and blood-forming tissues. Serology studies serum and antibodies, and pathology studies diseases.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which one is the connecting link between the Pisces and amphibians? (a) Lungfish (b) Hagfish (c) Dogfish (d) Starfish

Answer

(a) Lungfish

Lungfish have gills as well as lungs and paired fleshy fins, so they show characters of both fishes (Pisces) and amphibians. Hagfish and dogfish are fishes and starfish is an echinoderm.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Which one is only present in DNA? (a) Thymine (b) Uracil (c) Guanine (d) Adenine

Answer

(a) Thymine

DNA contains the bases A, T, G and C, while RNA contains A, U, G and C. Thymine is found only in DNA, and uracil replaces it in RNA.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 2 · 1 mark

Spirogyra belongs to (a) red algae (b) brown algae (c) green algae (d) blue green algae

Answer

(c) green algae

Spirogyra is a filamentous freshwater alga of the division Chlorophyta. It has spiral ribbon-shaped chloroplasts with chlorophyll a and b.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

The SI unit of velocity is: (a) m²/s (b) m/s (c) m/s² (d) m

Answer

(b) m/s

Velocity is displacement divided by time, so its SI unit is metre per second.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

A car moving with uniform velocity has: (a) Increasing acceleration (b) Zero acceleration (c) Decreasing acceleration (d) No velocity

Answer

(b) Zero acceleration

Uniform velocity means constant speed in a fixed direction, so the velocity does not change and a=ΔvΔt=0a=\dfrac{\Delta v}{\Delta t}=0.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a vector quantity? (a) Speed (b) Distance (c) Displacement (d) Energy

Answer

(c) Displacement

Displacement has both magnitude and direction. Speed, distance and energy have magnitude only, so they are scalars.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

If a body covers 80 m in 4 seconds, its speed is: (a) 10 m/s (b) 20 m/s (c) 16 m/s (d) 8 m/s

Answer

(b) 20 m/s

speed=distancetime=804=20 m/s\text{speed}=\frac{\text{distance}}{\text{time}}=\frac{80}{4}=20\ \text{m/s}

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Newton's Third Law states: (a) F = ma (b) Action = Reaction (c) Object in rest remains at rest (d) Weight = mass × gravity

Answer

(b) Action = Reaction

Newton's third law: to every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Work is said to be done when: (a) force is applied (b) object moves (c) displacement occurs in the direction of force (d) all of the above

Answer

(c) displacement occurs in the direction of force

Work is W=Fscos⁡θW=Fs\cos\theta. It is done only when the point of application of the force is displaced along the direction of the force (or has a component along it).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

The SI unit of work is: (a) Newton (b) Joule (c) Watt (d) Calorie

Answer

(b) Joule

1 J=1 N×1 m1\ \text{J}=1\ \text{N}\times1\ \text{m} is the SI unit of work. Newton is force and watt is power.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

A man pushes a wall but it does not move. The work done is: (a) Maximum (b) Zero (c) Minimum (d) Negative

Answer

(b) Zero

The wall has no displacement (s=0s=0), so W=Fs=0W=Fs=0 even though the man exerts a force.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Power is defined as: (a) Work × time (b) Force / time (c) Work / time (d) Energy / force

Answer

(c) Work / time

P=WtP=\frac{W}{t}

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

One kilowatt is equal to: (a) 1000 J (b) 100 (c) 1000 W (d) 10 W

Answer

(c) 1000 W

1 kW=103 W1\ \text{kW}=10^3\ \text{W} (kilo means a thousand). Joule is a unit of energy, not power.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Heat flows from: (a) Cold to hot (b) Hot to cold (c) Both ways (d) Never flows

Answer

(b) Hot to cold

Heat flows spontaneously from the body at higher temperature to the body at lower temperature until thermal equilibrium is reached.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

The temperature at which water boils at normal pressure is: (a) 0°C (b) 50°C (c) 100°C (d) 212°C

Answer

(c) 100°C

Water boils at 100∘C100^\circ\text{C} (212∘F212^\circ\text{F}) at normal atmospheric pressure. Option (d) is the same temperature on the Fahrenheit scale, not in °C.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Loudness of sound depends on: (a) Frequency (b) Amplitude (c) Wavelength (d) Time period

Answer

(b) Amplitude

Loudness depends on the amplitude of vibration (its intensity). Pitch depends on frequency.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Real images are always: (a) Upright (b) Virtual (c) Inverted (d) Magnified

Answer

(c) Inverted

A real image is formed where rays actually meet and it can be taken on a screen. Real images formed by lenses and mirrors are always inverted, while virtual images are upright.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Angle between normal and incident ray is called: (a) Angle of reflection (b) Angle of refraction (c) Angle of incidence (d) Right angle

Answer

(c) Angle of incidence

The angle between the incident ray and the normal at the point of incidence is the angle of incidence.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a unit of magnetic flux? (a) Tesla (b) Weber (c) Ampere (d) Ohm

Answer

(b) Weber

Magnetic flux Φ=BA\Phi=BA is measured in weber (Wb). Tesla is the unit of magnetic flux density, ampere of current and ohm of resistance.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Up thrust is the __________ force experienced by an object immersed in a fluid. (a) downward (b) horizontal (c) upward (d) gravitational

Answer

(c) upward

Upthrust is the upward force exerted by a fluid on an object immersed in it. It equals the weight of the fluid displaced (Archimedes' principle).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

What is the mass of an object weighing 98 N (g = 9.8 m/s²)? (a) 10 kg (b) 9.8 kg (c) 98 kg (d) 100 kg

Answer

(a) 10 kg

m=Wg=989.8=10 kgm=\frac{W}{g}=\frac{98}{9.8}=10\ \text{kg}

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

What makes the diamond to shine? (a) Reflection of light (b) Refraction of light (c) Total internal reflection (d) Critical angle

Answer

(c) Total internal reflection

Diamond has a very high refractive index (about 2.42), so its critical angle is small (about 24.4∘24.4^\circ). Light entering it undergoes repeated total internal reflection before leaving through the top, which makes it sparkle.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Who is known as the father of the modern periodic table? (a) Mendeleev (b) Dalton (c) Dobereiner (d) Newlands

Answer

(a) Mendeleev

Dmitri Mendeleev arranged elements by increasing atomic mass in 1869 and left gaps for undiscovered elements, forming the basis of the modern periodic table.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following is an alkali metal? (a) Calcium (b) Magnesium (c) Sodium (d) Aluminum

Answer

(c) Sodium

Alkali metals are the Group IA elements (Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs, Fr). Calcium and magnesium are alkaline earth metals, and aluminium is in Group IIIA.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

The reaction in which heat is released is called: (a) Endothermic (b) Exothermic (c) Displacement (d) Double displacement

Answer

(b) Exothermic

In an exothermic reaction the products have less energy than the reactants, so heat is released to the surroundings (e.g. combustion).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

A substance that speeds up a chemical reaction but is not consumed is: (a) Solute (b) Catalyst (c) Base (d) Inhibitor

Answer

(b) Catalyst

A catalyst changes the rate of a reaction by providing an alternative path of lower activation energy, and it remains chemically unchanged at the end.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which gas turns lime water milky? (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon dioxide

Answer

(d) Carbon dioxide

Ca(OH)2+CO2→CaCO3↓+H2OCa(OH)_2 + CO_2 \rightarrow CaCO_3\downarrow + H_2O

Insoluble calcium carbonate makes lime water milky.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which metal is extracted from bauxite ore? (a) Iron (b) Aluminum (c) Zinc (d) Copper

Answer

(b) Aluminum

Bauxite (Al2O3⋅2H2OAl_2O_3\cdot 2H_2O) is the main ore of aluminium, extracted by electrolysis of purified alumina (Hall-Heroult process).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

The reddish-brown gas released during the heating of lead nitrate is: (a) NO (b) NO2 (c) SO2 (d) CO2

Answer

(b) NO2NO_2

2Pb(NO3)2→Δ2PbO+4NO2↑+O2↑2Pb(NO_3)_2 \xrightarrow{\Delta} 2PbO + 4NO_2\uparrow + O_2\uparrow

Nitrogen dioxide is the reddish-brown gas.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

General formula of alkanes is: (a) CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2} (b) CnH2nC_nH_{2n} (c) CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2} (d) CnHn

Answer

(a) CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2}

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with only single bonds, e.g. methane CH4CH_4 (n=1n=1) and ethane C2H6C_2H_6 (n=2n=2).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following is used as a fuel in welding? (a) Ethane (b) Propane (c) Ethyne (d) Methanol

Answer

(c) Ethyne

Ethyne (acetylene) burns in oxygen to give the oxyacetylene flame, with a temperature of about 3000∘C3000^\circ C, used for welding and cutting metals.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Bleaching powder is chemically: (a) CaCl2 (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) CaOCl2 (d) NaCl

Answer

(c) CaOCl2CaOCl_2

Bleaching powder is calcium oxychloride, made by passing chlorine over dry slaked lime: Ca(OH)2+Cl2→CaOCl2+H2OCa(OH)_2 + Cl_2 \rightarrow CaOCl_2 + H_2O.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following is main ore of copper? (a) Chalcocite (b) Cuprite (c) Copper pyrite (d) Malachite

Answer

(c) Copper pyrite

Copper pyrite (chalcopyrite, CuFeS2CuFeS_2) is the main ore of copper, from which most of the metal is extracted.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

What is the primary method of producing ammonia gas industrally? (a) Haber process (b) Solvay process (c) Contact process (d) Ostwaald

Answer

(a) Haber process

N2+3H2⇌2NH3N_2 + 3H_2 \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3

This is carried out at about 450450-500∘C500^\circ C and 200 atm with an iron catalyst.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

In which reaction two or more reactants combine to form a single product? (a) Combination (b) Displacement (c) Decomposition (d) Acid-base

Answer

(a) Combination

In a combination reaction two or more reactants form a single product, e.g. 2Mg+O2→2MgO2Mg + O_2 \rightarrow 2MgO.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Halogens are kept in the group........ (a) IA (b) VIIIA (c) IIA (d) VIIA

Answer

(d) VIIA

Halogens (F, Cl, Br, I, At) have seven valence electrons and are placed in Group VIIA (Group 17).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which gas is released by refrigerators? (a) CFC (b) Carbon monoxide (c) CFl (d) Nitrogen

Answer

(a) CFC

Chlorofluorocarbons (e.g. freon, CCl2F2CCl_2F_2) are used as refrigerants. When released they damage the ozone layer.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Name the chemical compounds required for the laboratory preparation of carbon dioxide gas? (a) Calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid (b) Ammonium chloride (c) Sodium carbonate and nitric acid (d) Magnesium chloride

Answer

(a) Calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid

CaCO3+2HCl→CaCl2+H2O+CO2↑CaCO_3 + 2HCl \rightarrow CaCl_2 + H_2O + CO_2\uparrow

Marble chips and dilute HCl are used in the laboratory.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

What is the common name of calcium oxide? (a) Quick lime (b) Salked lime (c) Lime water (d) Calcium carbonate

Answer

(a) Quick lime

Calcium oxide (CaO) is quick lime. Adding water gives slaked lime, Ca(OH)2Ca(OH)_2.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

In what temperature carbon dioxide is cooled to make dry ice? (a) -78°C (b) 78°C (c) 100°C (d) 38°C

Answer

(a) −78∘C-78^\circ C

Carbon dioxide solidifies at about −78∘C-78^\circ C to form dry ice, which sublimes without melting.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following statement is wrong about detergent? (a) They are used in soft water only (b) They are used both in soft and hard water (c) They decrease the surface tension of water (d) They can be prepared from benzene sulphonic acid

Answer

(a) They are used in soft water only

This statement is wrong. Detergents work in both soft and hard water because their calcium and magnesium salts are soluble and do not form scum.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

If an atom of an element has three electrons in its outermost orbit, what will be its valency? (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 8 (d) 2

Answer

(b) 3

An atom with three outermost electrons (fewer than 4) loses them to attain a stable octet, so its valency is 3 (e.g. aluminium).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following is the basic structural unit of life? (a) Atom (b) Cell (c) Tissue (d) Organ

Answer

(b) Cell

The cell is the smallest structural and functional unit of life. Atoms are not living, and tissues and organs are made of cells.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Heredity is the transmission of traits from: (a) Teachers to students (b) Friends to friends (c) Parents to offspring (d) Environment to organisms

Answer

(c) Parents to offspring

Heredity is the passing of characters from parents to offspring through genes carried in chromosomes.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

  1. The layer of gases surrounding the earth is called: (a) Lithosphere (b) Hydrosphere (c) Biosphere (d) Atmosphere

Answer

(d) Atmosphere

The atmosphere is the layer of gases around the earth. The lithosphere is rock, the hydrosphere is water and the biosphere is living things.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Homo sapiens belong to which kingdom? (a) Animalia (b) Plantae (c) Fungi (d) Protista

Answer

(a) Animalia

Humans (Homo sapiens) are multicellular, heterotrophic organisms without cell walls, so they belong to kingdom Animalia.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

The queen honeybee lays how many eggs in a day (a) 10–50 (b) 100–200 (c) 500–1500 (d) 1500–2000

Answer

(d) 1500–2000

A queen honeybee is the only fertile female in the colony and lays about 1500–2000 eggs per day in the breeding season.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following helps in photosynthesis? (a) Chloroplast (b) Mitochondria (c) Ribosome (d) Lysosome

Answer

(a) Chloroplast

Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and carry out photosynthesis, converting light energy into chemical energy in glucose.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which organ removes nitrogenous waste from the human body? (a) Liver (b) Kidney (c) Lungs (d) Heart

Answer

(b) Kidney

The kidneys filter blood and remove nitrogenous wastes such as urea, uric acid and creatinine in urine.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which part of the brain controls voluntary actions? (a) Cerebellum (b) Medulla (c) Cerebrum (d) Spinal cord

Answer

(c) Cerebrum

The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and controls voluntary actions, thinking, memory and sensation. The cerebellum controls balance, and the medulla controls involuntary actions.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which of these is not a characteristic of living beings? (a) Reproduction (b) Respiration (c) Growth (d) Rusting

Answer

(d) Rusting

Rusting is a chemical change of iron and is not a life process. Reproduction, respiration and growth are characteristics of living beings.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which gas is responsible for global warming? (a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Hydrogen

Answer

(c) Carbon dioxide

Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas. It traps heat in the atmosphere, and rising levels cause global warming.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Which of the following tissue is responsible for transporting water in plants? (a) xylem (b) phloem (c) parenchyma (d) collenchyma

Answer

(a) xylem

Xylem conducts water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the other parts of the plant. Phloem transports food.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Plants of which division are known as amphibian plants? (a) Bryophyta (b) Tracheophyta (c) Pteridophyta (d) Algae

Answer

(a) Bryophyta

Bryophytes (mosses and liverworts) live on land but need water for fertilization, so they are called amphibians of the plant kingdom.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

A multicellular animal possessing tentacles fall in which phylum? (a) Mollusca (b) Porifera (c) Protozoa (d) Coelenterata

Answer

(d) Coelenterata

Coelenterates (Cnidaria), such as Hydra and jellyfish, are multicellular animals with tentacles bearing stinging cells (cnidoblasts).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Why are pines are kept in sub-division gymnosperm? (a) It has needle shaped leaves. (b) It has chlorophyll (c) It has naked seed (d) It has cone instead of fruit

Answer

(c) It has naked seed

Gymnosperms (gymnos = naked, sperma = seed) bear seeds that are not enclosed in a fruit or ovary.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Name the pores present in the body of porifera. (a) Osculum (b) Nephridia (c) Ostia (d) Spircle

Answer

(c) Ostia

Ostia are the many small pores in the body wall of sponges through which water enters. The water leaves through the large opening called the osculum.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Name the term which is used to organism having both male and female reproductive organs in its body. (a) Hermaphrodite (b) Saprophyte (c) Autotroph (d) Heterotroph

Answer

(a) Hermaphrodite

A hermaphrodite (bisexual) organism has both male and female reproductive organs in one body, for example earthworm and Hydra.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

How many chambered are there in the heart of frog? (a) 4 chambered (b) 3 chambered (c) 2 chambered (d) 5 chambered

Answer

(b) 3 chambered

The frog heart has two atria and one ventricle.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

Name the types of organisms which lay egg. (a) viviparous (b) oviparous (c) carnivorous (d) all of above

Answer

(b) oviparous

Oviparous animals lay eggs, for example birds, frogs and reptiles. Viviparous animals give birth to young ones.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

How many pair of chromosomes are there in housefly? (a) 6 pairs (b) 8 pairs (c) 12 pairs (d) 10 pairs

Answer

(a) 6 pairs

The housefly (Musca domestica) has 2n = 12 chromosomes, which is 6 pairs.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 3 · 1 mark

What is the full form of IVF? (a) Internal fertilization (b) Invitro fertilization (c) In situ fertilization (d) Invitro female

Answer

(b) Invitro fertilization

IVF is the fertilization of an egg by a sperm outside the body, in a laboratory dish. The embryo is then placed in the uterus.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

The unit of force is: (a) Joule (b) Watt (c) Newton (d) Pascal

Similar questions: The unit of pressure is: (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4) · The unit of heat is: (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4)

Answer

(c) Newton

Force is measured in newton (N), where 1 N=1 kg m/s21\ \text{N}=1\ \text{kg m/s}^2.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

A rocket moves forward by: (a) Air pressure (b) Thrust of fuel (c) Action-reaction principle (d) Engine power

Answer

(c) Action-reaction principle

A rocket pushes hot gases backward (action) and the gases push the rocket forward (reaction), as stated by Newton's third law. This works even in vacuum.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following is not a contact force? (a) Tension (b) Gravity (c) Friction (d) Air resistance

Answer

(b) Gravity

Tension, friction and air resistance act only when bodies touch. Gravity acts at a distance without contact, so it is a non-contact force.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

The unit of pressure is: (a) Newton (b) Pascal (c) Joule (d) Watt

Similar questions: The unit of force is: (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4) · The unit of heat is: (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4)

Answer

(b) Pascal

Pressure =forcearea=\dfrac{\text{force}}{\text{area}}, so its unit is N/m2\text{N/m}^2, called pascal (Pa).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Atmospheric pressure is measured by: (a) Thermometer (b) Manometer (c) Barometer (d) Hygrometer

Answer

(c) Barometer

A barometer (such as a mercury barometer or aneroid barometer) measures atmospheric pressure. A manometer measures gas pressure in a closed container.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

A simple machine increases: (a) Force (b) Energy (c) Work (d) Time

Answer

(a) Force

A simple machine acts as a force multiplier: a small effort can overcome a large load, so it makes work easier. It cannot increase energy or work (work output is never more than work input), and it does not reduce time.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

A pulley is used to: (a) Increase friction (b) Change direction of force (c) Decrease weight (d) Stop motion

Answer

(b) Change direction of force

A fixed pulley has mechanical advantage 1 but lets us pull downward to lift a load upward, which is more convenient.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Mechanical advantage is defined as: (a) Load/Effort (b) Effort/Load (c) Output/Input (d) Load × Effort

Answer

(a) Load/Effort

M.A.=LoadEffort\text{M.A.}=\frac{\text{Load}}{\text{Effort}}

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Power is measured in: (a) N (b) J (c) W (d) m/s

Answer

(c) W

Power is the rate of doing work, P=WtP=\dfrac{W}{t}. Its SI unit is the watt (W), equal to 1 J/s.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

The work done in lifting a 10 N load by 2 m is: (a) 10 J (b) 20 J (c) 5 J (d) 2 J

Answer

(b) 20 J

W=F×d=10 N×2 m=20 JW = F \times d = 10\ \text{N} \times 2\ \text{m} = 20\ \text{J}

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

The unit of heat is: (a) Watt (b) Newton (c) Joule (d) Pascal

Similar questions: The unit of force is: (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4) · The unit of pressure is: (2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4)

Answer

(c) Joule

Heat is a form of energy, so its SI unit is the joule (J). The calorie is a non-SI unit.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

The SI unit of temperature is: (a) Celsius (b) Kelvin (c) Fahrenheit (d) Calorie

Answer

(b) Kelvin

The SI unit of temperature is the kelvin (K), where T(K)=t(∘C)+273T(\text{K}) = t(^\circ\text{C}) + 273.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

The range of human hearing is: (a) 20 – 2000 Hz (b) 200 – 20000 Hz (c) 20 – 20000 Hz (d) 2000 – 20000 Hz

Answer

(c) 20 – 20000 Hz

Sound of frequency below 20 Hz (infrasonic) and above 20000 Hz (ultrasonic) cannot be heard by normal human ears.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

The speed of light in vacuum is: (a) 3 × 10⁵ m/s (b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s (c) 3 × 10⁶ m/s (d) 3 × 10⁴ m/s

Answer

(b) 3×1083 \times 10^{8} m/s

Light travels at about 3×1083\times10^8 m/s in vacuum.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which mirror is used in solar cookers? (a) Convex (b) Concave (c) Plane (d) None

Answer

(b) Concave

A concave (parabolic) mirror converges parallel sun rays to its focus, where the cooking vessel is placed.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

How much time does a stone take to reach on the surface of the earth dropped from the height of 20 m? (a) 2 seconds (b) 4 seconds (c) 10 seconds (d) 20 seconds

Answer

(a) 2 seconds

For a body dropped from rest, h=12gt2h=\tfrac12 g t^2. Taking g=10 m/s2g=10\ \text{m/s}^2:

t=2hg=2×2010=4=2 st=\sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}}=\sqrt{\frac{2\times20}{10}}=\sqrt{4}=2\ \text{s}

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

What is the unit of power of lens? (a) Newton (N) (b) Watt (W) (c) Joule (J) (d) Dioptre (D)

Answer

(d) Dioptre (D)

Power of a lens P=1f (in m)P=\dfrac{1}{f\ (\text{in m})}, and its unit is the dioptre (D).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

One complete cycle of motion is called: (a) Vibration (b) Period (c) Oscillation (d) Frequency

Answer

(c) Oscillation

One complete to-and-fro cycle of motion is called an oscillation (also called a vibration). The time for one oscillation is the period, and the number per second is the frequency.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

If the same magnitude of upthrust acts on the three cubical balls made up of different materials on keeping them in water, which one of the following quantities is equal for them? (a) Density (b) Weight (c) Volume (d) Mass

Answer

(c) Volume

Upthrust equals the weight of liquid displaced, U=VρwatergU=V\rho_{\text{water}}g. For equal upthrust the displaced volume is equal, and for fully immersed balls this is the volume of the balls. Their density, weight and mass can differ.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

The vertical columns in the periodic table are called: (a) Periods (b) Groups (c) Rows (d) Series

Answer

(b) Groups

The vertical columns of the periodic table are groups (18 in the modern table), and the horizontal rows are periods.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following elements shows properties of both metals and non-metals? (a) Sulfur (b) Silicon (c) Phosphorus (d) Carbon

Answer

(b) Silicon

Silicon is a metalloid: it is lustrous like a metal and is a semiconductor, but it is brittle and forms acidic oxides like a non-metal. Sulfur, phosphorus and carbon (as diamond) are non-metals.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which one is a physical change? (a) Rusting of iron (b) Melting of ice (c) Digestion of food (d) Burning of coal

Answer

(b) Melting of ice

Melting only changes the state from solid to liquid and no new substance forms. Rusting, digestion and burning of coal form new substances, so they are chemical changes.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which gas is used in photosynthesis? (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Nitrogen

Answer

(c) Carbon dioxide

In photosynthesis green plants take in CO2CO_2 and water, and with sunlight and chlorophyll make glucose and release oxygen:

6CO2+6H2O→sunlight, chlorophyllC6H12O6+6O26CO_2 + 6H_2O \xrightarrow{\text{sunlight, chlorophyll}} C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Ammonia gas is basic because it: (a) Turns red litmus blue (b) Turns blue litmus red (c) Burns in air (d) Is colorless

Answer

(a) Turns red litmus blue

Ammonia dissolves in water to form NH4OHNH_4OH, which gives OH−OH^- ions. A base turns red litmus blue; colour and combustibility do not decide acidity or basicity.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which one is not a property of metals? (a) Good conductor (b) Lustrous (c) Brittle (d) Ductile

Answer

(c) Brittle

Metals are good conductors, lustrous, malleable and ductile. Brittleness (breaking when hammered) is a property of non-metals.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a household base? (a) HCl (b) NaOH (c) Vinegar (d) Baking soda

Answer

(d) Baking soda

Baking soda (sodium bicarbonate, NaHCO3NaHCO_3) is a mild base found in households. HCl and NaOH are laboratory strong acid and base, and vinegar is an acid.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following is used in cold packs? (a) Ammonium chloride (b) Urea (c) Ammonium nitrate (d) Sodium carbonate

Answer

(c) Ammonium nitrate

Ammonium nitrate dissolves in water by absorbing a large amount of heat (endothermic), so the pack becomes cold. It is used in instant cold packs.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which process of concentration involves the use of water? (a) Magnetic separation (b) Forth floatation (c) Chemical separation (d) Gravity separation

Answer

(d) Gravity separation

In gravity separation (hydraulic washing) a stream of water washes away the lighter gangue particles and leaves the heavier ore particles behind. Froth floatation uses oil and water too, but the process that depends on water flow and density difference is gravity separation.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

General formula of alkyne is __________. (a) CnH2nC_nH_{2n} (b) CnH2n+2C_nH_{2n+2} (c) CnH2n+1C_nH_{2n+1} (d) CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2}

Answer

(d) CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2}

Alkynes contain a carbon-carbon triple bond. For example, ethyne is C2H2C_2H_2, which fits CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2} with n=2n=2.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which hydrocarbon is used in L.P.G.? (a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Propane (d) Butane

Answer

(d) Butane

LPG is mainly a mixture of butane (C4H10C_4H_{10}) with some propane, compressed into liquid form. Butane is the main component, so it is the best answer.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Molecular formula of acetylene is __________. (a) C H2 (b) CH4 (c) C2H2 (d) C2 H4

Answer

(c) C2H2C_2H_2

Acetylene is the common name of ethyne, HC≡CHHC\equiv CH, with molecular formula C2H2C_2H_2.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which alcohol is used as thermometer liquid in thermometer? (a) Methanol (b) Ethanol (c) Propanol (d) Glycerol

Answer

(b) Ethanol

Ethanol is used in thermometers because it has a very low freezing point (−114∘C-114^\circ C), so it works at low temperatures. It is coloured red with dye to make it visible.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Example of detergent is __________. (a) Sodium Sterate (b) Sodium Lauryl sulphate (c) Sodium Oleate (d) Sodium palmitate

Answer

(b) Sodium lauryl sulphate

Detergents are sodium salts of sulphonic or sulphuric acid esters of long-chain alcohols, such as sodium lauryl sulphate. Sodium stearate, oleate and palmitate are soaps.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Full form of B.H.C. is __________. (a) Boron hexa chloride (b) Butane hydro chloride (c) Benzene hexa chloride (d) Brominehydro chloride

Answer

(c) Benzene hexa chloride

BHC is C6H6Cl6C_6H_6Cl_6, made by adding chlorine to benzene in sunlight. It is used as an insecticide.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Urea is an example of______________ rich fertilizer. (a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphorus (c) Potassium (d) Calcium

Answer

(a) Nitrogen

Urea, CO(NH2)2CO(NH_2)_2, contains about 46% nitrogen, so it is a nitrogen-rich fertilizer.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Bauxite is the main ore of __________ metal. (a) Silver (b) Iron (c) Copper (d) Aluminium

Answer

(d) Aluminium

Bauxite, Al2O3⋅2H2OAl_2O_3\cdot 2H_2O, is the main ore of aluminium.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Calcination process is used for__________ (a) Haematite (b) Magnetite (c) Siderite (d) Limonite

Answer

(c) Siderite

Calcination is heating an ore strongly in limited or no air. It is used for carbonate and hydrated ores, and siderite (FeCO3FeCO_3) is a carbonate:

FeCO3→ΔFeO+CO2↑FeCO_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} FeO + CO_2\uparrow

Haematite and magnetite are oxides; limonite is hydrated and is often also calcined, but siderite is the standard example.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

The part of the cell that controls all activities is: (a) Nucleus (b) Mitochondria (c) Cytoplasm (d) Ribosome

Answer

(a) Nucleus

The nucleus contains the chromosomes and genetic material (DNA) and controls all activities of the cell, so it is called the control centre.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Mendel is known as the father of (a) Evolution (b) Genetics (c) Botany (d) Heredity

Answer

(b) Genetics

Gregor Johann Mendel, from his pea plant experiments, laid the foundation of the laws of inheritance and is called the father of genetics.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Deforestation leads to: (a) Increase in oxygen (b) Soil erosion (c) More rainfall (d) Less CO2

Answer

(b) Soil erosion

Without tree roots to bind the soil, rain and wind wash away the topsoil. Deforestation also decreases oxygen, reduces rainfall and increases CO2CO_2.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a unicellular organism? (a) Amoeba (b) Earthworm (c) Mushroom (d) Ant

Answer

(a) Amoeba

Amoeba is a single-celled organism. Earthworm, mushroom and ant are multicellular.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

In honeybee society, which caste performs the function of guarding? (a) Queen (b) Drone (c) Worker (d) Larva

Answer

(c) Worker

Worker bees (sterile females) do the colony jobs, including guarding the hive. The queen lays eggs and drones mate with the queen.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

The process of taking in oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide is called: (a) Photosynthesis (b) Transpiration (c) Respiration (d) Digestion

Answer

(c) Respiration

Respiration takes in oxygen to oxidise food and releases carbon dioxide, water and energy. Photosynthesis does the opposite, and transpiration is loss of water vapour from plants.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

The green pigment in plants is called: (a) Hemoglobin (b) Chlorophyll (c) Carotene (d) Xanthophyll

Answer

(b) Chlorophyll. It is the green pigment in chloroplasts that absorbs light for photosynthesis.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which kingdom includes bacteria? (a) Animalia (b) Monera (c) Protista (d) Fungi

Answer

(b) Monera. Bacteria are unicellular prokaryotes, which belong to Kingdom Monera.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

DNA is mainly found in: (a) Mitochondria (b) Cytoplasm (c) Ribosome (d) Nucleus

Answer

(d) Nucleus. Most of the cell's DNA is packed into chromosomes in the nucleus (a small amount is in mitochondria and chloroplasts).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

What do bees collect from flowers? (a) Water (b) Pollen and nectar (c) Oxygen (d) Carbon dioxide

Answer

(b) Pollen and nectar. Bees collect nectar to make honey and pollen as protein-rich food for the colony.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which system in the human body is responsible for transporting nutrients and oxygen? (a) Respiratory system (b) Digestive system (c) Circulatory system (d) Excretory system

Answer

(c) Circulatory system. The heart, blood and blood vessels carry nutrients and oxygen to all body cells.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which group of organisms are called prokaryotes? (a) Fungi (b) Protists (c) Bacteria (d) Algae

Answer

(c) Bacteria. Prokaryotes lack a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles; bacteria are the typical example, while fungi, protists and algae are eukaryotes.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which one is fertile female in the beehive? (a) Queen bee (b) Drone bee (c) Worker bee (d) All of above

Answer

(a) Queen bee. She is the only fertile female and lays the eggs; worker bees are sterile females and drones are males.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which disease is caused due to the deficiency of haemoglobin? (a) Diabetes (b) Anaemia (c) Haemophilia (d) Leukemia

Answer

(b) Anaemia. A deficiency of haemoglobin (or red blood cells) reduces oxygen transport, causing anaemia.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

A person feels thirstier, hungrier, dizzy and sometime faints, has frequent urination, blurred vision etc. What is her problem? (a) High blood pressure (b) Problem of uric acid (c) High blood sugar in blood (d) Anaemia

Answer

(c) High blood sugar in blood. Thirst, hunger, frequent urination, dizziness and blurred vision are classic symptoms of hyperglycaemia (diabetes mellitus).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

What is the term for a characteristic is passed down from generation to generation? (a) Dominant character (b) Recessive character (c) Heredity character (d) Imported character

Answer

(c) Heredity character. The transmission of characters from parents to offspring across generations is called heredity.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Genotype ratio in F2 generation of (a) 3:1 (b) 1:2:1 (c) 2:1:1 (d) 1:3

Answer

(b) 1:2:1. In a monohybrid cross, F2 genotypes are TT:Tt:tt=1:2:1TT : Tt : tt = 1 : 2 : 1 (the phenotypic ratio is 3:13:1).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 4 · 1 mark

Which type of chromosome has one very long & one very short arm? (a) Acrocentric (b) Metacentric (c) Sub-metacentric (d) Telocentric

Answer

(a) Acrocentric. Its centromere is near one end, giving one very long arm and one very short arm.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

If a man can jump 1.5 m high on the surface of the earth then how much high can he jump on the lunar surface ? (a) 15 m (b) 9 m (c) 3 m (d) 1∙5 m

Answer

(b) 9 m

The moon's gravity is about g/6g/6. With the same take-off speed, h=u2/2gh=u^2/2g is inversely proportional to gg, so hmoon=6×1.5=9h_{moon}=6\times1.5=9 m.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Two stones of mass 2 kg & 4 kg are dropped from top of a tower together then which one will reach the ground earlier ? (a) Stone having mass 2 kg. (b) Stone having mass 4 kg. (c) Both stone reach together. (d) They attract each other & do not fall.

Answer

(c) Both stone reach together.

In free fall the acceleration gg is independent of mass (neglecting air resistance), so both stones take the same time t=2h/gt=\sqrt{2h/g}.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

On which law hydrometer is based on ? (a) Newton's Law (b) Pascal's Law (c) Archimedes' Law (d) Law of floatation

Answer

(d) Law of floatation

A hydrometer floats in a liquid so that its weight equals the weight of liquid displaced. The depth to which it sinks therefore indicates the liquid's density.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

In the formula of liquid pressure; P=dgh, what the term 'd' indicates ? (a) Depth (b) Diameter (c) Distance (d) Density

Answer

(d) Density

In P=dghP=dgh, dd is the density of the liquid, gg is the acceleration due to gravity and hh is the depth.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

If an object is immersed in liquid then which one of the following statement is correct about upthrust and weight of the body? (a) Upthrust acts in upward direction and weight of the body acts in downward direction. (b) Upthrust acts in downward direction and weight of the body acts in upward direction. (c) Upthrust and weight of the body both acts in downward direction. (d) Upthrust and weight of the body both acts in upward direction.

Answer

(a) Upthrust acts in upward direction and weight of the body acts in downward direction.

The weight acts vertically down through the centre of gravity, while the upthrust (buoyant force) acts vertically up through the centre of buoyancy.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What kind of thermometer has a thermistor at its end ? (a) Clinical thermometer (b) Infrared thermometer (c) Digital thermometer (d) Laboratory thermometer

Answer

(c) Digital thermometer

A digital thermometer uses a thermistor, a semiconductor whose resistance changes with temperature, as its sensor.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

How much heat energy is required to boil the water of 1500 gm in 10°C at sea level ? (a) 63 KJ (b) 283.5 KJ (c) 567 KJ (d) 31.5 KJ

Answer

(c) 567 KJ

Water at sea level boils at 100∘100^\circC, so ΔT=100−10=90∘\Delta T=100-10=90^\circC, m=1500m=1500 g =1.5=1.5 kg and c=4200c=4200 J kg−1^{-1}K−1^{-1}:

Q=mcΔT=1.5×4200×90=567000 J=567 kJQ=mc\Delta T=1.5\times4200\times90=567000\text{ J}=567\text{ kJ}

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Absorption of which ray causes hotness ? (a) I.R rays (b) U.V rays (c) X-rays (d) Gamma rays

Answer

(a) I.R rays

Infrared radiation is readily absorbed by matter and increases the vibrational energy of its molecules, which is felt as heat. For this reason it is called heat radiation.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What is the full form of LED ? (a) Light emitting diode (b) Light emitting device (c) Light emitting display (d) Light emitting drone

Answer

(a) Light emitting diode

An LED is a semiconductor p-n junction diode that emits light when forward biased.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What is an isotope? (a) Atoms with the same number of protons but different neutrons (b) Atoms with the same number of electrons but different protons (c) Atoms with the same number of neutrons but different protons (d) Atoms with the same mass but different charges

Answer

(a) Atoms with the same number of protons but different neutrons

Isotopes belong to the same element, with the same atomic number but different mass numbers, for example 612^{12}_6C and 614^{14}_6C.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which property distinguishes a suspension from a solution? (a) Particles do not settle down (b) Particles are visible to the naked eye (c) It is transparent (d) It is homogeneous

Answer

(b) Particles are visible to the naked eye

A suspension has large particles (above about 10−510^{-5} cm) that are visible and settle on standing, and it is heterogeneous and opaque or turbid. A solution has particles that are not visible, do not settle, and is homogeneous and transparent.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which of the following represents a polyatomic ion? (a) Na+ (b) Cl− (c) NH4+ (d) H2

Answer

(c) NH4+\text{NH}_4^+

Ammonium is made of more than one atom (N and H) joined together and carrying an overall charge. Na+\text{Na}^+ and Cl−\text{Cl}^- are monatomic ions, and H2\text{H}_2 is a neutral molecule.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

How does the electronegativity of elements change as you move down a group? (a) It increases due to larger atomic size (b) It decreases due to increased distance from the nucleus (c) It remains constant (d) It depends on the period

Answer

(b) It decreases due to increased distance from the nucleus

Down a group the number of shells increases, so the valence electrons are farther from the nucleus and more shielded. The nucleus attracts shared electrons less strongly, so electronegativity decreases.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which factor would most likely increase the rate of the reaction between hydrogen peroxide and light? (a) Storing it in a dark container (b) Exposing it to sunlight (c) Decreasing the temperature (d) Reducing the concentration of hydrogen peroxide

Answer

(b) Exposing it to sunlight

Hydrogen peroxide decomposes in light: 2H2O2→light2H2O+O22\text{H}_2\text{O}_2 \xrightarrow{\text{light}} 2\text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{O}_2. Light supplies the energy for this, which is why it is stored in dark bottles. Darkness, lower temperature and lower concentration all slow the reaction.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What type of bond is found between carbon atoms in ethylene? (a) Double covalent bond (b) Double coordinate covalent bond (c) Triple coordinate covalent bond (d) Triple covalent bond

Answer

(a) Double covalent bond

Ethylene (CH2=CH2\text{CH}_2=\text{CH}_2) has two shared electron pairs between the two carbon atoms, so it has one sigma and one pi bond. A triple bond occurs in ethyne.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which compound is used to keep tobacco moist and prevent fruit decay? (a) Methanol (b) Ethanol (c) Glycerol (d) Ethylene

Answer

(c) Glycerol

Glycerol is hygroscopic and holds moisture, so it keeps tobacco moist. It also acts as a preservative that prevents fruit decay.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which chemical pesticide is banned in Nepal due to its environmental persistence? (a) Malathion (b) DDT (c) Dimethoate (d) Cypermethrin

Answer

(b) DDT

DDT is persistent in the environment and accumulates in the food chain (bioaccumulation), so its use is banned in Nepal. Malathion, dimethoate and cypermethrin break down more readily.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What is the chemical formula of baking soda? (a) Na2CO3 (b) NaHCO3 (c) CaCO3 (d) NaOH

Answer

(b) NaHCO3\text{NaHCO}_3

Baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate (sodium bicarbonate). Na2CO3\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3 is washing soda, CaCO3\text{CaCO}_3 is limestone and NaOH is caustic soda.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which metal is used to galvanize iron? (a) Zinc (b) Copper (c) Silver (d) Aluminum

Answer

(a) Zinc

Galvanization coats iron with a layer of zinc. Zinc is more reactive than iron, so it protects the iron from rusting even if the coating is scratched.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

A student adds water to quick lime. Which observation is correct? (a) The beaker becomes cold (b) Heat is produced (c) A gas is evolved (d) No reaction occurs

Answer

(b) Heat is produced

Quick lime reacts with water in a highly exothermic reaction: CaO+H2O→Ca(OH)2+heat\text{CaO} + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{Ca(OH)}_2 + \text{heat}. The beaker becomes hot and no gas is evolved.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

When dilute sulfuric acid is poured on marble chips, which gas is released? (a) H2 (b) O2 (c) CO2 (d) N2

Answer

(c) CO2\text{CO}_2

Marble is calcium carbonate: CaCO3+H2SO4→CaSO4+H2O+CO2↑\text{CaCO}_3 + \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4 \rightarrow \text{CaSO}_4 + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{CO}_2\uparrow. The gas turns limewater milky.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

To test for hydrogen gas, we use: (a) Glowing splint (b) Burning splint (c) Limewater (d) Moist red litmus

Answer

(b) Burning splint

Hydrogen burns with a "pop" sound when a burning splint is brought near it. A glowing splint tests for oxygen, limewater for CO2\text{CO}_2, and moist red litmus for ammonia.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

When methane burns in air: (a) Carbon and water are produced (b) Carbon dioxide and water are produced (c) Carbon monoxide is formed (d) Ammonia is released

Answer

(b) Carbon dioxide and water are produced

Complete combustion of methane gives CH4+2O2→CO2+2H2O\text{CH}_4 + 2\text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{CO}_2 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O} and releases heat.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which element is expected to show the least reactivity among the halogens? (a) Fluorine (b) Chlorine (c) ) Bromine (d) Iodine

Answer

(d) Iodine

Reactivity of halogens decreases down the group, because atomic size increases and the ability to gain an electron falls. Fluorine is the most reactive and iodine the least reactive of those listed.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which of the following shows the most metallic character? (a) Na (b) Mg (c) Al (d) Si

Answer

(a) Na

Metallic character decreases across a period from left to right as the tendency to lose electrons falls. Na is farthest left, so it is the most metallic of these.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which of the following elements will form basic oxides? (a) Cl (b) Si (c) Mg (d) P

Answer

(c) Mg

Metals form basic oxides, so Mg gives MgO, a basic oxide. Cl, Si and P are non-metals or metalloids and form acidic oxides.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which was a major limitation of Mendeleev's periodic table? (a) No place for noble gases (b) Inability to explain isotopes (c) Incorrect order of atomic numbers (d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above

Mendeleev arranged elements by atomic mass, since atomic numbers and isotopes were unknown. This left no place for the noble gases (added later as a new group), could not explain isotopes, and gave pairs that were out of order with respect to atomic number.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which element violates the order in Mendeleev’s table due to atomic mass mismatch? (a) Ar and K (b) Na and Mg (c) H and He (d) Zn and Cu

Answer

(a) Ar and K

Ar (39.9) has a higher atomic mass than K (39.1), but Ar must come before K by properties. Placing elements strictly by mass would violate this. Atomic number (Ar = 18, K = 19) resolves the order.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which pair shows opposite trends across a period? (a) Atomic size and electronegativity (b) Ionization energy and electronegativity (c) Atomic number and atomic size (d) Valency and metallic character

Answer

(a) Atomic size and electronegativity

Across a period atomic size decreases while electronegativity increases. Ionization energy and electronegativity both increase, and atomic number increases while size decreases, so only (a) is a clean pair of opposite trends in the properties listed.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which kingdom includes organisms with prokaryotic cells? (a) Protista (b) Monera (c) Fungi (d) Plantae

Answer

(b) Monera

Kingdom Monera consists of bacteria and cyanobacteria, which have prokaryotic cells with no true nucleus. Protista, Fungi and Plantae are eukaryotic.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What is a characteristic of organisms in the kingdom Protista? (a) They are multicellular (b) They are unicellular (c) They lack a cell wall (d) They are saprotrophic

Answer

(b) They are unicellular

Protists are mostly unicellular eukaryotes, for example Amoeba, Paramecium and Euglena.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What is the cell wall of algae made of? (a) Chitin (b) Cellulose (c) Peptidoglycan (d) Silica

Answer

(b) Cellulose

Algal cell walls are mainly cellulose. Chitin is in fungi and peptidoglycan is in bacteria. Diatoms are an exception, with silica in their walls.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which plants are classified as dioecious in Bryophyta? (a) Algae (b) Moss (c) Fern (d) Pinus

Answer

(b) Moss

Many mosses are dioecious, meaning male and female sex organs occur on separate plants. Algae are mixed, ferns are mostly monoecious (bisexual prothallus), and Pinus is a gymnosperm.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What is the dominant phase in the life cycle of pteridophytes? (a) Gametophyte (b) Sporophyte (c) Zygote (d) Spore

Answer

(b) Sporophyte

In pteridophytes the dominant, conspicuous plant with true roots, stem and leaves is the diploid sporophyte. The gametophyte (prothallus) is small and short-lived. In bryophytes it is the gametophyte that is dominant.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a characteristic of gymnosperms? (a) They bear flowers (b) They have naked seeds (c) They have fruits (d) They lack vascular tissue

Answer

(b) They have naked seeds

Gymnosperms (for example Pinus and Cycas) bear seeds that are not enclosed in an ovary or fruit. They have no flowers or fruits but do have vascular tissue.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Why are ferns classified under Pteridophyta? (a) They have flowers (b) They have vascular tissue and no seeds (c) They lack chlorophyll (d) They have naked seeds

Answer

(b) They have vascular tissue and no seeds

Ferns have xylem and phloem and reproduce by spores, not seeds. That is the defining character of Pteridophyta. They have no flowers and they do have chlorophyll.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What is a gene? (a) A segment of RNA (b) A segment of DNA that codes for a specific trait (c) A type of chromosome (d) A protein molecule

Answer

(b) A segment of DNA that codes for a specific trait. A gene is a functional unit of heredity, a stretch of DNA on a chromosome that carries the instructions for making a protein or RNA and so controls a trait.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

In a cross between two heterozygous tall plants (Tt), what is the probability of getting a tall offspring? (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100%

Answer

(c) 75% Tt×TtTt \times Tt gives TT:Tt:tt=1:2:1TT : Tt : tt = 1:2:1. Tall offspring are TTTT and TtTt, which is 34=75%\frac{3}{4} = 75\%.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

If a mutation occurs in a gamete, what is the likely outcome? (a) It affects only the parent (b) It may be passed to the offspring (c) It changes the phenotype immediately (d) It has no effect

Answer

(b) It may be passed to the offspring. A mutation in a gamete (germ cell) becomes part of the zygote after fertilisation, so it is heritable and may appear in the offspring.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which phylum includes animals with stinging cells? (a) Coelenterata (b) Platyhelminthes (c) Annelida (d) Arthropoda

Answer

(a) Coelenterata Coelenterates (Cnidaria) such as Hydra and jellyfish have stinging cells called cnidoblasts (nematocysts) used for defence and capturing prey.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Which class of vertebrates has a two-chambered heart? (a) Amphibia (b) Reptilia (c) Pisces (d) Aves

Answer

(c) Pisces Fishes have a two-chambered heart (one atrium and one ventricle). Amphibians have three chambers, most reptiles three (crocodiles four), and birds four.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Radial symmetry is found in: (a) Starfish (b) Earthworm (c) Cockroach (d) Snake

Answer

(a) Starfish Starfish (Echinodermata) show radial symmetry as adults, with body parts arranged around a central axis. Earthworm, cockroach and snake are bilaterally symmetrical.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

Why are bryophytes called amphibian plants? (a) They live in water. (b) They need water for fertilization (c) They have vascular tissues. (d) They reproduce by spores.

Answer

(b) They need water for fertilization. Bryophytes live on land but their male gametes (antherozoids) are flagellate and must swim through water to reach the egg, so they depend on water for reproduction, like amphibians.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

How does the presence of a notochord in chordates indicate evolutionary advancement? (a) It is a primitive feature. (b) It is replaced by a vertebral column in higher organisms. (c) It is absent in vertebrates. (d) It aids in photosynthesis.

Answer

(b) It is replaced by a vertebral column in higher organisms. In higher chordates (vertebrates) the notochord is replaced by a more advanced, protective and supportive vertebral column, which shows evolutionary advancement.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What is the basic unit of classification in taxonomy? (a) Kingdom (b) Genus (c) Species (d) Phylum

Answer

(c) Species A species is the lowest and basic unit of classification, a group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What is the major difference between Monera and Protista? (a) Cell wall structure (b) Presence of nucleus (c) Mode of reproduction (d) Type of nutrition

Answer

(b) Presence of nucleus Monera (bacteria) are prokaryotic with no true nucleus, while Protista are eukaryotic with a well-defined membrane-bound nucleus.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

A scientist discovers an organism with cell walls but no chlorophyll. Where is it likely classified? (a) Animalia (b) Plantae (c) Fungi (d) Protista

Answer

(c) Fungi Fungi have cell walls (of chitin) but lack chlorophyll, so they are heterotrophic. Plants have chlorophyll and animals have no cell wall.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What is the full form of DNA? (a) Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid (b) Deoxyribonucleic Acid (c) Double Helix Nucleic Acid (d) Deoxygenated Nucleic Acid

Answer

(b) Deoxyribonucleic Acid DNA is the genetic material made of nucleotides containing the sugar deoxyribose, a phosphate and a nitrogenous base.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 5 · 1 mark

What are the alternate forms of a gene called? (a) Codons (b) Traits (c) Alleles (d) Genotypes

Answer

(c) Alleles Alleles are the alternative forms of a gene at the same locus on homologous chromosomes, for example TT and tt for height.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

If mass of an object is 60 Kg on the surface of the earth then what will be its mass on the surface of the moon ? (a) 60 Kg (b) 10 Kg (c) 6 Kg (d) 0 Kg

Answer

(a) 60 Kg

Mass is the amount of matter in a body and does not change with location. Only the weight changes on the moon.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 20 m height then how much time will it take to strike the ground ? (a) 2 Seconds (b) 4 Seconds (c) 6 Seconds (d) 8 Seconds

Answer

(a) 2 Seconds

For a body dropped from rest, h=12gt2h = \tfrac12 g t^2, so with g=10 m/s2g = 10\ \text{m/s}^2: t=2hg=2×2010=2 s.t=\sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}}=\sqrt{\frac{2\times 20}{10}}=2\ \text{s}.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

If weight of a stone inside water is 9 N & weight of the displaced water is 2 N then what is the actual weight of the stone in air ? (a) 11 Newton (b) 9 Newton (c) 7 Newton (d) 2 Newton

Answer

(a) 11 Newton

Apparent weight in water == weight in air −- upthrust, and upthrust equals the weight of displaced water. So weight in air =9+2=11 N= 9 + 2 = 11\ \text{N}.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

In the formula of liquid pressure; P=dgh, what the term 'g' indicates? (a) Gravity (b) Gravitational constant (c) Acceleration due to gravity (d) Gravitation

Answer

(c) Acceleration due to gravity

In P=dghP = dgh, dd is the density of the liquid, hh the depth and gg the acceleration due to gravity (about 9.8 m/s29.8\ \text{m/s}^2).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Why egg floats on salt water but sinks on pure water ? (a) Temperature of salt water is more than that of pure water. (b) Temperature of salt water is less than that of pure water. (c) Density of salt water is more than that of pure water. (d) Density of salt water is less than that of pure water.

Answer

(c) Density of salt water is more than that of pure water.

Dissolved salt raises the density of the water above that of the egg, so the upthrust is enough to make it float. In pure water the egg is denser than the water and sinks.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which type of thermometer has both mercury & alcohol as thermometric liquid? (a) Clinical thermometer (b) Infrared thermometer (c) Digital thermometer (d) Maximum-Minimum thermometer

Answer

(d) Maximum-Minimum thermometer

Six's maximum-minimum thermometer uses alcohol as the main thermometric liquid and mercury as the index-pushing liquid.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which instrument is used to measure amount of heat energy ? (a) Thermometer (b) Barometer (c) Calorimeter (d) Seismometer

Answer

(c) Calorimeter

A calorimeter measures the quantity of heat. A thermometer measures temperature, a barometer measures atmospheric pressure, and a seismometer detects earthquake waves.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which rays are present below visible light ? (a) I.R rays (b) U.V rays (c) X-rays (d) Gamma rays

Answer

(a) I.R rays

Infrared has a longer wavelength and lower frequency than visible light, so it lies below the visible region. UV, X-rays and gamma rays lie above it.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

What is the full form of C.F.L ? (a) Common Fluorescent Lamp (b) Crystal Fluid Lamp (c) Compact Fluorescent Lamp (d) Cathode Fluid Lamp

Answer

(c) Compact Fluorescent Lamp

CFL stands for Compact Fluorescent Lamp, an energy-saving bulb.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which theory is considered as the most realistic theory about origin of the universe? (a) Big bang theory (b) Geocentric theory (c) Heliocentric theory (d) Nebular theory

Answer

(a) Big bang theory

The Big Bang theory is the most widely accepted. It is supported by the expansion of the universe and the cosmic microwave background radiation.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which method is used to separate a mixture of two solids where one sublimes? (a) Sublimation (b) Evaporation (c) Filtration (d) Crystallization

Answer

(a) Sublimation

On heating, the subliming solid turns directly into vapour and is collected by cooling on a cold surface, leaving the other solid behind (for example, ammonium chloride from sand).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

What is the molecular mass of CO2? (Atomic masses: C = 12 u, O = 16 u) (a) 28 (b) 44 (c) 32 (d) 60

Answer

(b) 44

M(CO2)=12+2×16=44 u.M(\text{CO}_2)=12+2\times16=44\ \text{u}.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which model of the atom proposed that electrons move in fixed orbits around the nucleus? (a) Thomson’s plum pudding model (b) Rutherford’s nuclear model (c) Bohr’s planetary model (d) Dalton’s atomic model

Answer

(c) Bohr's planetary model

Bohr proposed that electrons revolve in fixed circular orbits (energy levels) without radiating energy. Thomson's model had no orbits and Rutherford's model did not fix them.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which one gives H+ ions in aqueous solution? (a) NaOH (b) Na2CO3 (c) KCl (d) HCl

Answer

(d) HCl

HCl is an acid and ionises in water as HCl→H++Cl−HCl \rightarrow H^+ + Cl^-. NaOH is a base, while Na2_2CO3_3 and KCl are salts.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which of the following is NOT a property of covalent compounds? (a) Low melting point (b) Poor conductor (c) High boiling point (d) Insoluble in water

Answer

(c) High boiling point

Covalent compounds have weak intermolecular forces, so they have low melting and boiling points. They are poor conductors and many are insoluble in water.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

When an acid is mixed with water: (a) Temperature decreases (b) Hydrogen ions are released (c) pH increases (d) Hydroxide ions are formed

Answer

(b) Hydrogen ions are released

An acid ionises in water to release H+H^+ ions (present as H3O+H_3O^+), which lowers the pH.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

A base reacts with a non-metallic oxide to form: (a) Salt only (b) Salt and acid (c) Base and water (d) Salt and water

Answer

(d) Salt and water

A base neutralises an acidic non-metallic oxide, e.g. 2NaOH+CO2→Na2CO3+H2O2NaOH + CO_2 \rightarrow Na_2CO_3 + H_2O.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

The mass remains conserved in a chemical reaction because: (a) Products are heavier (b) New atoms are formed (c) Molecules vanish (d) Atoms are rearranged, not destroyed

Answer

(d) Atoms are rearranged, not destroyed

In a chemical reaction atoms are only regrouped into new substances. They are neither created nor destroyed, so total mass stays constant.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Why do ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state? (a) Free protons present (b) Electrons are delocalized (c) Ions are mobile (d) Covalent bonds break

Answer

(c) Ions are mobile

In the molten state the ionic lattice breaks down and the ions move freely, so they carry the current.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

A hydrocarbon with molecular formula C4H6 is likely to be: (a) Alkane (b) Alkyne (c) Alkene (d) Alcohol

Answer

(b) Alkyne

The formula C4H6C_4H_6 fits the general formula CnH2n−2C_nH_{2n-2} of alkynes (butyne) with n=4n=4.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which pair shows the same molecular formula but different structural formula? (a) Butane and Isobutane (b) Ethane and Ethene (c) Ethyne and Propene (d) Methane and Ethane

Answer

(a) Butane and Isobutane

Both have the formula C4H10C_4H_{10} but different structures (straight chain and branched chain), so they are structural isomers.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

The main use of acetylene is in: (a) Welding (b) Fuel for cooking (c) Solvent (d) Perfume making

Answer

(a) Welding

Acetylene (ethyne) burns with oxygen in the oxy-acetylene flame, which reaches about 3000 °C and is used for welding and cutting metals.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

The mass of an electron is approximately: (a) 1 amu (b) 1/1836 of a proton (c) Equal to a neutron (d) Negligible compared to neutron

Answer

(b) 1/1836 of a proton

The electron mass is about 9.1×10−319.1\times10^{-31} kg, which is roughly 11836\frac{1}{1836} of the mass of a proton.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

In metallic bonding, the valence electrons are: (a) Shared between two atoms (b) Transferred to non-metals (c) Delocalized and move freely (d) Lost permanently

Answer

(c) Delocalized and move freely

Metal atoms release their valence electrons into a "sea of electrons" that moves freely among the positive metal ions and holds them together.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Ammonia is prepared in the lab by heating: (a) Ammonium nitrate (b) Urea and water (c) Ammonia and water (d) Ammonium chloride and slaked lime

Answer

(d) Ammonium chloride and slaked lime

2NH4Cl+Ca(OH)2→ΔCaCl2+2H2O+2NH32NH_4Cl + Ca(OH)_2 \xrightarrow{\Delta} CaCl_2 + 2H_2O + 2NH_3

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which pair of gases is collected by downward displacement of water? (a) CO2 and NH3 (b) O2 and H2 (c) NH3 and CO2 (d) N2 and NH3

Answer

(b) O2_2 and H2_2

These gases are almost insoluble in water, so they can be collected by downward displacement of water. NH3_3 and CO2_2 are highly soluble and cannot be collected over water.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which one is not used in the lab preparation of oxygen? (a) Potassium chlorate (b) Manganese dioxide (c) Hydrogen peroxide (d) Sodium chloride

Answer

(d) Sodium chloride

Oxygen is prepared by heating KClO3KClO_3 with MnO2MnO_2 as catalyst, or by decomposing H2O2H_2O_2 with MnO2MnO_2. NaCl is not used.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which element is expected to form the most acidic oxide? (a) Na (b) Mg (c) Cl (d) Al

Answer

(c) Cl

Acidity of oxides increases across a period as metallic character falls. Na and Mg give basic oxides, Al gives an amphoteric oxide, and Cl gives the strongly acidic Cl2O7Cl_2O_7.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

A metal reacts vigorously with water and forms a strong alkaline solution. It is likely from: (a) Group 2 (b) Group 1 (c) Group 13 (d) Group 17

Answer

(b) Group 1

Alkali metals react vigorously with water, e.g. 2Na+2H2O→2NaOH+H22Na + 2H_2O \rightarrow 2NaOH + H_2, forming strongly alkaline hydroxides. Group 2 metals react less vigorously.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

How do platelets prevent excessive blood loss? (a) By swelling (b) By forming fibrin clot (c) By producing hemoglobin (d) By closing blood vessels

Answer

(b) By forming fibrin clot

At a wound, platelets release clotting factors that convert fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin threads. These form a mesh that traps blood cells and seals the wound.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Compare the structure and function of arteries and veins. (a) Arteries are wider (b) Veins are thicker (c) Arteries carry blood under pressure; veins have valves (d) Veins carry oxygenated blood

Answer

(c) Arteries carry blood under pressure; veins have valves

Arteries have thick, elastic, muscular walls to withstand high pressure. Veins have thinner walls, wider lumen and valves to prevent backflow.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Why does a person become pale in severe anemia? (a) Due to low WBC (b) Due to low plasma (c) Due to low hemoglobin in RBCs (d) Due to high sugar

Answer

(c) Due to low hemoglobin in RBCs

Hemoglobin gives blood its red colour. In severe anemia its level is low, so the skin looks pale.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Describe the flow of blood through the heart starting from vena cava. (a) RA →R V → Pulmonary vein → LA → LV → Aorta (b) RA→ R V → Pulmonary artery → Lungs → LA → LV → Aorta (c) R A → LA → R V → LV → Aorta (d) R A → Pulmonary vein → LA → Aorta

Answer

(b) RA → RV → Pulmonary artery → Lungs → LA → LV → Aorta

Deoxygenated blood from the vena cava enters the right atrium and right ventricle, goes to the lungs through the pulmonary artery, returns to the left atrium, then the left ventricle, and is pumped out through the aorta.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

How does septum aid in the efficiency of the human heart? (a) Prevents oxygen from escaping (b) Separates oxygenated and deoxygenated blood (c) Pumps blood (d) Filters blood

Answer

(b) Separates oxygenated and deoxygenated blood

The septum divides the right and left sides of the heart, so the two kinds of blood do not mix. This keeps oxygen supply to the body efficient.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which blood vessel has valves to prevent backflow of blood? (a) Arteries (b) Capillaries (c) Veins (d) Aorta

Answer

(c) Veins

Blood in veins is at low pressure, so valves prevent backflow and keep blood moving toward the heart.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Why are capillaries suitable for exchange of materials? (a) They are thick (b) They have large diameter (c) They are thin-walled and narrow (d) They carry lymph

Answer

(c) They are thin-walled and narrow

Capillary walls are one cell thick and the vessels are very narrow, so the diffusion distance is short and exchange of gases, nutrients and wastes is easy.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Why are viruses not placed in any kingdom? (a) They are too small (b) They are not cellular (c) They are unicellular (d) They reproduce only sexually

Answer

(b) They are not cellular

Viruses have no cell structure and cannot carry out life processes on their own. They reproduce only inside a host cell, so they fit none of the kingdoms of living cells.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which characteristic will help you differentiate between amphibians and reptiles? (a) Laying of eggs (b) Cold-blooded nature (c) Presence of moist skin (d) Four-legged body

Answer

(c) Presence of moist skin

Amphibians have thin, moist, glandular skin used in respiration, while reptiles have dry skin covered with scales. Egg laying, cold-bloodedness and four limbs are shared by both groups.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Where would you place a new organism that shows traits of both plants and animals? (a) Fungi (b) Animalia (c) Protista (d) Plantae

Answer

(c) Protista

Protista is the kingdom of mostly unicellular eukaryotes that show mixed traits, for example Euglena has chloroplasts like plants but moves and feeds like an animal.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

What kingdom would an organism belong to if it is autotrophic, eukaryotic, and has vascular tissue? (a) Monera (b) Plantae (c) Protista (d) Fungi

Answer

(b) Plantae

Autotrophic eukaryotes with vascular tissue (xylem and phloem) belong to Plantae. Monera are prokaryotic, and Protista and Fungi lack vascular tissue.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

A biologist finds an organism with pseudopodia and no chloroplast. Which kingdom is most appropriate? (a) Protista (b) Monera (c) Animalia (d) Plantae

Answer

(a) Protista

Pseudopodia (as in Amoeba) with no chloroplast indicate a unicellular, heterotrophic eukaryote, which is a protozoan of kingdom Protista.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Why is Mendel’s work significant? (a) He used statistical methods (b) He discovered DNA (c) He proposed evolution (d) He described mutation

Answer

(a) He used statistical methods

Mendel counted and analysed large numbers of offspring from pea crosses and found definite ratios such as 3:1. This quantitative approach led to the laws of inheritance.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which of the following best explains homozygous condition? (a) Two different alleles (b) One dominant and one recessive gene (c) Identical alleles (d) No alleles

Answer

(c) Identical alleles

A homozygous individual has two identical alleles for a gene (e.g. TTTT or tttt).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Why are X-linked traits more common in males? (a) Males have more chromosomes (b) Males inherit only one X chromosome (c) Females suppress recessive traits (d) Y chromosome promotes all traits

Answer

(b) Males inherit only one X chromosome

Males are XY, so a recessive allele on the X chromosome has no second X to mask it and is expressed. Females (XX) need two copies of the recessive allele.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

If phloem is damaged in a plant, what is affected? (a) Water transport (b) Food transport (c) Gas exchanged (d) Photosynthesis

Answer

(b) Food transport

Phloem carries sucrose and other food made in the leaves to the rest of the plant (translocation). Water transport is done by xylem.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

A blockage in a coronary artery can lead to: (a) Brain damage (b) Heart attack (c) Kidney failure (d) Lung infection

Answer

(b) Heart attack

Coronary arteries supply the heart muscle with oxygenated blood. A blockage starves the muscle of oxygen and causes a myocardial infarction (heart attack).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Why are arteries thick-walled and elastic? (a) To store oxygen (b) To withstand high pressure (c) To aid digestion (d) To prevent backflow

Answer

(b) To withstand high pressure

Arteries carry blood pumped directly from the heart at high pressure. Thick, elastic walls withstand this pressure and stretch and recoil with each heartbeat.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

How do valves in veins help circulation? (a) Increase pressure (b) Prevent blood loss (c) Prevent backflow (d) Transport oxygen

Answer

(c) Prevent backflow

Veins carry blood at low pressure. Their valves allow flow only toward the heart and stop blood flowing backward.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 6 · 1 mark

Which brain part is indirectly involved in reflex actions like coughing or sneezing? (a) Cerebrum (b) Medulla oblongata (c) Cerebellum (d) Spinal cord

Answer

(b) Medulla oblongata

The medulla oblongata controls involuntary actions such as coughing, sneezing, vomiting and breathing. The spinal cord handles simple spinal reflexes directly, so the medulla is the brain part involved.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

If a man can lift 100 Kg mass on the surface of the earth then how much mass can he lift on the lunar surface ? (a) 100Kg (b) 163 Kg (c) 600 Kg (d) 980 Kg

Answer

(c) 600 Kg

The man can exert a fixed maximum force, i.e. lift a fixed weight. On the moon gm=g6g_m=\dfrac{g}{6}, so the mass he can lift is 100×6=600100\times6=600 kg.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

What is the correct S.I unit of universal Gravitational constant (G)? (a) N⋅Kgm2\frac{N\cdot Kg}{m^2} (b) N⋅m2Kg2\frac{N\cdot m^2}{Kg^2} (c) N⋅Kg2m2\frac{N\cdot Kg^2}{m^2} (d) N⋅ms\frac{N\cdot m}{s}

Answer

(b) N⋅m2Kg2\frac{N\cdot m^2}{Kg^2}

From F=Gm1m2d2F=\dfrac{Gm_1m_2}{d^2}, G=Fd2m1m2G=\dfrac{Fd^2}{m_1m_2}, whose unit is N m2kg−2\text{N m}^2\text{kg}^{-2}.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

If a coin & feather are dropped from same height on the lunar surface together then which one will reach the ground earlier ? (a) Coin (b) Both coin & feather reach together. (c) Feather (d) They attract each other & do not fall.

Answer

(b) Both coin & feather reach together.

The moon has no atmosphere, so there is no air resistance, and all bodies fall with the same acceleration due to gravity.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

A ship floats on water because of _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ . (a) the ship is made of light weight materials. (b) the ship is hollow. (c) the weight of the ship is less than buoyant force. (d) the ship is supported by seafloor.

Answer

(c) the weight of the ship is less than buoyant force.

The ship's hollow shape displaces a large volume of water, so the upthrust (buoyant force) balances its weight and it floats.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which one of the following factor does not affect on the value of pressure exerted by liquid ? (a) Diameter of vessel (b) Height of liquid (c) Acceleration due to gravity (d) Density of liquid

Answer

(a) Diameter of vessel

Liquid pressure is P=hρgP=h\rho g, which depends on height, density and gg but not on the shape or diameter of the vessel.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Why ship can carry more load in sea water than in river water? (a) Temperature of sea water is more than that of river water. (b) Temperature of sea water is less than that of river water (c) Density of sea water is more than that of river water. (d) Density of sea water is less than that of river water.

Answer

(c) Density of sea water is more than that of river water.

Sea water is denser, so a smaller volume must be displaced to give the same buoyant force, letting the ship float higher and carry more load.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Ram is trying to lift a load of 500 Newton by placing it on small piston of a hydraulic machine. Which one of the following suggestion helps ram to lift the load easily ? (a) Apply large amount of effort . (b) Keep the load in large piston . (c) Fill the hydraulic machine completely by liquid . (d) Make the machine airtight .

Answer

(b) Keep the load in large piston.

By Pascal's law, a small effort on the small piston produces a larger force on the large piston, since F1A1=F2A2\dfrac{F_1}{A_1}=\dfrac{F_2}{A_2}; so the load should be placed on the large piston.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

The normal human body temperature of a healthy person in celcius scale is ...................... (a) 30°C (b) 37°C (c) 90°C (d) 98.6°C

Answer

(b) 37°C

98.6∘F98.6^\circ\text{F} corresponds to 98.6−321.8=37∘C\dfrac{98.6-32}{1.8}=37^\circ\text{C}.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which kind of thermometer measures temperature of a body without coming in contact with the body ? (a) Clinical thermometer (b) Infrared thermometer (c) Digital thermometer (d) Laboratory thermometer

Answer

(b) Infrared thermometer

It detects the infrared radiation emitted by the body, so no contact is needed.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

What is the S.I unit of heat energy ? (a) Celcius (b) Kelvin (c) Joule (d) Calorine

Answer

(c) Joule

Heat is a form of energy, so its S.I. unit is the joule (J).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

If an object is placed between F & O infront of a convex lens then what is the nature of the image? (a) Real, Inverted & Magnified (b) Real, Inverted & Equal (c) Virtual, Erect & Magnified (d) Virtual, Erect & Diminished

Answer

(c) Virtual, Erect & Magnified

When the object is between the optical centre O and the focus F of a convex lens, the lens acts as a magnifying glass, forming a virtual, erect, magnified image on the same side as the object.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

What is near point of normal human eye ? (a) 2.5 m (b) 25 m (c) 2.5 cm (d) 25 cm

Answer

(d) 25 cm

The near point of a normal eye, the least distance of distinct vision, is 25 cm.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which device is used to convert electrical energy into mechanical energy ? (a) Electric motor (b) Generator (c) Inverter (d) Transformer

Answer

(a) Electric motor

An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy; a generator does the reverse.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

What is the full form of E.M.F ? (a) Electro-magnetic field (b) Electro-magnetic force (c) Electro-motive field (d) Electro-motive force

Answer

(d) Electro-motive force

E.M.F. stands for electromotive force, the energy supplied per unit charge by a source.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

What is a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means called? (a) Mixture (b) Element (c) Compound (d) Solution

Answer

(b) Element

An element is a pure substance that cannot be broken into simpler substances by chemical means.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

What is the technique used to separate two miscible liquids with different boiling points? (a) Fractional distillation (b) Chromatography (c) Centrifugation (d) Separating funnel

Answer

(a) Fractional distillation

Miscible liquids with different boiling points are separated by fractional distillation, as the lower-boiling liquid vaporises first.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

What is the chemical formula of Ammonium bicarbonate? (a) NaHCo3 (b) NH4CO3 (c) NH4HCo3 (d) NH4HCO3

Answer

(d) NH4HCO3

Ammonium (NH4+\text{NH}_4^+) combines with bicarbonate (HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^-) to give NH4HCO3\text{NH}_4\text{HCO}_3.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which of these metals would not displace hydrogen from an acid? (a) Zinc (b) Copper (c) Magnesium (d) Calcium

Answer

(b) Copper. Copper lies below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so it cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids, whereas Zn, Mg and Ca are above hydrogen and do.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which type of bonding is responsible for the hardness of diamond? (a) Metallic (b) Ionic (c) Covalent (d) Hydrogen

Answer

(c) Covalent. Each carbon in diamond is bonded to four others by strong covalent bonds in a rigid three-dimensional network, which makes it extremely hard.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

A student observes that a metal bends easily without breaking. This shows the metal is: (a) Ductile (b) Elastic (c) Brittle (d) Malleable

Answer

(d) Malleable. A malleable metal can be bent, hammered or beaten into shape without breaking; ductility refers to being drawn into wires.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Breaking bonds requires: (a) Release of energy (b) No energy change (c) Absorption of energy (d) Catalyst presence

Answer

(c) Absorption of energy. Breaking a bond is endothermic, since energy must be supplied to pull the atoms apart; forming bonds releases energy.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

What is the purpose of activation energy in a chemical reaction? (a) To cool down the system (b) To prevent side reactions (c) To initiate the reaction (d) To absorb product heat

Answer

(c) To initiate the reaction. Activation energy is the minimum energy colliding particles need so that bonds can break and the reaction can start.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which gas is released when acids react with metals? (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon dioxide

Answer

(b) Hydrogen. Reactive metals displace hydrogen from acids, e.g. Zn+2HCl→ZnCl2+H2Zn + 2HCl \to ZnCl_2 + H_2.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

What happens in oxidation? (a) Electrons are gained (b) Electrons are lost (c) Protons are shared (d) Neutrons are lost

Answer

(b) Electrons are lost. Oxidation is loss of electrons (increase in oxidation number), as in Na→Na++e−Na \to Na^+ + e^-.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

What is the pH of a salt formed from a strong acid and strong base? (a) Less than 7 (b) More than 7 (c) Around 7 (d) Exactly 1

Answer

(c) Around 7. A salt of a strong acid and strong base (e.g. NaCl) does not hydrolyse, so its solution is neutral, with pH about 7.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a basic salt? (a) Sodium chloride (b) Ammonium sulfate (c) Sodium carbonate (d) Potassium nitrate

Answer

(c) Sodium carbonate. It is formed from a strong base (NaOH) and a weak acid (H2_2CO3_3), so its anion hydrolyses and the solution is alkaline.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which of the following does not affect the rate of reaction? (a) Surface area (b) Temperature (c) Mass of beaker (d) Concentration

Answer

(c) Mass of beaker. Surface area, temperature and concentration all change collision frequency or energy, but the mass of the container has no effect on the rate.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

A catalyst affects a reaction by: (a) Increasing activation energy (b) Providing more energy (c) Lowering activation energy (d) Raising pH

Answer

(c) Lowering activation energy. A catalyst provides an alternative pathway with lower activation energy, so more particles can react, and it is not consumed.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

What is the term for the minimum energy needed for a reaction to occur? (a) Bond energy (b) Reaction threshold (c) Activation energy (d) Equilibrium constant

Answer

(c) Activation energy. It is the minimum energy that reacting particles must have for a collision to result in a reaction.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

What is the shape of an s orbital? (a) Dumbbell (b) Spherical (c) Cloverleaf (d) Linear

Answer

(b) Spherical. An s orbital is spherically symmetrical about the nucleus; p orbitals are dumbbell-shaped.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which principle states that electrons occupy the lowest energy orbital available? (a) Pauli Exclusion Principle (b) Hund's Rule (c) Aufbau Principle (d) Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle

Answer

(c) Aufbau Principle. Electrons fill orbitals in order of increasing energy, starting from the lowest available (1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, ...).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which of the following orbitals can be found in the second energy level? (a) 1s (b) 2p (c) 3d (d) 4f

Answer

(b) 2p. The second energy level (n=2n=2) contains only 2s and 2p; 1s belongs to n=1n=1, 3d to n=3n=3 and 4f to n=4n=4.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which ion has the same electron configuration as neon? (a) Na+ (b) F− (c) O2− (d) All of the above

Answer

(d) All of the above. Na+^+, F−^- and O2−^{2-} each have 10 electrons, with configuration 1s22s22p61s^2 2s^2 2p^6, the same as neon.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Mitochondria is known as the: (a) Brain of the cell (b) Powerhouse of the cell (c) Storage house (d) Control center Ans: B

Answer

(b) Powerhouse of the cell. Mitochondria produce most of the cell's ATP through aerobic respiration.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which of the following determines the sex of a child? (a) X chromosome of father (b) Y chromosome of father (c) X chromosome of mother (d) Y chromosome of mother

Answer

(b) Y chromosome of father. The mother always contributes an X, while the father gives either X (daughter, XX) or Y (son, XY), so the father's sperm decides the sex.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Example of renewable resource is: (a) Coal (b) Petroleum (c) Wind (d) Natural gas

Answer

(c) Wind. Wind is naturally replenished and inexhaustible, unlike coal, petroleum and natural gas, which are fossil fuels that take millions of years to form.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Scientific name of human being is: (a) Homo erectus (b) Homo sapiens (c) Homo habilis (d) Homo neanderthalensis

Answer

(b) Homo sapiens. This is the binomial name of modern humans (genus Homo, species sapiens).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

The lifespan of a drone bee is: (a) 2–3 days (b) Few weeks (c) Several years (d) 5 months

Answer

(b) Few weeks. A drone honey bee lives only for a few weeks (roughly 8 weeks at most) and dies after mating or when expelled from the hive before winter.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which part of the human digestive system absorbs nutrients? (a) Stomach (b) Liver (c) Small intestine (d) Large intestine

Answer

(c) Small intestine. Its long, folded wall with villi gives a large surface area for absorbing digested nutrients into the blood and lymph.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which of the following is an organ of the circulatory system? (a) Lungs (b) Brain (c) Heart (d) Kidney

Answer

(c) Heart. The heart pumps blood through the blood vessels; lungs belong to the respiratory system, the brain to the nervous system and kidneys to the excretory system.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

The branch of science dealing with classification is: (a) Anatomy (b) Ecology (c) Taxonomy (d) Cytology

Answer

(c) Taxonomy. Taxonomy is the science of identifying, naming and classifying organisms.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a decomposer? (a) Cow (b) Bacteria (c) Tree (d) Tiger

Answer

(b) Bacteria

Decomposers break down dead organisms and wastes into simple substances. Bacteria (and fungi) do this; cows are consumers, trees are producers and tigers are consumers.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

The life cycle of honeybee is an example of: (a) Incomplete metamorphosis (b) Asexual reproduction (c) Complete metamorphosis (d) Budding

Answer

(c) Complete metamorphosis

The honeybee passes through egg, larva, pupa and adult stages, with the larva looking very different from the adult. This is complete metamorphosis.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which organ in the human body produces insulin? (a) liver (b) Pancreas (c) Kidney (d) stomach

Answer

(b) Pancreas

The beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas secrete insulin, which lowers blood glucose.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which of the following is recessive trait? (a) Curly hair (b) Tongue rolling (c) Attached earlobes (d) Dimples

Answer

(c) Attached earlobes

Free earlobes are dominant, so attached earlobes are the recessive trait. Curly hair, tongue rolling and dimples are dominant traits.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which one of the following nitrogen base is not found in R.N.A.? (a) Adenine (b) Thymine (c) Cytosine (d) Guanine

Answer

(b) Thymine

RNA contains adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil. Thymine occurs only in DNA, where uracil is replaced by it.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Human blood consists of ____ plasma & ___ blood corpuscles. (a) 40% & 60% (b) 45% & 55% (c) 50% & 50% (d) 55% & 45%

Answer

(d) 55% & 45%

Plasma makes up about 55% of blood volume and the blood corpuscles (RBC, WBC, platelets) about 45%.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is responsible for clotting of blood? (a) Plasma (b) Platelets (c) W.B.C. (d) R.B.C.

Answer

(b) Platelets

Platelets (thrombocytes) release clotting factors at the site of injury, helping form a fibrin clot that stops bleeding.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which chamber of human heart collects pure (oxygenated) blood? (a) Left auricle (b) Left Ventricle (c) Right auricle (d) Right Ventricle

Answer

(a) Left auricle

Oxygenated blood from the lungs returns through the pulmonary veins to the left auricle (atrium). The left ventricle pumps it out, but it does not collect it.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Blood pressure of normal human body is __________. (a) 100 / 80 mm of Hg (b) 120/ 80 mm of Hg (c) 120/100 mm of Hg (d) 140/100 mm of Hg

Answer

(b) 120/80 mm of Hg

Normal blood pressure is 120 mm Hg systolic and 80 mm Hg diastolic.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which one of the following gas causes air pollution? (a) CO2 (b) SO2 (c) NO2 (d) All of above

Answer

(d) All of above

CO2_2 (a greenhouse gas), SO2_2 and NO2_2 (causes of acid rain and smog) all pollute the air.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 7 · 1 mark

Which one of the following not the endangered animal in Nepal? (a) Red panda (b) Gharial (c) One horned rhino (d) Bald eagle

Answer

(d) Bald eagle

Red panda, gharial and one-horned rhino are endangered animals found in Nepal. The bald eagle is a North American bird, not an endangered animal of Nepal.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not a derived unit ? (a) .Ohm (b) Watt (c) Mole (d) Volt

Answer

(c) Mole

The mole is the SI base unit of amount of substance. Ohm, watt and volt are derived from base units (e.g. V=kg⋅m2s−3A−1\text{V} = \text{kg·m}^2\text{s}^{-3}\text{A}^{-1}).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

What is the weight of a body having 50 kg mass on the moon? (a) 8.35 N (b) 83.5 N (c) 835 (d) 8355 N

Answer

(b) 83.5 N

Gravity on the moon is gm≈1.67 m/s2g_m \approx 1.67\ \text{m/s}^2, so W=mgm=50×1.67=83.5 NW = mg_m = 50 \times 1.67 = 83.5\ \text{N}

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

What will be the change in the gravitational force between two bodies when they are taken from the earth to the lunar surface? (a) Force increases by six times . (b) Force decreases by six times . (c) Force remains same . (d) Force becomes zero .

Answer

(c) Force remains same.

By Newton's law of gravitation F=Gm1m2r2F = \dfrac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}, the force between two bodies depends only on their masses and the distance between them, not on where they are placed.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

A stone is dropped from top of a tower & it striked the ground after time 2 seconds then what is the height of the tower ? (a) 5 meter (b) 10 meter (c) 20 meter (d) 40 meter

Answer

(c) 20 meter

For a body dropped from rest, with g=10 m/s2g = 10\ \text{m/s}^2: h=12gt2=12×10×22=20 mh = \tfrac{1}{2}gt^2 = \tfrac{1}{2}\times 10 \times 2^2 = 20\ \text{m}

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

What would be the weight of a body of mass 20 kg at the distance 12000 km from center of the earth of mass 6 × 10²⁴ kg? (a) 25 N (b) 35 N (c) 45 N (d) 55 N

Answer

(d) 55 N

g′=GMr2=6.67×10−11×6×1024(1.2×107)2≈2.78 m/s2g' = \frac{GM}{r^2} = \frac{6.67\times10^{-11}\times 6\times10^{24}}{(1.2\times10^{7})^2} \approx 2.78\ \text{m/s}^2 W=mg′=20×2.78≈55.6 NW = mg' = 20 \times 2.78 \approx 55.6\ \text{N} The nearest option is 55 N.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

A life jacket works based on the principle of _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ (a) Newton's law (b) Bernoulli's principle (c) Pascal's law (d) Archimedes' law

Answer

(d) Archimedes' law

A life jacket is filled with light material, so it displaces a large volume of water and the upthrust (buoyant force) equals the weight of the person plus jacket, keeping them afloat.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Upthrust is the ............................ force experienced by an object immersed in a liquid ? (a) downward (b) gravitational (c) upward (d) horizontal

Answer

(c) upward

Upthrust (buoyant force) is the upward force exerted by a fluid on an object immersed in it, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Why do objects float more easily in sea water than in river water ? (a) Temperature of sea water is more than that of river water. (b) Temperature of sea water is less than that of river water. (c) Density of sea water is more than that of river water. (d) Density of sea water is less than that of river water.

Answer

(c) Density of sea water is more than that of river water.

Dissolved salts make sea water denser, so it provides a larger upthrust for the same volume displaced, and an object floats more easily.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

In a hydraulic machine, area of big piston is 25 cm² & that of small piston is 4 cm² then how much effort should be applied in the small piston to overcome the load of 5000N in big piston ? (a) 600 N (b) 800 N (c) 1000 N (d) 1200 N

Answer

(b) 800 N

By Pascal's law, F1A1=F2A2\dfrac{F_1}{A_1} = \dfrac{F_2}{A_2}: F1=A1A2F2=425×5000=800 NF_1 = \frac{A_1}{A_2}F_2 = \frac{4}{25}\times 5000 = 800\ \text{N}

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Boiling point of water in kelvin scale is.................... (a) 300 K (b) 312 K (c) 332 K (d) 373 K

Answer

(d) 373 K

Water boils at 100∘C100^\circ\text{C}, and K=∘C+273=100+273=373 KK = {}^\circ\text{C} + 273 = 100 + 273 = 373\ \text{K}.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

When a hot body is kept in contact with the cold body then the hot body looses heat to the cold body until they have same .......... . (a) mass (b) specific heat capacity (c) temperature (d) state

Answer

(c) temperature

Heat flows from the hotter to the colder body until both reach thermal equilibrium, i.e. the same temperature.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

What is the S.I unit temperature ? (a) Celcius (b) Kelvin (c) Joule (d) Calorine

Answer

(b) Kelvin

Kelvin (K) is the SI unit of temperature. Celsius is a common scale but not the SI unit; joule and calorie are units of energy.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

What type of image is formed when an object is placed at 30 Cm in front of a convex lens with the value of 2F as 80 Cm ? (a) Real and magnified (b) Real and diminished (c) Virtual and magnified (d) Virtual and diminished

Answer

(c) Virtual and magnified

2F=802F = 80 cm, so F=40F = 40 cm. The object distance u=30 cm<Fu = 30\ \text{cm} < F, i.e. the object lies between the optical centre and the focus. A convex lens then forms a virtual, erect and magnified image on the same side as the object.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Power of a lens is calculated by taking ... .... of its focal length (f) when it is in meter. (a) double (b) half (c) square root (d) reciprocal

Answer

(d) reciprocal

Power of a lens P=1fP = \dfrac{1}{f} with ff in metres, measured in dioptres (D).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which device is based on the principle of mutual induction ? (a) Electric motor (b) Generator (c) Inverter (d) Transformer

Answer

(d) Transformer

A transformer works on mutual induction: a changing current in the primary coil induces an emf in the nearby secondary coil. Motors and generators work on other principles (force on a conductor; electromagnetic induction by motion).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

What is the unit of electricity consumption ? (a) Watt hour (b) Kilowatt hour (c) Watt second (d) Kilowatt second

Answer

(b) Kilowatt hour

Electrical energy consumed is measured in kilowatt hour (kWh), the commercial unit: 1 kWh=3.6×106 J1\ \text{kWh} = 3.6\times10^{6}\ \text{J}.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

What is the meaning of 'd' in Hubble’s principle V = H.d ? (a) Density of galaxies . (b) Distance between galaxies . (c) Diameter of galaxies . (d) Depth of galaxies .

Answer

(b) Distance between galaxies.

In Hubble's law V=H dV = H\,d, VV is the recession velocity of a galaxy, HH is Hubble's constant and dd is its distance from us.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which element is placed in group 1 and period 2? (a) Hydrogen (b) Lithium (c) Sodium (d) Potassium

Answer

(b) Lithium

Lithium (atomic number 3, electronic configuration 2,1) has one valence electron, so it is in group 1, and two shells, so it is in period 2.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

T he reaction: Z n + H C l → Z nC l2 + H 2 is a: (a) Combination reaction (b) Displacement reaction (c) Decomposition reaction (d) Neutralization

Answer

(b) Displacement reaction

Zn+2HCl→ZnCl2+H2\text{Zn} + 2\text{HCl} \rightarrow \text{ZnCl}_2 + \text{H}_2 The more reactive zinc displaces hydrogen from the acid.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which of the following is a decomposition reaction? (a) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 (b) H2 + O2 → H2O (c) Na + Cl2 → NaCl (d) Cu + A gNO3 → A g + Cu(NO3)2

Answer

(a) CaCO3→CaO+CO2\text{CaCO}_3 \rightarrow \text{CaO} + \text{CO}_2

One compound breaks down into two simpler substances on heating, which is decomposition. The others are combination or displacement reactions.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which gas is collected over water in the lab preparation of hydrogen? (a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Chlorine (d) Carbon dioxide

Answer

(b) Hydrogen

Hydrogen is almost insoluble in water, so it is collected by downward displacement of water, e.g. from Zn+H2SO4\text{Zn} + \text{H}_2\text{SO}_4.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which metal is the most malleable? (a) Iron (b) Gold (c) Zinc (d) Copper

Answer

(b) Gold. Gold is the most malleable metal; it can be hammered into extremely thin sheets (gold leaf) without breaking.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which gas is used to make fertilizers? (a) Oxygen (b) Ammonia (c) Hydrogen (d) Carbon dioxide

Answer

(b) Ammonia. Ammonia (NH3_3), made by the Haber process, is the raw material for urea, ammonium nitrate and ammonium sulphate fertilizers.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which compound is the main component of natural gas? (a) Ethane (b) Methane (c) Propane (d) Butane

Answer

(b) Methane. Natural gas is about 85-95% methane (CH4_4), with small amounts of ethane and propane.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Acetylene is also known as: (a) Ethane (b) Methane (c) Ethyne (d) Butene

Answer

(c) Ethyne. Acetylene is the common name of ethyne, C2_2H2_2, the simplest alkyne.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which compound is used as an antacid? (a) H2SO4 (b) NaOH (c) Mg(OH)2 (d) NaCl

Answer

(c) Mg(OH)2_2. Magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) is a weak base that neutralises excess stomach HCl. H2_2SO4_4 and NaOH are too corrosive, and NaCl is neutral.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which chemical is used in making soaps? (a) Sodium chloride (b) Potassium hydroxide (c) Calcium carbonate (d) Sulphur dioxide

Answer

(b) Potassium hydroxide. Soap is made by saponification, heating fats or oils with a strong alkali such as KOH (soft soap) or NaOH (hard soap).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

In which block of modern periodic table, inert gas are kept? (a) S – block (b) P – block (c) d – block (d) f - block

Answer

(b) p-block. The noble (inert) gases (group 18/VIII A) have the outer configuration ns2np6ns^2np^6, so they lie in the p-block (helium, 1s21s^2, is placed with them).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

In modern periodic table, alkaline earth metals are kept in the group __________. (a) I ‘A’ (b) II ‘A’ (c) VII ‘A’ (d) VIII ‘A’

Answer

(b) II ‘A’. Alkaline earth metals (Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba, Ra) have the outer configuration ns2ns^2 and form group II A.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is the most reactive non-metal? (a) Fluorine (b) Chlorine (c) Bromine (d) Iodine

Answer

(a) Fluorine. Reactivity of non-metals decreases down group 17 because the tendency to gain an electron falls as atomic size increases. Fluorine is smallest and most electronegative, so it is the most reactive.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which chemical reaction is also known as neutralization reaction? A) (a) Acid - base reaction (b) Combination reaction (c) Decomposition reaction (d) Displacement reaction

Answer

(a) Acid - base reaction. A neutralization reaction is the reaction of an acid with a base to give salt and water, e.g. HCl + NaOH →\to NaCl + H2_2O.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which one of the following factor is required in the reaction, N2 + 3H 2 →2N H 3? (a) Heat (b) Pressure (c) Catalyst (d) All of above

Answer

(d) All of above. In the Haber process, N2_2 + 3H2_2 ⇌\rightleftharpoons 2NH3_3 needs a high temperature (about 450-500 °C, heat), high pressure (about 200 atm) and an iron catalyst (with molybdenum promoter).

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

When Ammonia gas is passed into the water containing phenolphthalein then it turns into (a) red (b) blue (c) pink (d) yellow

Answer

(c) pink. Ammonia dissolves in water to give NH4_4OH, a weak base, which turns colourless phenolphthalein pink.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which one of the following compounds is used as antacid? (a) NaOH (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) NH4(OH) (d) Mg(OH)2

Answer

(d) Mg(OH)2_2. Magnesium hydroxide is a mild, sparingly soluble base used to neutralise excess stomach acid. NaOH and Ca(OH)2_2 are too caustic, and NH4_4OH is unsuitable for ingestion.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

How many electrons can be accommodated in d-subshell? (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 14

Answer

(c) 10. A subshell holds 2(2l+1)2(2l+1) electrons; for the d-subshell l=2l=2, so 2(5)=102(5)=10 electrons.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which gas is not considered as greenhouse gas? (a) Methane (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Oxygen (d) Nitrous oxide

Answer

(c) Oxygen. Methane, carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide absorb infrared radiation and trap heat. Oxygen (O2_2) does not, so it is not a greenhouse gas.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which one of the following is not a coinage metal? (a) Aluminium (b) Copper (c) Gold (d) Silver

Answer

(a) Aluminium. Coinage metals are copper, silver and gold (group 11), used for making coins and jewellery. Aluminium is not one of them.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

In which group does sodium citrate lie? (a) Soap (b) Detergent (c) I nsecticide (d) Food preservative

Answer

(d) Food preservative. Sodium citrate is used as a food preservative and acidity regulator (also as an anticoagulant). It is not a soap, detergent or insecticide.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Identify the group of insecticides? (a) DDT, sodium chloride, Aldrin (b) Dieldrin, DDT, methoxychloride (c) Potassium chloride, aldrin, malathion (d) Potassium chloride, aldrin, BHC

Answer

(b) Dieldrin, DDT, methoxychlor. All three are organochlorine insecticides. Sodium chloride and potassium chloride are not insecticides, so the other options are wrong.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which bee contains only 16 chromosomes? (a) Queen bee (b) Worker bee (c) Drone bee (d) Queen and worker bee

Answer

(c) Drone bee. Drones develop from unfertilised eggs (parthenogenesis), so they are haploid with 16 chromosomes. Queens and workers develop from fertilised eggs and are diploid with 32.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which bee is formed when the larva is feed royal jelly continuously? (a) Queen (b) Drone (c) Workers (d) Queen and worker bee

Answer

(a) Queen. A larva fed royal jelly throughout its larval life develops into a queen. Workers get royal jelly only for the first few days, then honey and pollen.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Where does the queen bee stores the sperm received from the drone bee after the nauptial flight (a) Pollen sac (b) Ovary (c) Sperm sac (d) Egg sac

Answer

(c) Sperm sac. After the nuptial flight the queen stores the sperm in her spermatheca (sperm sac) and uses it to fertilise eggs during her life.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

What is the main function of sex chromosomes? (a) To determine physical character (b) To determine sex (c) To increase immunity (d) To determine the structure of the eye

Answer

(b) To determine sex. Sex chromosomes (X and Y in humans) determine the sex of an individual: XX gives a female and XY a male.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

In order to produce good meat, farmers look for Boer goats and cross them with local goats. What kind of breeding method is this? (a) Artificial insemination (b) Selective breeding (c) IVF (d) Natural selection

Answer

(b) Selective breeding. Farmers choose parents with desirable traits (here the meat quality of Boer goats) and cross them with local goats to pass the trait to the offspring. This is selective (cross) breeding.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which part of Bojo is used for medicinal purposes? (a) Rhizome (b) Leaf (c) Stem (d) Flower

Answer

(a) Rhizome

Bojo (Acorus calamus) is a marsh herb whose underground stem, the rhizome, contains the aromatic oil used in medicine, for example for cough, throat and digestive problems.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Rama has been coughing for a longtime? For this, which medicinal plant helps to get relief from cough? (a) Boiled neem water (b) Aloevera juice (c) Boiled tulsi water (d) Yatsagumba powder

Answer

(c) Boiled tulsi water

Tulsi (holy basil) has expectorant and antimicrobial properties, so its boiled water soothes the throat and relieves cough. Neem water is used for skin problems, aloe vera for burns and skin, and yarsagumba as a tonic.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Who is the founder of the binomial system of nomenclature? (a) Carolus Linnaeua (b) R.H. whitaker (c) Chatton (d) Robert Koch

Answer

(a) Carolus Linnaeus

Linnaeus introduced binomial nomenclature, giving each species a two-part Latin name (genus then species), in Species Plantarum (1753). He is called the father of taxonomy.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

What characteristic make the Euglena different from other animals? (a) Presence of chlorophyll (b) Unicellular (c) Find in water (d) Depend to other organism

Answer

(a) Presence of chlorophyll

Euglena is a unicellular, water-living organism like many protozoa, but it has chlorophyll and can make food by photosynthesis, which animals cannot do.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which mushroom is used to prepare the medicine for the cancer? (a) Red mushroom (b) Dalle mushroom (c) Kanya mushroom (d) Gobre mushroom

Answer

(a) Red mushroom

Red mushroom (Ganoderma lucidum, also called Reishi or Lingzhi) is used to prepare anticancer and immunity-boosting medicines.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

What is the name of the sterile cell in hymenium? (a) Basidium (b) Trama (c) Paraphysis (d) Hypha

Answer

(c) Paraphysis

The hymenium is the spore-bearing layer of the fruiting body. It consists of fertile basidia, which bear the spores, and sterile cells called paraphyses.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which one is the example of homologous organs? (a) Our hand and fore leg of the horse (b) Our ear and rabbit ear (c) Canine teeth of human and dog (d) Our hand and elephant ivory

Answer

(a) Our hand and fore leg of the horse

Homologous organs have the same basic structure and origin but may perform different functions. The human arm and the horse fore limb share the same bone plan (humerus, radius, ulna, carpals and so on).

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Where does the meristematic tissue lie in plants? (a) Tip of root (b) Tip of stem and branch (c) Around the stem (d) All parts of plant

Answer

(b) Tip of stem and branch

Meristematic tissue is found at growing regions called apical meristems, at the tips of stems and branches (and also at root tips), where cells divide continuously to increase length. It is not found in all parts of the plant.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which one is the type of tissue with cell division capacity? (a) Complex tissue (b) Connective tissue (c) Permanent tissue (d) Meristematic tissue

Answer

(d) Meristematic tissue

Meristematic cells are young, thin-walled and actively dividing. Permanent tissues are mature and have lost the ability to divide.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which part of nervous system is in ash colour? (a) Nerve fibers (b) Cyton (c) Axon (d) Dendrites

Answer

(b) Cyton

The cell bodies (cytons) of neurons give grey matter its ash colour. Axons and nerve fibres are covered by a fatty myelin sheath, so they form white matter.

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  • 2082 · United Academy Science Model Set 8 · 1 mark

Which hormone causes apical dominance? (a) Cytokinin (b) Auxin (c) Ethylene (d) Gibberellin

Answer

(b) Auxin

Auxin produced in the apical bud moves downward and inhibits the growth of lateral buds, so the main shoot grows taller. Removing the tip (pruning) lets the side buds grow.

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Questions from KIST College & SS, Post-SEE Students Gearing Up for +2 Entrance Exams (2018 book), Practice Test 1 (Science) (College-published practice test (100 MCQs: English, Mathematics, Science, GK/IQ) in the April 2018 entrance preparation book; model set, not a recalled paper), KIST College & SS, Post-SEE Students Gearing Up for +2 Entrance Exams (2018 book), Practice Test 2 (Science) (College-published practice test (100 MCQs: English, Mathematics, Science, GK/IQ) in the April 2018 entrance preparation book; model set, not a recalled paper), KIST College & SS, Post-SEE Students Gearing Up for +2 Entrance Exams (2018 book), Practice Test 3 (Science) (College-published practice test (100 MCQs: English, Mathematics, Science, GK/IQ) in the April 2018 entrance preparation book; model set, not a recalled paper), KIST College & SS, Post-SEE Students Gearing Up for +2 Entrance Exams (2018 book), Practice Test 4 (Science) (College-published practice test (100 MCQs: English, Mathematics, Science, GK/IQ) in the April 2018 entrance preparation book; model set, not a recalled paper), KIST College & SS, Post-SEE Students Gearing Up for +2 Entrance Exams (2018 book), Practice Test 5 (Science) (College-published practice test (100 MCQs: English, Mathematics, Science, GK/IQ) in the April 2018 entrance preparation book; model set, not a recalled paper), KIST College & SS, +2 Science Entrance Sample Test Set A (2019) (College-published model set (100 MCQs, 1 hr 30 min: English 20, Science 50, Mathematics 20, GK 10); year inferred from its 2019 references, file hosted on the KIST site), Motherland Secondary School, Pokhara, +2 Science Entrance Examination 2074 (Set A) (College entrance paper for Class 11 Science (100 marks, 2 hrs: English, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics, Nepali), 2074 BS (2017 AD); collected on the Gaurab Subedi +2 entrance blog), Study Notes Nepal: SEE Entrance Model Question for top ten colleges (2023), Set 1 (Unattributed practice set compiled by a study-notes site (June 2023) for +2 Science entrance preparation (English, Maths, Physics, Chemistry, Biology); not an official college paper), Study Notes Nepal: SEE Entrance Model Question for top ten colleges (2023), Set 2 (Unattributed practice set compiled by a study-notes site (June 2023) for +2 Science entrance preparation (English, Maths, Physics, Chemistry, Biology); not an official college paper), Colleges Nepal, Bridge Course Model Questions 2025, Practice Set 5 (Science) (Bridge-course practice set (100 MCQs for +2 Science entrance: English, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics) published on the Colleges Nepal bridge course page, 2025; model set, not a recalled paper), Colleges Nepal, Bridge Course Model Questions 2025, Practice Set 10 (Science) (Bridge-course practice set (100 MCQs for +2 Science entrance: English, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics) published on the Colleges Nepal bridge course page, 2025; model set, not a recalled paper), Colleges Nepal, Bridge Course Model Questions 2025, Practice Set 4 (Science) (Bridge-course practice set (100 MCQs for +2 Science entrance: English, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics) published on the Colleges Nepal bridge course page, 2025; model set, not a recalled paper), United Academy, Lalitpur, Faculty of Science Model Question for Entrance Examination 2080 (School-published sample questions (selection from a 100-question paper: Maths, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, English), 2080 BS; collected on the Gaurab Subedi +2 entrance blog), SOS Hermann Gmeiner School, Sanothimi, Grade XI Entrance Exam Model Question 2079 (School-published model question (100 MCQs, 2 hours, Science stream: Physics, Biology, Chemistry, English/GK, Mathematics), 2079 BS (2022 AD)), SOS Hermann Gmeiner School, Sanothimi, Grade XI Entrance Exam 2025 (2082 BS) Model Question, Set A (School-published model question (100 MCQs, 2 hours, Science stream: Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, English, GK), 2025 AD), KIST College & SS, Post-SEE Students Gearing Up for +2 Entrance Exams (2018 book), English practice MCQs (Practice MCQs at the end of topics in the April 2018 entrance preparation book published by KIST College (for +2 Science/Management entrance); practice items, not recalled papers), KIST College & SS, Post-SEE Students Gearing Up for +2 Entrance Exams (2018 book), Mathematics practice MCQs (Practice MCQs at the end of topics in the April 2018 entrance preparation book published by KIST College (for +2 Science/Management entrance); practice items, not recalled papers), KIST College & SS, Post-SEE Students Gearing Up for +2 Entrance Exams (2018 book), Physics practice MCQs (Practice MCQs at the end of topics in the April 2018 entrance preparation book published by KIST College (for +2 Science/Management entrance); practice items, not recalled papers), KIST College & SS, Post-SEE Students Gearing Up for +2 Entrance Exams (2018 book), Chemistry practice MCQs (Practice MCQs at the end of topics in the April 2018 entrance preparation book published by KIST College (for +2 Science/Management entrance); practice items, not recalled papers), KIST College & SS, Post-SEE Students Gearing Up for +2 Entrance Exams (2018 book), Zoology practice MCQs (Practice MCQs at the end of topics in the April 2018 entrance preparation book published by KIST College (for +2 Science/Management entrance); practice items, not recalled papers), KIST College & SS, Post-SEE Students Gearing Up for +2 Entrance Exams (2018 book), Botany practice MCQs (Practice MCQs at the end of topics in the April 2018 entrance preparation book published by KIST College (for +2 Science/Management entrance); practice items, not recalled papers), United Academy, Lalitpur, Entrance Model Questions 2082 (2025 booklet), Science Model Set 1 (College-published model set for the Grade XI entrance (2 hours, 100 MCQs: Mathematics 25, Physics 20, Chemistry 20, Biology 20, English 15), booklet dated 2025 (2082 BS); model/practice set, not a recalled paper), United Academy, Lalitpur, Entrance Model Questions 2082 (2025 booklet), Science Model Set 2 (College-published model set for the Grade XI entrance (2 hours, 100 MCQs: Mathematics 25, Physics 20, Chemistry 20, Biology 20, English 15), booklet dated 2025 (2082 BS); model/practice set, not a recalled paper), United Academy, Lalitpur, Entrance Model Questions 2082 (2025 booklet), Science Model Set 3 (College-published model set for the Grade XI entrance (2 hours, 100 MCQs: Mathematics 25, Physics 20, Chemistry 20, Biology 20, English 15), booklet dated 2025 (2082 BS); model/practice set, not a recalled paper), United Academy, Lalitpur, Entrance Model Questions 2082 (2025 booklet), Science Model Set 4 (College-published model set for the Grade XI entrance (2 hours, 100 MCQs: Mathematics 25, Physics 20, Chemistry 20, Biology 20, English 15), booklet dated 2025 (2082 BS); model/practice set, not a recalled paper), United Academy, Lalitpur, Entrance Model Questions 2082 (2025 booklet), Science Model Set 5 (College-published model set for the Grade XI entrance (2 hours, 100 MCQs: Mathematics 25, Physics 20, Chemistry 20, Biology 20, English 15), booklet dated 2025 (2082 BS); model/practice set, not a recalled paper), United Academy, Lalitpur, Entrance Model Questions 2082 (2025 booklet), Science Model Set 6 (College-published model set for the Grade XI entrance (2 hours, 100 MCQs: Mathematics 25, Physics 20, Chemistry 20, Biology 20, English 15), booklet dated 2025 (2082 BS); model/practice set, not a recalled paper), United Academy, Lalitpur, Entrance Model Questions 2082 (2025 booklet), Science Model Set 7 (College-published model set for the Grade XI entrance (2 hours, 100 MCQs: Mathematics 25, Physics 20, Chemistry 20, Biology 20, English 15), booklet dated 2025 (2082 BS); model/practice set, not a recalled paper) and United Academy, Lalitpur, Entrance Model Questions 2082 (2025 booklet), Science Model Set 8 (College-published model set for the Grade XI entrance (2 hours, 100 MCQs: Mathematics 25, Physics 20, Chemistry 20, Biology 20, English 15), booklet dated 2025 (2082 BS); model/practice set, not a recalled paper). 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