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Chapter 5

Physics

TU BSc CSIT past exam questions

Past questions and answers

87 questions set from this chapter, 6 of them more than once; 7 are most repeated (set, or a close variant set, in 3 or more exams). Most repeated first.

  • Most repeated · 4 of 8 exams
  • Asked 2 times
  • 2079 · 5 marks
  • 2081 · 5 marks

An oscillating block of mass 250 g takes 0.15 sec to move between the endpoints of the motion, which are 40 cm apart. Find (a) frequency and (b) amplitude of the motion, and.(c) force constant of the spring.

Similar questions: Physics: An oscillating block of mass 250 g (2080) · Physics: An oscillating block of mass 250 g (2074)

Answer

The block moves from one endpoint to the other in half a period, so T/2=0.15T/2 = 0.15 s and T=0.30T = 0.30 s. The endpoints are 40 cm apart, which is twice the amplitude.

(a) Frequency.

f=1T=10.30=3.33 Hzf = \frac{1}{T} = \frac{1}{0.30} = 3.33\ \text{Hz}

(b) Amplitude.

A=0.402=0.20 m=20 cmA = \frac{0.40}{2} = 0.20\ \text{m} = 20\ \text{cm}

(c) Force constant. The angular frequency is ω=2πf=2π/0.30=20.94\omega = 2\pi f = 2\pi/0.30 = 20.94 rad/s. Using ω2=k/m\omega^2 = k/m:

k=mω2=0.250×(20.94)2=0.250×438.6≈110 N/mk = m\omega^2 = 0.250\times(20.94)^2 = 0.250\times438.6 \approx 110\ \text{N/m}

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • Most repeated · 4 of 8 exams
  • 2074 · 5 marks

An oscillating block of mass 250 g takes 0.15 sec to move between the endpoints of motion, which are 40cm apart.
  • What is the frequency of the motion?
  • What is the amplitude of the motions?
  • What is the forces constant of the spring?

Similar questions: Physics: An oscillating block of mass 250 g (2081) · Physics: An oscillating block of mass 250 g (2080)

Answer

Given: m=250 g=0.25m=250\ \text{g}=0.25 kg; time between the two endpoints =0.15=0.15 s; distance between endpoints =40=40 cm.

(a) Frequency. Moving from one endpoint to the other takes half a period, so T/2=0.15T/2=0.15 s and

T=0.30 s,f=1T=10.30≈3.33 Hz.T=0.30\ \text{s},\qquad f=\frac1T=\frac1{0.30}\approx3.33\ \text{Hz}.

(b) Amplitude. The endpoints are 2A2A apart:

A=402=20 cm=0.20 m.A=\frac{40}{2}=20\ \text{cm}=0.20\ \text{m}.

(c) Force constant. The angular frequency is

ω=2πf=2π0.30=20.94 rad/s.\omega=2\pi f=\frac{2\pi}{0.30}=20.94\ \text{rad/s}.

Since ω=k/m\omega=\sqrt{k/m},

k=mω2=0.25×(20.94)2=0.25×438.6≈110 N/m.k=m\omega^2=0.25\times(20.94)^2=0.25\times438.6\approx110\ \text{N/m}.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • Most repeated · 4 of 8 exams
  • 2075 · 5 marks

The output of a digital circuit (y) is given by this expression: y=(CB+C‾A)(BA‾) y=(CB + \overline{C}A)(\overline{BA}) where A,B and C represent inputs. Draw a circuit of the above equation using OR, AND and NOT gate and hence find its truth table.

Similar questions: Physics: The output of a digital circuit (y) (2079) · Physics: The output of a digital circuit (y) (2080) · Physics: The output of a digital circuit ($ (2081)

Answer

y=(CB+C‾A) (BA‾)y = (CB + \overline{C}A)\,(\overline{BA})

Circuit (AND, OR, NOT gates):

  1. A NOT gate on CC gives C‾\overline{C}.
  2. AND gate 1: inputs CC, BB gives CBCB.
  3. AND gate 2: inputs C‾\overline{C}, AA gives C‾A\overline{C}A.
  4. OR gate: inputs CBCB and C‾A\overline{C}A gives P=CB+C‾AP = CB + \overline{C}A.
  5. AND gate 3: inputs BB, AA gives BABA; a NOT gate on it gives BA‾\overline{BA}.
  6. Final AND gate: inputs PP and BA‾\overline{BA} gives yy.

This uses 3 AND, 1 OR and 2 NOT gates for the first part, plus one more AND for the last stage (four AND gates in total).

Truth table:

ABCCBCBC‾A\overline{C}APPBA‾\overline{BA}yy
00000010
00100010
01000010
01110111
10001111
10100010
11000000
11110100

Hence y=1y = 1 only for (A,B,C)=(0,1,1)(A,B,C) = (0,1,1) and (1,0,0)(1,0,0), i.e. y=A‾BC+AB‾ C‾y = \overline{A}BC + A\overline{B}\,\overline{C}.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • Most repeated · 4 of 8 exams
  • 2079 · 5 marks

The output of a digital circuit (y) is given by this expression: y = (A’B’+ B’A) ((A + B)’ + C) Where A, B and C represent inputs. Draw a circuit of above equation using OR, AND and NOT gate and hence find its truth table.

Similar questions: Physics: The output of a digital circuit (y) (2075) · Physics: The output of a digital circuit (y) (2080) · Physics: The output of a digital circuit ($ (2081)

Answer

y=(A′B′+B′A) ((A+B)′+C)y=(A'B'+B'A)\,\big((A+B)'+C\big)

Circuit. The gates needed are:

  • NOT gates on AA and BB to give A′A' and B′B'.
  • Two AND gates, A′⋅B′A'\cdot B' and B′⋅AB'\cdot A, feeding an OR gate to give X=A′B′+B′AX = A'B' + B'A.
  • An OR gate on A,BA,B followed by a NOT gate to give (A+B)′(A+B)', then an OR gate with CC to give Z=(A+B)′+CZ=(A+B)'+C.
  • A final AND gate combining XX and ZZ to give y=X⋅Zy = X\cdot Z.

Truth table. Here X=A′B′+AB′X = A'B'+AB' and Z=(A+B)′+CZ=(A+B)'+C.

ABCA′B′A'B'B′AB'AXX(A+B)′(A+B)'ZZyy
000101111
001101111
010000000
011000010
100011000
101011011
110000000
111000010

Simplification (check). A′B′+AB′=B′A'B'+AB' = B' and (A+B)′=A′B′(A+B)'=A'B', so y=B′(A′B′+C)=A′B′+B′Cy=B'(A'B'+C)=A'B'+B'C. This is 1 for ABC=000,001,101ABC=000, 001, 101, which agrees with the table.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • Most repeated · 4 of 8 exams
  • 2080 · 5 marks

An oscillating block of mass 250 g takes 0.2 sec to move between the endpoints of the motion, which are 50 cm apart. Find the frequency and amplitude of the motion. what is the force constant of the spring?

Similar questions: Physics: An oscillating block of mass 250 g (2081) · Physics: An oscillating block of mass 250 g (2074)

Answer

The block takes half a period to travel between the endpoints, so T/2=0.2T/2=0.2 s and T=0.4T=0.4 s. The endpoints are 50 cm apart, which is twice the amplitude.

Frequency.

f=1T=10.4=2.5 Hzf=\frac1T=\frac1{0.4}=2.5\ \text{Hz}

Amplitude.

A=0.502=0.25 m=25 cmA=\frac{0.50}{2}=0.25\ \text{m}=25\ \text{cm}

Force constant. ω=2πf=5π=15.71\omega=2\pi f=5\pi=15.71 rad/s.

k=mω2=0.250×(15.71)2=0.250×246.7≈61.7 N/mk=m\omega^2=0.250\times(15.71)^2=0.250\times246.7\approx 61.7\ \text{N/m}

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • Most repeated · 4 of 8 exams
  • 2080 · 5 marks

The output of a digital circuit (y) is given by this expression: y = (C+ B’A) (A + B + D)’ Where A, B, C and D represent inputs. Draw a circuit of above equation using OR, AND and NOT gate and hence find its truth table.

Similar questions: Physics: The output of a digital circuit (y) (2075) · Physics: The output of a digital circuit (y) (2079) · Physics: The output of a digital circuit ($ (2081)

Answer

y=(C+B′A) (A+B+D)′y=(C+B'A)\,(A+B+D)'

Simplification. (A+B+D)′=A′B′D′(A+B+D)'=A'B'D'. Then

y=(C+B′A)A′B′D′=C A′B′D′+B′A⋅A′B′D′y=(C+B'A)A'B'D'=C\,A'B'D'+B'A\cdot A'B'D'

Since A⋅A′=0A\cdot A'=0, the second term vanishes, so y=A′B′CD′y=A'B'CD'.

Circuit.

  • NOT gate on BB to give B′B', then an AND gate (B′⋅AB'\cdot A).
  • An OR gate combining this with CC to give P=C+B′AP=C+B'A.
  • A 3-input OR gate A+B+DA+B+D followed by a NOT gate to give Q=(A+B+D)′Q=(A+B+D)'.
  • A final AND gate y=P⋅Qy=P\cdot Q.

Truth table.

ABCDB′AB'AP=C+B′AP=C+B'AA+B+DA+B+DQQyy
000000010
000100100
001001011
001101100
010000100
010100100
011001100
011101100
100011100
100111100
101011100
101111100
110000100
110100100
111001100
111101100

The output is 1 only for ABCD=0010ABCD=0010, which agrees with y=A′B′CD′y=A'B'CD'.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • Most repeated · 4 of 8 exams
  • 2081 · 5 marks

The output of a digital circuit (yy) is given by this expression:
y=(AB+CB‾⋅A)⋅B+C‾y = \left( AB + \overline{CB} \cdot A \right) \cdot \overline{B + C} Where AA, BB, and CC represent inputs. Draw a circuit of the above equation using OR, AND, and NOT gates and hence find its truth table.

Similar questions: Physics: The output of a digital circuit (y) (2075) · Physics: The output of a digital circuit (y) (2079) · Physics: The output of a digital circuit (y) (2080)

Answer

Simplification. Using CB‾=Cˉ+Bˉ\overline{CB}=\bar C+\bar B and B+C‾=Bˉ Cˉ\overline{B+C}=\bar B\,\bar C:

y=(AB+A(Bˉ+Cˉ))⋅Bˉ Cˉy=\big(AB+A(\bar B+\bar C)\big)\cdot\bar B\,\bar C

Expand: AB⋅BˉCˉ=0AB\cdot\bar B\bar C=0, and A(Bˉ+Cˉ)BˉCˉ=ABˉCˉA(\bar B+\bar C)\bar B\bar C=A\bar B\bar C. Therefore

y=A Bˉ Cˉy=A\,\bar B\,\bar C

Circuit (AND, OR, NOT gates).

  1. G1G_1: AND of AA and BB gives ABAB.
  2. G2G_2: AND of CC and BB gives CBCB. G3G_3: NOT of G2G_2 gives CB‾\overline{CB}.
  3. G4G_4: AND of CB‾\overline{CB} and AA gives CB‾⋅A\overline{CB}\cdot A.
  4. G5G_5: OR of G1G_1 and G4G_4 gives AB+CB‾AAB+\overline{CB}A.
  5. G6G_6: OR of BB and CC, followed by G7G_7: NOT, gives B+C‾\overline{B+C}.
  6. G8G_8: AND of G5G_5 and G7G_7 gives the output yy.

Truth table.

ABCABABCB‾A\overline{CB}AAB+CB‾AAB+\overline{CB}AB+C‾\overline{B+C}yy
00000010
00100000
01000000
01100000
10001111
10101100
11011100
11110100

The output is 1 only for A=1, B=0, C=0A=1,\ B=0,\ C=0, which agrees with y=ABˉCˉy=A\bar B\bar C.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2074 · 5 marks
  • 2078 · 5 marks

  • How many atomic states are there in hydrogen with n=3?
  • How are they distributed among the subshells? Label each state with the appropriates set of quantum numbers n, 1,m,m
  • Show that the number of states in a shell, that is ,states having the same n. is given by 2n22n^2.

Answer

(a) Number of states for n=3n=3. There are 2n2=2(9)=182n^2=2(9)=18 states.

(b) Distribution among subshells. For n=3n=3, l=0,1,2l=0,1,2. For each ll, ml=−l,…,+lm_l=-l,\dots,+l and ms=±12m_s=\pm\frac12, giving 2(2l+1)2(2l+1) states.

Subshellllmlm_l valuesStates
3s002
3p1−1,0,+1-1,0,+16
3d2−2,−1,0,+1,+2-2,-1,0,+1,+210

Total =2+6+10=18=2+6+10=18.

Labelling states as (n,l,ml,ms)(n,l,m_l,m_s):

  • 3s: (3,0,0,+12)(3,0,0,+\tfrac12), (3,0,0,−12)(3,0,0,-\tfrac12)
  • 3p: (3,1,ml,±12)(3,1,m_l,\pm\tfrac12) with ml=−1,0,+1m_l=-1,0,+1 (six states)
  • 3d: (3,2,ml,±12)(3,2,m_l,\pm\tfrac12) with ml=−2,−1,0,1,2m_l=-2,-1,0,1,2 (ten states)

(c) General result. For a given nn, ll runs from 00 to n−1n-1, and each ll has 2(2l+1)2(2l+1) states, so

N=∑l=0n−12(2l+1)=2[2(n−1)n2+n]=2[n2−n+n]=2n2.N=\sum_{l=0}^{n-1}2(2l+1)=2\left[2\frac{(n-1)n}{2}+n\right]=2\left[n^2-n+n\right]=2n^2.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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Set up a differential equation for an oscillation of a spring using Hooke’s and Newton’s second law. Find the general solution of this equation and hence the expressions for the period, velocity, and acceleration of oscillation.

Answer

Differential equation

A mass mm attached to a spring of force constant kk on a frictionless surface is displaced by xx from equilibrium. Hooke's law gives the restoring force F=−kxF=-kx. Newton's second law, F=m d2x/dt2F=m\,d^2x/dt^2, gives

md2xdt2=−kx ⇒ d2xdt2+ω2x=0,ω2=km.m\frac{d^2x}{dt^2}=-kx\ \Rightarrow\ \frac{d^2x}{dt^2}+\omega^2x=0,\qquad \omega^2=\frac km.

General solution

Try x=eλtx=e^{\lambda t}: λ2+ω2=0\lambda^2+\omega^2=0, so λ=±iω\lambda=\pm i\omega and

x(t)=C1cos⁡ωt+C2sin⁡ωt=Acos⁡(ωt+ϕ),x(t)=C_1\cos\omega t+C_2\sin\omega t=A\cos(\omega t+\phi),

where A=C12+C22A=\sqrt{C_1^2+C_2^2} is the amplitude and ϕ\phi the phase constant, fixed by initial conditions.

Period. x(t+T)=x(t)x(t+T)=x(t) requires ωT=2π\omega T=2\pi:

T=2πω=2πmk,f=1T=12πkm.T=\frac{2\pi}{\omega}=2\pi\sqrt{\frac mk},\qquad f=\frac1T=\frac1{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac km}.

Velocity

v=dxdt=−Aωsin⁡(ωt+ϕ)v=\frac{dx}{dt}=-A\omega\sin(\omega t+\phi)

with maximum vmax⁡=Aωv_{\max}=A\omega (at the equilibrium position), and in terms of position v=±ωA2−x2v=\pm\omega\sqrt{A^2-x^2}.

Acceleration

a=d2xdt2=−Aω2cos⁡(ωt+ϕ)=−ω2xa=\frac{d^2x}{dt^2}=-A\omega^2\cos(\omega t+\phi)=-\omega^2x

with maximum amax⁡=Aω2a_{\max}=A\omega^2 (at the extreme positions). The velocity leads the displacement by π/2\pi/2, and the acceleration is opposite in phase to the displacement.

Energy. E=12mv2+12kx2=12kA2E=\tfrac12mv^2+\tfrac12kx^2=\tfrac12kA^2, which is constant.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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Explain the construction and working of bipolar junction transistor (BJT)

Answer

Construction

A bipolar junction transistor (BJT) is a three-layer, two-junction device in which both electrons and holes take part in conduction. It is either n-p-n or p-n-p. The three regions are:

  • Emitter (E): heavily doped, emits majority carriers.
  • Base (B): very thin (∼1 μ\sim1\ \mum) and lightly doped, so few carriers recombine in it.
  • Collector (C): moderately doped, larger in area, collects the carriers.

The emitter-base junction is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased in normal (active) operation.

Working (n-p-n)

  1. The forward-biased emitter-base junction injects many electrons from the emitter into the base (and a few holes from the base to the emitter).
  2. The base is thin and lightly doped, so only a small fraction (∼1%\sim1\%) of the electrons recombine with holes, giving a small base current IBI_B. The rest diffuse across the base.
  3. The reverse-biased collector junction has a strong field that sweeps these electrons into the collector, producing the collector current ICI_C.

Current relations:

IE=IB+IC,α=ICIE (≈0.95-0.99),β=ICIB=α1−α (tens to hundreds).I_E=I_B+I_C,\qquad \alpha=\frac{I_C}{I_E}\ (\approx0.95\text{-}0.99),\qquad \beta=\frac{I_C}{I_B}=\frac{\alpha}{1-\alpha}\ (\text{tens to hundreds}).

A small change in base current causes a large change in collector current, so the transistor amplifies current. In a common-emitter amplifier a small input signal across the base-emitter gives a larger voltage change across the collector load RLR_L. The device also works as a switch, being cut off (IB=0I_B=0) or saturated (large IBI_B). A p-n-p transistor works the same way with holes as the main carriers and all polarities reversed.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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What is the probability of finding a particle in a well of width ∝ at a position α4\frac{\alpha }{4} from the wall if n = 1, if n = 2, if n = 3. Use the normalized wavefunction ψ(x,t) =(2a)12\left ( \frac{2}{a} \right )^{\frac{1}{2}} sin(nπxa)e−iEthcut\left ( \frac{n\pi x}{a} \right )e^{-\frac{iEt}{h cut}}.

Answer

The probability density is

∣ψ∣2=2asin⁡2 ⁣(nπxa)|\psi|^2 = \frac{2}{a}\sin^2\!\left(\frac{n\pi x}{a}\right)

and the probability of finding the particle in a small interval dxdx about xx is ∣ψ∣2 dx|\psi|^2\,dx. At x=a/4x = a/4:

∣ψ∣2=2asin⁡2 ⁣(nπ4)|\psi|^2 = \frac{2}{a}\sin^2\!\left(\frac{n\pi}{4}\right)

n = 1: sin⁡2(π/4)=12\sin^2(\pi/4) = \tfrac12, so ∣ψ∣2=1a|\psi|^2 = \dfrac{1}{a}.

n = 2: sin⁡2(π/2)=1\sin^2(\pi/2) = 1, so ∣ψ∣2=2a|\psi|^2 = \dfrac{2}{a}.

n = 3: sin⁡2(3π/4)=12\sin^2(3\pi/4) = \tfrac12, so ∣ψ∣2=1a|\psi|^2 = \dfrac{1}{a}.

So the probability per unit length at x=a/4x=a/4 is 1/a, 2/a, 1/a1/a,\ 2/a,\ 1/a for n=1,2,3n=1,2,3, and the probability in a narrow width Δx\Delta x is ∣ψ∣2Δx|\psi|^2\Delta x (for example Δx/a\Delta x/a for n=1n=1). The n=2n=2 state has an antinode at a/4a/4, hence the largest value; for n=1n=1 and n=3n=3 the value is half of that.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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A neutron spectroscopy a beam of mono energetic neutrons is obtained by reflecting reactor neutrons from a beryllium crystal. If separation between the atomic planes of the beryllium crystal is 0.732 A°, what is the angle between the incident neutron beam and the atomic planes that will yield a monochromatic beam of neutrons of wavelength 0.1 A°.

Answer

Use Bragg's law for the first order (n=1n=1):

2dsin⁡θ=nλ2d\sin\theta = n\lambda

with d=0.732d = 0.732 Å and λ=0.1\lambda = 0.1 Å:

sin⁡θ=λ2d=0.12(0.732)=0.0683\sin\theta = \frac{\lambda}{2d} = \frac{0.1}{2(0.732)} = 0.0683

θ=sin⁡−1(0.0683)≈3.9∘\theta = \sin^{-1}(0.0683) \approx 3.9^\circ

The neutron beam must make an angle of about 3.9° with the atomic planes (glancing angle) to reflect neutrons of wavelength 0.1 Å.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2074 · 5 marks

Discuss effective’s mass of electrons and holes.

Similar questions: Physics: Discuss effective mass of electrons and holes (2081)

Answer

Effective mass

In a crystal, an electron moves in the periodic potential of the lattice as well as under an applied force. It is convenient to describe this by treating the electron as a free particle with a modified mass, the effective mass m∗m^*.

For an electron described by a wave packet, with energy E(k)E(k) and group velocity vg=1ℏdEdkv_g=\dfrac1\hbar\dfrac{dE}{dk}, an applied force FF does work F vg dt=dEF\,v_g\,dt=dE, which gives ℏ dk/dt=F\hbar\,dk/dt=F. The acceleration is

a=dvgdt=1ℏd2Edk2dkdt=1ℏ2d2Edk2F.a=\frac{dv_g}{dt}=\frac1\hbar\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}\frac{dk}{dt}=\frac{1}{\hbar^2}\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}F.

Comparing with F=m∗aF=m^*a:

m∗=ℏ2d2E/dk2.m^*=\frac{\hbar^2}{d^2E/dk^2}.

So the effective mass is inversely proportional to the curvature of the EE-kk band.

Electrons

Near the bottom of the conduction band the curvature is positive, so me∗>0m_e^*>0 and the electron accelerates in the direction of the force. A narrow band with weak curvature gives a large m∗m^*; a sharply curved band gives a small m∗m^*.

Holes

Near the top of the valence band d2E/dk2<0d^2E/dk^2<0, so an electron there would have a negative effective mass. The absence of an electron (a hole) is treated as a particle of positive charge +e+e and positive effective mass mh∗=∣m∗∣m_h^*=|m^*|, which moves in the direction of the applied electric field.

Significance. m∗m^* determines mobility μ=eτ/m∗\mu=e\tau/m^*, the density of states, and the carrier concentration, so it controls conductivity. For example in Si, me∗≈0.26 m0m_e^*\approx0.26\,m_0 and mh∗≈0.39 m0m_h^*\approx0.39\,m_0 (conductivity values), so electrons are more mobile than holes.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2074 · 5 marks

A current of 50A is established in a slab of copper 0.5cm thick and 2 cm wide .The slab is placed in a magnetic field B of 1.5 T. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the slab and to the current .The free electron concentration in copper is 8.4 × 10^28 electrons/m^3? . What will be the magnitude of the gall voltage across the width of the slab?

Similar questions: Physics: A current of 50A is supplied in (2080)

Answer

Given: I=50I=50 A, thickness along BB: t=0.5t=0.5 cm =5×10−3=5\times10^{-3} m, width w=2w=2 cm, B=1.5B=1.5 T, n=8.4×1028 m−3n=8.4\times10^{28}\ \text{m}^{-3}.

The field is perpendicular to the slab, so it is along the thickness tt. The Hall field is set by EH=vdBE_H=v_dB, and the Hall voltage across the width is VH=EHw=vdBwV_H=E_Hw=v_dBw. With vd=Inewtv_d=\dfrac{I}{newt},

VH=IBnet.V_H=\frac{IB}{net}.

VH=50×1.5(8.4×1028)(1.6×10−19)(5×10−3)=756.72×107V_H=\frac{50\times1.5}{(8.4\times10^{28})(1.6\times10^{-19})(5\times10^{-3})}=\frac{75}{6.72\times10^{7}}

VH≈1.12×10−6 V≈1.1 μV.V_H\approx1.12\times10^{-6}\ \text{V}\approx1.1\ \mu\text{V}.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2074 · 5 marks

The uncertainty in the position of a particle is equal to the de Broglie wavelength of the particle. Calculate the uncertainty in the velocity of the particle in term of the velocity of the de Broglie wave associated with the particle.

Similar questions: Physics: The uncertainty in the position of a (2082)

Answer

Given: Δx=λ=hp\Delta x=\lambda=\dfrac hp, where p=mvp=mv is the particle's momentum.

By the Heisenberg uncertainty principle,

Δx Δp≥ℏ2=h4π.\Delta x\,\Delta p\ge\frac\hbar2=\frac{h}{4\pi}.

Taking the minimum,

Δp=h4πΔx=h4πλ=p4π.\Delta p=\frac{h}{4\pi\Delta x}=\frac{h}{4\pi\lambda}=\frac{p}{4\pi}.

Since Δp=mΔv\Delta p=m\Delta v and p=mvp=mv,

Δv=v4π.\Delta v=\frac{v}{4\pi}.

So the uncertainty in velocity is 1/4π≈8%1/4\pi\approx8\% of the particle's own velocity vv.

In terms of the de Broglie wave velocity. The wave (phase) velocity is u=ωk=Ep=12mv2mv=v2u=\dfrac{\omega}{k}=\dfrac{E}{p}=\dfrac{\tfrac12mv^2}{mv}=\dfrac v2 for a non-relativistic particle (in general u=c2/vu=c^2/v). Hence v=2uv=2u and

Δv=2u4π=u2π.\Delta v=\frac{2u}{4\pi}=\frac{u}{2\pi}.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2074 · 5 marks

Copper has a face –centered cubic structure with a one –atom basis .The density of copper is 8.96gmcm−38.96 gm cm^{-3} and its atomic weight is 63.5 g/mole. What is the length of the unit .cube of the structure?

Similar questions: Physics: Sodium has a body–centered cubic structure with (2080)

Answer

An FCC unit cell contains 44 atoms (8 corners ×18\times\frac18 + 6 faces ×12\times\frac12), and with a one-atom basis there are 44 copper atoms per cube.

Mass of the cell: 4MNA\dfrac{4M}{N_A}. Density: ρ=4MNAa3\rho=\dfrac{4M}{N_Aa^3}, so

a3=4MρNA=4×63.58.96×6.022×1023=2545.396×1024=4.707×10−23 cm3a^3=\frac{4M}{\rho N_A}=\frac{4\times63.5}{8.96\times6.022\times10^{23}}=\frac{254}{5.396\times10^{24}}=4.707\times10^{-23}\ \text{cm}^3

a=(47.07×10−24)1/3=3.61×10−8 cma=\left(47.07\times10^{-24}\right)^{1/3}=3.61\times10^{-8}\ \text{cm}

a≈3.61 A˚=0.361 nm.a\approx3.61\ \text{\AA}=0.361\ \text{nm}.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2075 · 10 marks

Discuss Magnetic dipole moment. What is its effect on atom and on molecules? Explain.

Similar questions: Physics: Discuss magnetic dipole moment. What is its (2077)

Answer

Magnetic dipole moment

A current loop of area AA carrying current II has a magnetic dipole moment

μ⃗=IA n^,\vec\mu=IA\,\hat n,

with direction given by the right-hand rule. In a uniform field B⃗\vec B it experiences torque and has potential energy

τ⃗=μ⃗×B⃗,U=−μ⃗⋅B⃗.\vec\tau=\vec\mu\times\vec B,\qquad U=-\vec\mu\cdot\vec B.

Atomic origin

Orbital moment. An electron of charge ee in an orbit has current I=e/T=ev/2πrI=e/T=ev/2\pi r, so μl=Iπr2=e2mL\mu_l=I\pi r^2=\dfrac{e}{2m}L, and as vectors μ⃗l=−e2mL⃗\vec\mu_l=-\dfrac{e}{2m}\vec L. With L=l(l+1) ℏL=\sqrt{l(l+1)}\,\hbar, the unit is the Bohr magneton

μB=eℏ2m=9.27×10−24 J/T.\mu_B=\frac{e\hbar}{2m}=9.27\times10^{-24}\ \text{J/T}.

The component along BB is μl,z=−mlμB\mu_{l,z}=-m_l\mu_B.

Spin moment. The electron has intrinsic spin with μ⃗s=−gse2mS⃗\vec\mu_s=-g_s\dfrac{e}{2m}\vec S, gs≈2g_s\approx2, μs,z=∓μB\mu_{s,z}=\mp\mu_B.

The total atomic moment comes from combining L⃗\vec L and S⃗\vec S (the Landé gg-factor).

Effects on atoms

  • In a magnetic field, the energy of a level shifts by ΔE=mjgμBB\Delta E=m_jg\mu_BB, so levels split. This gives the Zeeman effect: spectral lines split into several components.
  • In a non-uniform field, atoms experience a force Fz=μz dB/dzF_z=\mu_z\,dB/dz, so a beam splits according to mm values. The Stern-Gerlach experiment (silver atoms split into two beams) shows space quantisation and electron spin.
  • Atoms with filled shells have zero net moment (diamagnetic); atoms with unpaired electrons have a permanent moment (paramagnetic).

Effects on molecules and materials

  • Molecules with a net moment (such as O2\text{O}_2) align partially in a field, producing paramagnetism with M=χHM=\chi H, χ∝1/T\chi\propto1/T (Curie law); thermal motion opposes alignment.
  • Molecules with no net moment develop an induced moment opposing the field (diamagnetism).
  • In solids, interactions between neighbouring moments lead to ferromagnetism (parallel alignment in domains), antiferromagnetism, and ferrimagnetism.
  • Nuclear magnetic moments in molecules are the basis of NMR spectroscopy and MRI.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2075 · 5 marks

An electron is placed midway between two fixed charges, q_1 = 2.5 × 10^-10 C and q_2 = 5 × 10^-10 C. If the charges are 1 m apart, what is the velocity of the electron when it reaches a point 10cm from q_2?

Similar questions: Physics: An electron is placed midway between two (2082)

Answer

Given: q1=2.5×10−10q_1=2.5\times10^{-10} C, q2=5×10−10q_2=5\times10^{-10} C, separation 11 m. The electron starts at the midpoint (0.50.5 m from each) and moves along the line to the point 0.10.1 m from q2q_2 (so 0.90.9 m from q1q_1). Both charges are positive, so the electron is attracted toward the larger charge q2q_2 (net force at the midpoint points toward q2q_2).

Potentials (k=8.99×109 N m2/C2k=8.99\times10^9\ \text{N m}^2/\text{C}^2):

Vi=k(q10.5+q20.5)=8.99×109(5×10−10+10−9)=13.5 VV_i=k\left(\frac{q_1}{0.5}+\frac{q_2}{0.5}\right)=8.99\times10^9\left(5\times10^{-10}+10^{-9}\right)=13.5\ \text{V}

Vf=k(q10.9+q20.1)=8.99×109(2.78×10−10+5×10−9)=47.4 VV_f=k\left(\frac{q_1}{0.9}+\frac{q_2}{0.1}\right)=8.99\times10^9\left(2.78\times10^{-10}+5\times10^{-9}\right)=47.4\ \text{V}

Energy conservation. For the electron (charge −e-e), ΔK=−ΔU=e(Vf−Vi)\Delta K=-\Delta U=e(V_f-V_i):

12mv2=(1.602×10−19)(47.4−13.5)=(1.602×10−19)(33.96)=5.44×10−18 J\tfrac12mv^2=(1.602\times10^{-19})(47.4-13.5)=(1.602\times10^{-19})(33.96)=5.44\times10^{-18}\ \text{J}

v=2(5.44×10−18)9.11×10−31=1.195×1013v=\sqrt{\frac{2(5.44\times10^{-18})}{9.11\times10^{-31}}}=\sqrt{1.195\times10^{13}}

v≈3.5×106 m/sv\approx3.5\times10^{6}\ \text{m/s}

(about 3.46×1063.46\times10^6 m/s, directed toward q2q_2).

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2077 · 5 marks

Discuss magnetic dipole moment. What is its effect on atoms and on molecules? Explain.

Similar questions: Physics: Discuss Magnetic dipole moment. What is its (2075)

Answer

Magnetic dipole moment

A current loop of area AA carrying current II behaves as a magnetic dipole with moment

μ⃗=IA⃗,\vec{\mu} = I\vec{A},

with direction given by the right-hand rule (perpendicular to the loop). In a magnetic field B⃗\vec B it experiences a torque and has a potential energy:

τ⃗=μ⃗×B⃗,U=−μ⃗⋅B⃗.\vec\tau = \vec\mu\times\vec B,\qquad U = -\vec\mu\cdot\vec B.

Atomic origin: An electron in orbit of radius rr with speed vv is a current loop, I=ev/2πrI = ev/2\pi r, so the orbital moment is

μL=IA=e2mL,μ⃗L=−e2mL⃗.\mu_L = IA = \frac{e}{2m}L,\qquad \vec\mu_L = -\frac{e}{2m}\vec L.

The electron also has a spin moment μs=−gse2mS\mu_s = -g_s\dfrac{e}{2m}S with gs≈2g_s\approx 2. Their natural unit is the Bohr magneton, μB=eℏ2m=9.27×10−24\mu_B = \dfrac{e\hbar}{2m} = 9.27\times10^{-24} J/T.

Effect on atoms:

  • In an external field the atomic moment precesses about B⃗\vec B (Larmor precession) and its orientation is quantised (space quantisation), so an energy U=mjgjμBBU = m_j g_j\mu_B B is added to each level.
  • Spectral lines split into several components: the Zeeman effect.
  • In a non-uniform field a beam of atoms is deflected according to its moment (the Stern-Gerlach experiment), showing that only discrete orientations occur.
  • Atoms with a net moment are paramagnetic; atoms in which all moments cancel are diamagnetic (an induced, opposing moment).

Effect on molecules:

  • The moment of a molecule is the vector sum of its electronic orbital, spin and nuclear contributions. Most molecules have paired electrons and zero net moment (diamagnetic), while molecules such as O2\text{O}_2 (two unpaired electrons) and NO are paramagnetic.
  • In a field, permanent moments tend to align with B⃗\vec B against thermal agitation, giving a magnetisation described by Curie's law, M∝B/TM\propto B/T.
  • Moments of the nuclei are responsible for nuclear magnetic resonance of molecules.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2078 · 10 marks

Describe processes involved in the fabrication of integrated circuits include epitaxial growth, oxidation, oxide removal and pattern definition, doping (impurities in the Si), and interconnection of components.

Similar questions: Physics: Explain the meaning of “fabrication of integrated (2079)

Answer

Integrated circuits (ICs) are fabricated on a single-crystal silicon wafer by the planar process, in which many identical circuits are produced at once and each step is repeated with different masks.

1. Epitaxial growth: A thin, lightly doped single-crystal layer (a few µm thick) is grown on the polished p-type substrate by chemical vapour deposition, for example from SiCl4\text{SiCl}_4 or SiH4\text{SiH}_4 with hydrogen at about 1200 °C. The layer continues the crystal structure of the wafer, and its doping (for example n-type, by adding PH3\text{PH}_3) is controlled independently of the substrate. Devices are formed in this layer.

2. Oxidation: The wafer is heated in oxygen or steam at 1000-1200 °C so that an insulating SiO2\text{SiO}_2 layer grows on the surface. The oxide masks against dopant diffusion, protects the junctions, and serves as the insulating layer under the metal and as the gate dielectric.

3. Oxide removal and pattern definition (photolithography): The oxide is coated with photoresist and exposed to UV light through a mask. After development, the oxide is etched away (HF) only where the resist has been removed, opening windows to the silicon. The resist is then stripped. A different mask is used for each stage (isolation, base, emitter, contacts, and so on).

4. Doping (impurities in Si): Acceptors (boron) or donors (phosphorus, arsenic) are introduced through the windows by thermal diffusion at 900-1200 °C or by ion implantation followed by annealing. This forms the p and n regions, giving the junctions of transistors, diodes and resistors. The oxide stops the dopants from entering elsewhere. Isolation of components is obtained by reverse-biased p-n junctions or by oxide.

5. Interconnection of components: Contact windows are opened in the oxide and a metal film (aluminium, now often copper) is deposited by evaporation or sputtering. A final lithography and etch step leaves only the desired conductor pattern that joins the components into the circuit. Multi-level interconnections are separated by insulating layers. The wafer is finally tested, scribed into chips, mounted and bonded in a package, and a passivation layer protects the surface.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2078 · 5 marks

The density of aluminum is 2.70 g/cm^3 and its molecular weight is 26.98 g/mole.
  • Calculate the Fermi energy
  • If the experimental value of E_F is 12 eV, What is the electron effective mass in aluminum? Aluminum is trivalent.

Similar questions: Physics: The density of aluminum is 2.70 g/cm3 (2079)

Answer

Electron concentration: Aluminium is trivalent, so each atom gives 3 free electrons.

n=3 ρNAM=3 (2.70)(6.022×1023)26.98=1.81×1023 cm−3=1.81×1029 m−3n = 3\,\frac{\rho N_A}{M} = 3\,\frac{(2.70)(6.022\times10^{23})}{26.98} = 1.81\times10^{23}\ \text{cm}^{-3} = 1.81\times10^{29}\ \text{m}^{-3}

Fermi energy:

EF=ℏ22m(3π2n)2/3E_F = \frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\left(3\pi^2n\right)^{2/3}

3π2n=29.61×1.81×1029=5.35×1030 m−33\pi^2 n = 29.61\times1.81\times10^{29} = 5.35\times10^{30}\ \text{m}^{-3}

(5.35×1030)2/3=3.06×1020 m−2(5.35\times10^{30})^{2/3} = 3.06\times10^{20}\ \text{m}^{-2}

ℏ22m=(1.055×10−34)22(9.11×10−31)=6.11×10−39 J m2\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} = \frac{(1.055\times10^{-34})^2}{2(9.11\times10^{-31})} = 6.11\times10^{-39}\ \text{J m}^2

EF=(6.11×10−39)(3.06×1020)=1.87×10−18 J=11.7 eVE_F = (6.11\times10^{-39})(3.06\times10^{20}) = 1.87\times10^{-18}\ \text{J} = 11.7\ \text{eV}

Effective mass: With m∗m^* replacing mm, EF∝1/m∗E_F\propto 1/m^*. If the experimental value is 12 eV,

m∗m=EF(calc)EF(exp)=11.712≈0.97\frac{m^*}{m} = \frac{E_F(\text{calc})}{E_F(\text{exp})} = \frac{11.7}{12} \approx 0.97

m∗≈0.97 m≈8.9×10−31 kgm^* \approx 0.97\,m \approx 8.9\times10^{-31}\ \text{kg}

The effective mass is about 0.97 times the free-electron mass.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2079 · 10 marks

Explain the meaning of “fabrication of integrated circuits” Describe following processes involved in the fabrication of integrated circuits: epitaxial growth, oxidation, oxide removal and patter definition, doping and interconnection of components.

Similar questions: Physics: Describe processes involved in the fabrication of (2078)

Answer

Meaning of fabrication of integrated circuits

An integrated circuit (IC) is a complete electronic circuit (transistors, diodes, resistors, capacitors and their interconnections) formed together on a single small chip of semiconductor, usually silicon. Fabrication means the sequence of chemical and physical steps by which these components are built into and onto a silicon wafer, hundreds of identical chips at a time, using repeated cycles of film growth, patterning and doping (the planar process).

Processes

1. Epitaxial growth: A thin single-crystal silicon layer with controlled doping is grown on the polished wafer by chemical vapour deposition (for example from SiCl4\text{SiCl}_4 and H2\text{H}_2 at about 1200 °C). It is of the same crystal orientation as the substrate, and the components are built into it. A buried heavily doped layer under it reduces the series resistance of transistors.

2. Oxidation: Heating the wafer in oxygen or steam at 1000-1200 °C grows a layer of SiO2\text{SiO}_2. This oxide insulates, masks against diffusion of impurities, passivates the surface and forms the dielectric of MOS gates and capacitors.

3. Oxide removal and pattern definition (photolithography): The oxide is coated with a photoresist, exposed to ultraviolet light through a mask carrying the circuit pattern, and developed. The exposed oxide is etched away with HF, producing windows in the oxide, and the resist is then removed. Each stage has its own mask, aligned exactly with the previous pattern.

4. Doping: Donor (P, As) or acceptor (B) atoms are introduced through the oxide windows by high-temperature diffusion (900-1200 °C) or by ion implantation followed by annealing. This creates the n- and p-type regions that form the junctions (base, emitter, resistor regions, source and drain). Oxide-protected regions remain undoped.

5. Interconnection of components: Contact windows are opened in the oxide, and a metal layer (aluminium or copper) is deposited by evaporation or sputtering over the wafer. Another lithography and etching step leaves metal strips that wire the components together; several metal layers separated by insulating oxide can be built up. A passivation layer protects the chip, which is then tested, cut from the wafer, bonded and packaged.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2079 · 10 marks

Explain the effect of external magnetic field on current carrying loops. Describe torque on La current-carrying rectangular loop of wire on a pivot rod when placed in a magnetic field. Give alternative way of increasing the torque on the coil.

Similar questions: Physics: Describe torque on a current-carrying rectangular loop (2081)

Answer

Effect of an external magnetic field on current-carrying loops

A current loop placed in a uniform magnetic field experiences no net force, because the forces on opposite sides are equal and opposite:

F⃗net=∮I dL⃗×B⃗=I(∮dL⃗)×B⃗=0\vec F_\text{net} = \oint I\,d\vec L\times\vec B = I\left(\oint d\vec L\right)\times\vec B = 0

However, the forces on opposite sides can form a couple, so the loop experiences a torque which tends to turn it so that its plane is perpendicular to the field (the loop's magnetic moment μ⃗=IA⃗\vec\mu = I\vec A lines up with B⃗\vec B). This is the principle of the galvanometer and the electric motor.

Torque on a rectangular loop on a pivot

Let the loop have sides aa (vertical, length aa) and bb (horizontal) and carry current II. It is pivoted on a vertical axis through its centre, in a uniform field B⃗\vec B perpendicular to the axis. Let θ\theta be the angle between the normal to the loop and B⃗\vec B.

  • The two sides of length bb (parallel to the pivot axis' perpendicular direction) have forces along the axis, equal and opposite and collinear, so they produce no torque.
  • The two sides of length aa are perpendicular to B⃗\vec B and each experiences a force of magnitude

F=IaBF = IaB

in opposite directions, forming a couple. The perpendicular distance between their lines of action is bsin⁡θb\sin\theta. Hence

τ=F bsin⁡θ=IaB bsin⁡θ=I(ab)Bsin⁡θ=IABsin⁡θ\tau = F\,b\sin\theta = IaB\,b\sin\theta = I(ab)B\sin\theta = IAB\sin\theta

In vector form:

τ⃗=IA⃗×B⃗=μ⃗×B⃗\vec\tau = I\vec A\times\vec B = \vec\mu\times\vec B

The torque is maximum, IABIAB, when the plane of the loop is parallel to B⃗\vec B (θ=90∘\theta=90^\circ), and zero when the plane is perpendicular to B⃗\vec B (θ=0\theta = 0), the stable equilibrium.

Increasing the torque

For a coil of NN turns,

τ=NIABsin⁡θ\tau = NIAB\sin\theta

so the torque can be increased by using more turns NN (an alternative to increasing II, AA or BB), by increasing the area, or by placing the coil on a soft-iron core, which increases the field in which it sits. In a moving-coil galvanometer a radial field is used so that the plane of the coil is always parallel to B⃗\vec B and τ=NIAB\tau = NIAB for all positions.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2079 · 5 marks

A potential difference of 100 V is established between the two plates one being the high potential plate (say A). A proton of charge q = 1.6 × 10^-19 C is released from plate B, the another plate. What will be the velocity of the proton when it reaches plate A? The mass of the proton is 1,67-x 10^-27 kg

Similar questions: Physics: A potential difference of 100 V is (2080)

Answer

The proton gains kinetic energy equal to the potential energy lost in moving through the potential difference. Starting from rest:

qV=12mv2⇒v=2qVmqV = \tfrac12 mv^2 \quad\Rightarrow\quad v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

v=2 (1.6×10−19)(100)1.67×10−27=3.2×10−171.67×10−27=1.916×1010v=\sqrt{\frac{2\,(1.6\times10^{-19})(100)}{1.67\times10^{-27}}}=\sqrt{\frac{3.2\times10^{-17}}{1.67\times10^{-27}}}=\sqrt{1.916\times10^{10}}

v≈1.38×105 m/sv \approx 1.38\times10^{5}\ \text{m/s}

The proton's kinetic energy is 100100 eV, and v≪cv \ll c, so the non-relativistic formula is valid.

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  • 2079 · 5 marks

The density of aluminum is 2.70 g/cm3 and its molecular weight is 26.98 g/mole. a. Calculate the Fermi energy b. If the experimental value of EF is 12 eV, What is the electron effective mass in aluminum? Aluminum is trivalent.

Similar questions: Physics: The density of aluminum is 2.70 g/cm^3 (2078)

Answer

(a) Fermi energy. Aluminium is trivalent, so each atom gives 3 free electrons.

n=3 ρNAM=3×2.70×6.022×102326.98=1.808×1023 cm−3=1.808×1029 m−3n = 3\,\frac{\rho N_A}{M} = 3\times\frac{2.70\times6.022\times10^{23}}{26.98} = 1.808\times10^{23}\ \text{cm}^{-3} = 1.808\times10^{29}\ \text{m}^{-3}

EF=ℏ22m(3π2n)2/3E_F=\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(3\pi^2 n)^{2/3}

3π2n=29.61×1.808×1029=5.353×1030 m−33\pi^2 n = 29.61\times1.808\times10^{29} = 5.353\times10^{30}\ \text{m}^{-3}

(3π2n)2/3=(1.749×1010)2=3.06×1020 m−2(3\pi^2 n)^{2/3} = (1.749\times10^{10})^2 = 3.06\times10^{20}\ \text{m}^{-2}

ℏ22m=(1.055×10−34)22(9.109×10−31)=6.10×10−39 J m2\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}=\frac{(1.055\times10^{-34})^2}{2(9.109\times10^{-31})}=6.10\times10^{-39}\ \text{J m}^2

EF=6.10×10−39×3.06×1020=1.87×10−18 J≈11.7 eVE_F = 6.10\times10^{-39}\times3.06\times10^{20}=1.87\times10^{-18}\ \text{J}\approx 11.7\ \text{eV}

(b) Effective mass. Since EF∝1/mE_F \propto 1/m, replacing mm by m∗m^* gives EFexp/EFfree=m/m∗E_F^{exp}/E_F^{free} = m/m^*:

m∗m=11.712≈0.97⇒m∗≈0.97 me≈8.9×10−31 kg\frac{m^*}{m}=\frac{11.7}{12}\approx 0.97 \quad\Rightarrow\quad m^*\approx 0.97\,m_e \approx 8.9\times10^{-31}\ \text{kg}

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2080 · 5 marks

A potential difference of 100 V is established between the two plates one being the high potential plate. An alpha particle of charge q = 3.2 × 10^-19 C is released from one plate to another plate. What will be the velocity of the alpha particle when it reaches plate? The mass of the proton is 6.70-x 10^-19 kg.

Similar questions: Physics: A potential difference of 100 V is (2079)

Answer

The particle starts from rest, and the work done by the field equals its gain in kinetic energy:

qV=12mv2⇒v=2qVmqV=\tfrac12mv^2\quad\Rightarrow\quad v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

Using q=3.2×10−19q=3.2\times10^{-19} C, V=100V=100 V and the mass of the alpha particle m=6.70×10−27m=6.70\times10^{-27} kg (the exponent printed in the question is a misprint, since a mass of 10−1910^{-19} kg is not that of a particle):

v=2(3.2×10−19)(100)6.70×10−27=6.4×10−176.70×10−27=9.55×109v=\sqrt{\frac{2(3.2\times10^{-19})(100)}{6.70\times10^{-27}}}=\sqrt{\frac{6.4\times10^{-17}}{6.70\times10^{-27}}}=\sqrt{9.55\times10^{9}}

v≈9.8×104 m/sv\approx 9.8\times10^{4}\ \text{m/s}

The kinetic energy gained is qV=200qV=200 eV.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2080 · 5 marks

A current of 50A is supplied in a slab of copper 0.5cm thick and 2 cm wide is placed in a magnetic field B of 1.5 T. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the slab and to the current .The free electron concentration in copper is 8.4 × 10^28 electrons/m^3? . What will be the magnitude of the Hall voltage across the width of the slab?

Similar questions: Physics: A current of 50A is established in (2074)

Answer

The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the slab, so the Hall voltage appears across the width, and the dimension along B⃗\vec B is the thickness tt.

VH=IBnetV_H=\frac{IB}{net}

Given I=50I=50 A, B=1.5B=1.5 T, n=8.4×1028n=8.4\times10^{28} m−3^{-3}, e=1.602×10−19e=1.602\times10^{-19} C, t=0.5 cm=5×10−3t=0.5\ \text{cm}=5\times10^{-3} m.

Denominator: net=(8.4×1028)(1.602×10−19)(5×10−3)=6.73×107net=(8.4\times10^{28})(1.602\times10^{-19})(5\times10^{-3})=6.73\times10^{7}

VH=50×1.56.73×107=756.73×107≈1.1×10−6 VV_H=\frac{50\times1.5}{6.73\times10^{7}}=\frac{75}{6.73\times10^{7}}\approx1.1\times10^{-6}\ \text{V}

The Hall voltage is about 1.1 μ1.1\ \muV. It is tiny because copper has a very high electron concentration.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2080 · 5 marks

Sodium has a body–centered cubic structure with a one–atom basis .The density and atomic weight of sodium are 0.971g/cm^3 and 23 g/mole. What is the length of the unit cube of the structure?

Similar questions: Physics: Copper has a face –centered cubic structure (2074)

Answer

A body-centred cubic cell has 8×18+1=28\times\tfrac18+1=2 atoms per unit cell, and with a one-atom basis there are 2 atoms of sodium in each cell.

Mass of a cell =2MNA=\dfrac{2M}{N_A}, and ρ=2MNAa3\rho=\dfrac{2M}{N_Aa^3}, so

a3=2MρNA=2(23)(0.971)(6.022×1023)=465.847×1023=7.87×10−23 cm3a^3=\frac{2M}{\rho N_A}=\frac{2(23)}{(0.971)(6.022\times10^{23})}=\frac{46}{5.847\times10^{23}}=7.87\times10^{-23}\ \text{cm}^3

a=(78.7×10−24)1/3 cm=4.29×10−8 cma=(78.7\times10^{-24})^{1/3}\ \text{cm}=4.29\times10^{-8}\ \text{cm}

a≈4.29 A˚=4.29×10−10 ma\approx 4.29\ \text{\AA}=4.29\times10^{-10}\ \text{m}

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2081 · 10 marks

Describe torque on a current-carrying rectangular loop of wire on a pivot rod when placed in a magnetic field. Give an alternative way of increasing the torque on the coil.

Similar questions: Physics: Explain the effect of external magnetic field (2079)

Answer

Setup. Take a rectangular loop with sides aa (parallel to the pivot axis) and bb (perpendicular to the axis), carrying a current II and placed in a uniform magnetic field B⃗\vec B. The loop can rotate about the pivot rod. Let θ\theta be the angle between B⃗\vec B and the normal n^\hat n to the plane of the loop.

Forces on the sides. On a straight wire of length LL the force is F⃗=IL⃗×B⃗\vec F=I\vec L\times\vec B.

  • The two sides of length bb (perpendicular to the axis) are at angle 90∘−θ90^\circ-\theta to the field, so their forces are equal and opposite and act along the pivot axis, so they produce no torque.
  • The two sides of length aa are perpendicular to B⃗\vec B, so each has force F=IaBF=IaB. The forces are equal and opposite and form a couple.

Torque. The perpendicular distance between the lines of action of the two forces is bsin⁡θb\sin\theta, so

τ=F bsin⁡θ=IaB bsin⁡θ=IABsin⁡θ,A=ab\tau=F\,b\sin\theta=IaB\,b\sin\theta=IAB\sin\theta,\qquad A=ab

In vector form,

τ⃗=μ⃗×B⃗,μ⃗=IAn^\vec\tau=\vec\mu\times\vec B,\qquad \vec\mu=IA\hat n

where μ\mu is the magnetic dipole moment of the loop. The torque is maximum (IABIAB) when the plane of the loop is parallel to B⃗\vec B (θ=90∘\theta=90^\circ), and zero when the plane is perpendicular to B⃗\vec B (θ=0\theta=0, stable equilibrium). The torque tends to rotate the loop so that μ⃗\vec\mu aligns with B⃗\vec B.

Alternative way to increase the torque. For a coil of NN turns,

τ=NIABsin⁡θ\tau=NIAB\sin\theta

so the torque is increased by winding the wire into a coil with many turns (as in galvanometers and motors), instead of using a single loop. It can also be increased by using a larger current, a larger area, or a stronger field (for example with a radial field and a soft-iron core).

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2081 · 5 marks

Discuss effective mass of electrons and holes.

Similar questions: Physics: Discuss effective’s mass of electrons and holes (2074)

Answer

In a crystal an electron moves in the periodic potential of the lattice, so it does not respond to an applied force like a free particle. It is convenient to keep the equation of motion of a free electron, but replace the free electron mass by an effective mass m∗m^* that includes the effect of the lattice.

Definition. For an electron with energy E(k)E(k) near a band edge, the group velocity is vg=1ℏdEdkv_g=\dfrac1\hbar\dfrac{dE}{dk}. Under an external force FF, ℏdkdt=F\hbar\dfrac{dk}{dt}=F, so the acceleration is

a=dvgdt=1ℏd2Edk2dkdt=1ℏ2d2Edk2Fa=\frac{dv_g}{dt}=\frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}\frac{dk}{dt}=\frac{1}{\hbar^2}\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}F

Comparing with F=m∗aF=m^*a:

m∗=ℏ2(d2Edk2)−1m^*=\hbar^2\left(\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}\right)^{-1}

The effective mass is inversely proportional to the curvature of the EE-kk curve. A sharply curved band gives a small m∗m^* (light carriers), while a flat band gives a large m∗m^*. For a free electron, E=ℏ2k2/2mE=\hbar^2k^2/2m gives m∗=mm^*=m.

Electrons. Near the bottom of the conduction band, E(k)E(k) is curved upward, so d2E/dk2>0d^2E/dk^2>0 and me∗>0m_e^*>0. For example, me∗≈0.26 mm_e^*\approx0.26\,m in Si and 0.067 m0.067\,m in GaAs.

Holes. Near the top of the valence band the curve is curved downward, so d2E/dk2<0d^2E/dk^2<0 and an electron there has a negative effective mass. The absence of an electron in that state (a hole) behaves as a particle of positive charge +e+e and positive effective mass mh∗=−m∗>0m_h^*=-m^*>0, so it accelerates in the direction of the field. For example, mh∗≈0.5 mm_h^*\approx0.5\,m in Si.

Importance. With m∗m^* the electrons and holes are treated as free carriers in a semiconductor, giving the mobility μ=eτ/m∗\mu=e\tau/m^*, the conductivity σ=ne2τ/m∗\sigma=ne^2\tau/m^*, and the density of states and carrier concentrations (which depend on m∗3/2m^{*3/2}). The effective mass differs with direction in anisotropic crystals.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2082 · 5 marks

An electron is placed midway between two fixed charges, q₁ = 2.5×10⁻¹⁰ C and q₂ = 5×10⁻¹⁰ C. If the charges are 1 m apart, what is the velocity of the electron when it reaches a point 10 cm from q₂?

Similar questions: Physics: An electron is placed midway between two (2075)

Answer

Take both fixed charges as positive. The electron starts at rest at the midpoint, 0.5 m from each charge, and the net electric force on it pushes it toward q2q_2 (the larger charge).

Potential at the midpoint (r1=r2=0.5r_1=r_2=0.5 m):

Vi=k(q10.5+q20.5)=9×109 (5×10−10+10−9)=13.5 VV_i=k\left(\frac{q_1}{0.5}+\frac{q_2}{0.5}\right)=9\times10^{9}\,(5\times10^{-10}+10^{-9})=13.5\ \text{V}

Potential at the final point (r2=0.1r_2=0.1 m, r1=0.9r_1=0.9 m):

Vf=9×109(2.5×10−100.9+5×10−100.1)=9×109(2.78×10−10+5×10−9)=47.5 VV_f=9\times10^{9}\left(\frac{2.5\times10^{-10}}{0.9}+\frac{5\times10^{-10}}{0.1}\right)=9\times10^{9}(2.78\times10^{-10}+5\times10^{-9})=47.5\ \text{V}

Energy conservation. For the electron (charge −e-e) the change in potential energy is −e(Vf−Vi)-e(V_f-V_i), so the gain in kinetic energy is

12mv2=e (Vf−Vi)=e (34.0 V)=34 eV=5.45×10−18 J\tfrac12mv^2=e\,(V_f-V_i)=e\,(34.0\ \text{V})=34\ \text{eV}=5.45\times10^{-18}\ \text{J}

v=2×5.45×10−189.11×10−31=1.196×1013≈3.5×106 m/sv=\sqrt{\frac{2\times5.45\times10^{-18}}{9.11\times10^{-31}}}=\sqrt{1.196\times10^{13}}\approx3.5\times10^{6}\ \text{m/s}

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2082 · 5 marks

The uncertainty in the position of a particle is equal to the size of the de Broglie wavelength of the particle. Calculate the uncertainty in the velocity of the particle in terms of the velocity of the de Broglie wave associated with the particle.

Similar questions: Physics: The uncertainty in the position of a (2074)

Answer

The uncertainty principle is Δx Δp≥ℏ2=h4π\Delta x\,\Delta p\ge\dfrac{\hbar}{2}=\dfrac{h}{4\pi}. Given Δx=λ=hp\Delta x=\lambda=\dfrac{h}{p}:

Δp≥h4πλ=p4π\Delta p\ge\frac{h}{4\pi\lambda}=\frac{p}{4\pi}

So, for a particle of mass mm and velocity vv (non-relativistic), Δp=m Δv\Delta p=m\,\Delta v and p=mvp=mv:

Δv≥v4π\Delta v\ge\frac{v}{4\pi}

Velocity of the de Broglie wave. The phase velocity of the matter wave is

u=ωk=Ep=12mv2mv=v2⇒v=2uu=\frac{\omega}{k}=\frac{E}{p}=\frac{\tfrac12mv^2}{mv}=\frac{v}{2}\quad\Rightarrow\quad v=2u

Hence

Δv=2u4π=u2π≈0.16 u\Delta v=\frac{2u}{4\pi}=\frac{u}{2\pi}\approx0.16\,u

The minimum uncertainty in the velocity of the particle is 14π\dfrac{1}{4\pi} of the particle's own velocity, or 12π\dfrac{1}{2\pi} of the velocity of its de Broglie wave.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2074 · 10 marks

Explain equilibrium current across the PN junction? Use Fermi-Dirac statistics and Maxwell Boltzmann distribution to show the flow n to p is equal to the flow from p to n .How electron current from p to n (that is , associated with minority carries) is not affected by the height of the potential energy barrier? Explain

Answer

Equilibrium in a PN junction

When p-type and n-type materials are joined, electrons diffuse from n to p and holes from p to n. The uncovered donor ions (n side) and acceptor ions (p side) form a depletion region with a built-in electric field and a potential barrier eV0eV_0 that opposes further majority-carrier diffusion. At equilibrium there is no net current: every current component is balanced by an opposite one, and the Fermi level is constant across the junction.

Electron flow from n to p (majority diffusion current)

The number of electrons per unit energy is n(E)=g(E)f(E)n(E)=g(E)f(E), where f(E)f(E) is the Fermi-Dirac distribution

f(E)=1e(E−EF)/kT+1.f(E)=\frac{1}{e^{(E-E_F)/kT}+1}.

For electrons in the conduction band, E−EF≫kTE-E_F\gg kT, so this reduces to the Maxwell-Boltzmann form

f(E)≈e−(E−EF)/kT.f(E)\approx e^{-(E-E_F)/kT}.

Only electrons on the n side with energy above the top of the barrier, Ecn+eV0=EcpE_{cn}+eV_0=E_{cp}, can cross to the p side. The rate is proportional to the number of such electrons:

In→p∝∫Ecp∞g(E) e−(E−EF)/kTdE∝e−(Ecp−EF)/kT=e−(Ecn−EF)/kT e−eV0/kT.I_{n\to p}\propto\int_{E_{cp}}^\infty g(E)\,e^{-(E-E_F)/kT}dE\propto e^{-(E_{cp}-E_F)/kT}=e^{-(E_{cn}-E_F)/kT}\,e^{-eV_0/kT}.

Electron flow from p to n (minority drift current)

Electrons in the p-side conduction band are minority carriers. Any such electron that reaches the depletion region is swept down the barrier to the n side by the field, so the flow is limited only by the supply of minority electrons, not by the barrier. Their density in the p side is

np=ni2/NA∝e−(Ecp−EF)/kT.n_p=n_i^2/N_A\propto e^{-(E_{cp}-E_F)/kT}.

The current Ip→nI_{p\to n} is proportional to npn_p, hence

Ip→n∝e−(Ecp−EF)/kT.I_{p\to n}\propto e^{-(E_{cp}-E_F)/kT}.

Equality

Both flows depend on the same factor e−(Ecp−EF)/kTe^{-(E_{cp}-E_F)/kT}: the electrons that can climb the barrier from the n side are exactly as numerous as the electrons present in the conduction band of the p side. With the same proportionality constant,

In→p=Ip→n,I_{n\to p}=I_{p\to n},

so the net electron current is zero. The same argument holds for holes, and the total net current is zero.

Why the minority current does not depend on barrier height

The minority-carrier current is a drift current. Minority electrons are generated thermally in the p region (within a diffusion length of the junction), and each one that reaches the junction slides down the barrier. Changing the barrier height changes the field, but not the number of thermally generated minority carriers arriving per second, which is fixed by temperature and doping. This current is therefore independent of the barrier height; it is the reverse saturation current I0I_0. By contrast the majority current changes by the factor eeV/kTe^{eV/kT} when a bias VV is applied, giving I=I0(eeV/kT−1)I=I_0\left(e^{eV/kT}-1\right).

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2074 · 10 marks

Describe moment of inertia and torque for a rotating rigid body. Find the expression for rotational kinetic and discuss the conditions for conservation.

Answer

Moment of inertia

For a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis with angular velocity ω\omega, a particle of mass mim_i at perpendicular distance rir_i from the axis has speed vi=riωv_i=r_i\omega. The moment of inertia is the rotational analogue of mass:

I=∑imiri2orI=∫r2 dm.I=\sum_i m_i r_i^2\quad\text{or}\quad I=\int r^2\,dm.

It depends on the mass, its distribution, and the axis chosen. Examples: solid disc about its axis 12MR2\frac12MR^2; thin ring MR2MR^2; solid sphere about a diameter 25MR2\frac25MR^2; rod about its centre 112ML2\frac1{12}ML^2.

Torque

The torque of a force F⃗\vec F acting at position r⃗\vec r is

τ⃗=r⃗×F⃗,τ=rFsin⁡θ.\vec\tau=\vec r\times\vec F,\qquad \tau=rF\sin\theta.

For a rigid body, the tangential force on particle ii is miat,i=miriαm_ia_{t,i}=m_ir_i\alpha, so its torque is miri2αm_ir_i^2\alpha. Summing over all particles (internal torques cancel in pairs),

τext=(∑miri2)α=Iα.\tau_{\text{ext}}=\left(\sum m_ir_i^2\right)\alpha=I\alpha.

This is Newton's second law for rotation. In terms of angular momentum L=IωL=I\omega, τ=dL/dt\tau=dL/dt.

Rotational kinetic energy

The kinetic energy is the sum over particles:

K=∑i12mivi2=∑i12mi(riω)2=12(∑miri2)ω2K=\sum_i\tfrac12m_iv_i^2=\sum_i\tfrac12m_i(r_i\omega)^2=\tfrac12\left(\sum m_ir_i^2\right)\omega^2

Krot=12Iω2=L22I.K_{\text{rot}}=\tfrac12I\omega^2=\frac{L^2}{2I}.

Conditions for conservation

  1. Angular momentum: from τext=dL/dt\tau_{\text{ext}}=dL/dt, if the net external torque is zero then L=IωL=I\omega is constant. If II changes (for example a skater pulling in her arms), ω\omega changes so that I1ω1=I2ω2I_1\omega_1=I_2\omega_2. In that case Krot=L2/2IK_{\text{rot}}=L^2/2I changes, so kinetic energy alone is not conserved.
  2. Rotational kinetic energy: by the work-energy theorem, W=∫τ dθ=ΔKrotW=\int\tau\,d\theta=\Delta K_{\text{rot}}. KrotK_{\text{rot}} is constant if the net external torque does no work (for example τ=0\tau=0, or II and ω\omega unchanged) and no dissipative forces such as friction act. The total mechanical energy (rotational + translational + potential) is conserved when only conservative forces do work.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2074 · 10 marks

Explain the theory of black body radiation .why this theory needs quantum mechanical interpretation? How this interpretation because experimentally successful ? Explain

Answer

Black body radiation

A black body absorbs all radiation falling on it and, in thermal equilibrium, emits a characteristic spectrum depending only on its temperature TT. A small hole in a cavity is a practical realisation. The experimental spectrum u(λ,T)u(\lambda,T) shows:

  • Wien's displacement law: λmax⁡T=2.898×10−3 m K\lambda_{\max}T=2.898\times10^{-3}\ \text{m K}.
  • Stefan-Boltzmann law: total emitted power per unit area =σT4=\sigma T^4.
  • Intensity rises to a peak and then falls to zero at both short and long wavelengths.

Classical theory and its failure

Rayleigh and Jeans treated the cavity radiation as standing electromagnetic waves. The number of modes per unit volume in dλd\lambda is 8π dλ/λ48\pi\,d\lambda/\lambda^4, and by equipartition each mode has mean energy kTkT:

u(λ) dλ=8πkTλ4dλ.u(\lambda)\,d\lambda=\frac{8\pi kT}{\lambda^4}d\lambda.

This agrees with experiment at long wavelengths but diverges as λ→0\lambda\to0, and the total energy ∫u dλ\int u\,d\lambda is infinite. This failure is called the ultraviolet catastrophe. Wien's formula fits only short wavelengths. No classical continuous-energy argument can fit the whole curve, so a quantum interpretation is needed.

Planck's quantum hypothesis

Planck assumed that the oscillators in the cavity walls can have only discrete energies

En=nhν,n=0,1,2,…E_n=nh\nu,\qquad n=0,1,2,\dots

and that radiation is emitted or absorbed in quanta of size hνh\nu. With Boltzmann weights e−En/kTe^{-E_n/kT}, the mean energy of an oscillator is

Eˉ=∑nhν e−nhν/kT∑e−nhν/kT=hνehν/kT−1.\bar E=\frac{\sum nh\nu\,e^{-nh\nu/kT}}{\sum e^{-nh\nu/kT}}=\frac{h\nu}{e^{h\nu/kT}-1}.

Multiplying by the mode density gives Planck's law:

u(ν,T) dν=8πhν3c31ehν/kT−1dν,u(λ,T)=8πhcλ51ehc/λkT−1.u(\nu,T)\,d\nu=\frac{8\pi h\nu^3}{c^3}\frac{1}{e^{h\nu/kT}-1}d\nu,\qquad u(\lambda,T)=\frac{8\pi hc}{\lambda^5}\frac{1}{e^{hc/\lambda kT}-1}.

Experimental success

  • For hν≪kTh\nu\ll kT, ehν/kT−1≈hν/kTe^{h\nu/kT}-1\approx h\nu/kT, giving Eˉ→kT\bar E\to kT and the Rayleigh-Jeans law.
  • For hν≫kTh\nu\gg kT, it gives Wien's formula, and high-frequency modes are not excited, so there is no catastrophe.
  • Setting du/dλ=0du/d\lambda=0 gives λmax⁡T=hc/4.965k\lambda_{\max}T=hc/4.965k, i.e. Wien's law.
  • Integrating over all ν\nu gives σT4\sigma T^4 with σ=2π5k415c2h3=5.67×10−8 W m−2K−4\sigma=\dfrac{2\pi^5k^4}{15c^2h^3}=5.67\times10^{-8}\ \text{W m}^{-2}\text{K}^{-4}.
  • Fitting the measured curves gives h=6.626×10−34h=6.626\times10^{-34} J s, the same value later obtained from the photoelectric effect and other experiments.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2074 · 5 marks

Explain Hall Effect and discuss the impotence’s of hall voltage while manufacturing electronic devices.

Answer

Hall effect

When a current-carrying conductor or semiconductor is placed in a magnetic field perpendicular to the current, a transverse potential difference appears across the sample in the direction perpendicular to both the current and field. This is the Hall effect.

Let current II flow along xx in a slab of thickness tt (along BB) and width ww, with B⃗\vec B along zz. Carriers of charge qq moving with drift velocity vdv_d feel the magnetic force qvdBqv_dB, which pushes them to one side. Charge accumulates until the transverse Hall field EHE_H balances the magnetic force:

qEH=qvdB ⇒ EH=vdB.qE_H=qv_dB\ \Rightarrow\ E_H=v_dB.

With J=nqvd=I/(wt)J=nqv_d=I/(wt),

VH=EHw=vdBw=IBnqt=RHIBt,RH=1nq.V_H=E_Hw=v_dBw=\frac{IB}{nqt}=R_H\frac{IB}{t},\qquad R_H=\frac1{nq}.

RHR_H is the Hall coefficient. Its sign is negative for electrons (n-type) and positive for holes (p-type).

Importance of Hall voltage in device manufacturing

  • It identifies the type of semiconductor (n or p) from the sign of VHV_H.
  • It gives the carrier concentration n=1/(qRH)n=1/(qR_H).
  • Combined with the measured conductivity σ\sigma, it gives the mobility μ=σ∣RH∣\mu=\sigma|R_H|.
  • Hall probes measure magnetic field strength, and Hall sensors are used for position, speed and current sensing.
  • It is a standard quality-control test of doping level and uniformity of wafers.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2074 · 5 marks

Describes electrical conductivity of semiconductors.

Answer

Electrical conductivity of semiconductors

In a semiconductor, current is carried by both free electrons in the conduction band and holes in the valence band. When an electric field EE is applied, electrons drift with velocity vn=−μnEv_n=-\mu_nE and holes with vp=μpEv_p=\mu_pE, where μn,μp\mu_n,\mu_p are mobilities. The current density is

J=ne∣vn∣+pe vp=(neμn+peμp)E=σE,J=ne|v_n|+pe\,v_p=(ne\mu_n+pe\mu_p)E=\sigma E,

σ=e(nμn+pμp).\sigma=e\left(n\mu_n+p\mu_p\right).

Intrinsic semiconductor. With n=p=nin=p=n_i,

σi=nie(μn+μp),ni∝T3/2e−Eg/2kT.\sigma_i=n_ie(\mu_n+\mu_p),\qquad n_i\propto T^{3/2}e^{-E_g/2kT}.

Conductivity increases rapidly (exponentially) with temperature because more electrons are excited across the gap EgE_g; mobility falls only slowly (as a power of TT). This gives a negative temperature coefficient of resistance, unlike metals.

Extrinsic semiconductor.

  • n-type (donor doping): n≫pn\gg p, so σ≈Ndeμn\sigma\approx N_de\mu_n.
  • p-type (acceptor doping): p≫np\gg n, so σ≈Naeμp\sigma\approx N_ae\mu_p.

Conductivity vs temperature has three regions: at low TT (freeze-out) carriers are ionised from impurities; at intermediate TT (exhaustion/extrinsic range) all impurities are ionised and σ\sigma is nearly constant, falling slightly as mobility decreases; at high TT intrinsic excitation dominates and σ\sigma rises steeply.

Resistivity is ρ=1/σ\rho=1/\sigma, typically about 10−310^{-3} to 106 Ω10^{6}\ \Omega m, between metals and insulators.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2075 · 10 marks

Explain the process of semiconductor purification by describing the terms zone refining, single crystal growth, and scheme of IC production. Give an account of electronic component fabrication on a chip.

Answer

Purification of semiconductors

Devices need extremely pure material (impurities below about 1 part in 10910^9 to 101010^{10}). The steps for silicon are:

  1. Sand (SiO2\text{SiO}_2) is reduced with carbon in an arc furnace to metallurgical-grade Si (about 98% pure).
  2. Si is converted to trichlorosilane SiHCl3\text{SiHCl}_3, which is purified by fractional distillation and then reduced with hydrogen to give electronic-grade polycrystalline Si.

Zone refining

Zone refining exploits the fact that impurities are more soluble in the liquid than in the solid, i.e. the segregation coefficient k=Cs/Cl<1k=C_s/C_l<1 for most impurities. A rod of the material is held in a boat or vertically, and a narrow molten zone is created by an RF heating coil. The coil (or rod) is moved slowly along the rod. At the leading edge solid melts and takes in impurities; at the trailing edge material re-solidifies with lower impurity concentration, while the impurities are carried along in the zone to the end of the rod. Repeating the pass many times concentrates the impurities at one end, which is cut off. Float-zone refining for silicon is done without a crucible, avoiding contamination.

Single crystal growth (Czochralski method)

Polycrystalline Si is melted in a quartz crucible in an inert atmosphere just above 1414 ∘C1414\,^\circ\text{C}. A small single-crystal seed is dipped into the melt and slowly withdrawn (a few mm/min) while rotating, along with crucible rotation in the opposite sense. Atoms freeze onto the seed with the same orientation, producing a large cylindrical single-crystal ingot (up to 300 mm diameter). Dopants (B, P) are added to the melt to set the resistivity. The ingot is ground, sliced into wafers, lapped, etched and polished.

Scheme of IC production and component fabrication on a chip

  1. Oxidation: a thin SiO2\text{SiO}_2 layer is grown by heating in O2\text{O}_2 or steam, giving insulation and a mask.
  2. Photolithography: the wafer is coated with photoresist, exposed to UV through a mask carrying the circuit pattern, developed, and the oxide is etched away in the exposed regions.
  3. Doping: dopants are introduced through the openings by diffusion at 900-1200 ∘^\circC or by ion implantation, forming n and p regions (wells, source/drain, base/emitter).
  4. Epitaxy: a lightly doped single-crystal layer is grown on the wafer, in which devices are formed.
  5. Deposition and metallisation: aluminium or copper is deposited (evaporation, sputtering, CVD) and patterned to make interconnects; polysilicon forms gates.
  6. Passivation, testing, dicing, bonding and packaging.

Components are formed within the one chip: a diode is a single p-n junction; a transistor is an n-p-n or p-n-p structure made by successive diffusions (or a MOSFET with source/drain implants and a gate over the oxide); a resistor is a diffused or implanted strip whose value is set by its length, width and sheet resistance; a capacitor is a reverse-biased junction or a metal-oxide-silicon structure. Neighbouring devices are isolated by reverse-biased p-n junctions or oxide trenches, and the metal layers wire them into a circuit.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2075 · 10 marks

Describe Frank-Hertz experiment. Interpret how the results of this experiment advocate atomic model proposed by Bohr?

Answer

Franck-Hertz experiment

Setup. A glass tube contains mercury vapour at low pressure. Electrons are emitted by a heated cathode KK, accelerated toward a grid GG by a variable voltage VV, and then must overcome a small retarding potential (about 0.5 V) between GG and the collecting plate PP. The plate current II is measured as VV is increased.

Observations. As VV increases from zero, the current rises steadily, then drops sharply at V≈4.9V\approx4.9 V. It rises again and drops again at about 9.89.8 V, 14.714.7 V and so on, i.e. at multiples of 4.94.9 V. Mercury light of wavelength 253.7253.7 nm is emitted simultaneously from the tube.

Explanation. Below 4.9 eV, electrons collide elastically with Hg atoms, losing almost no energy (because of the large mass ratio), and reach the plate. When an electron reaches 4.9 eV, it can make an inelastic collision, giving up all its energy to excite a Hg atom from the ground state to its first excited state. The electron is left with almost no energy and cannot overcome the retarding potential, so the plate current drops. At higher voltages electrons gain 4.9 eV, lose it in a collision, and are re-accelerated, which gives a second drop at 9.8 V, etc.

Support for Bohr's model

  • Atoms can absorb energy only in discrete amounts (4.9 eV), which shows that atomic energy levels are quantised, i.e. Bohr's postulate of stationary states with discrete energies E1,E2,…E_1,E_2,\dots
  • The excited atom returns to the ground state emitting a photon of energy equal to the difference between levels:

λ=hcΔE=1240 eV nm4.9 eV=253 nm,\lambda=\frac{hc}{\Delta E}=\frac{1240\ \text{eV nm}}{4.9\ \text{eV}}=253\ \text{nm},

matching the observed 253.7 nm line. This confirms Bohr's frequency condition hν=E2−E1h\nu=E_2-E_1.

  • No energy loss below the threshold shows that energy can be transferred to the atom only when it is enough to reach an allowed level.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2075 · 5 marks

Explain Bloch theorem? Discuss its use in the Kronig-Penny model and hence in band theory.

Answer

Bloch theorem

An electron in a crystal moves in a periodic potential V(r⃗+R⃗)=V(r⃗)V(\vec r+\vec R)=V(\vec r), where R⃗\vec R is a lattice translation. Bloch's theorem states that the solutions of the Schrodinger equation [−ℏ22m∇2+V]ψ=Eψ\left[-\dfrac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2+V\right]\psi=E\psi have the form

ψk⃗(r⃗)=eik⃗⋅r⃗uk⃗(r⃗),uk⃗(r⃗+R⃗)=uk⃗(r⃗).\psi_{\vec k}(\vec r)=e^{i\vec k\cdot\vec r}u_{\vec k}(\vec r),\qquad u_{\vec k}(\vec r+\vec R)=u_{\vec k}(\vec r).

So the wavefunction is a plane wave modulated by a function with the periodicity of the lattice, and ∣ψ∣2|\psi|^2 has the same period as the lattice. Equivalently ψ(x+a)=eikaψ(x)\psi(x+a)=e^{ika}\psi(x).

Use in the Kronig-Penney model

The model replaces the lattice potential by a periodic array of square wells of width aa and barriers of width bb with height V0V_0, which can be solved exactly. In each region the solutions are e±iαxe^{\pm i\alpha x} (well, α2=2mE/ℏ2\alpha^2=2mE/\hbar^2) and e±βxe^{\pm\beta x} (barrier, β2=2m(V0−E)/ℏ2\beta^2=2m(V_0-E)/\hbar^2). Bloch's theorem is used to fix the relation between the wavefunction in adjacent cells, ψ(x+a+b)=eik(a+b)ψ(x)\psi(x+a+b)=e^{ik(a+b)}\psi(x), which together with continuity of ψ\psi and ψ′\psi' gives a determinant condition. In the limit of thin, high barriers (with P=mV0ba/ℏ2P=mV_0ba/\hbar^2 fixed):

Psin⁡αaαa+cos⁡αa=cos⁡ka.P\frac{\sin\alpha a}{\alpha a}+\cos\alpha a=\cos ka.

Band theory consequence

Since ∣cos⁡ka∣≤1|\cos ka|\le1, solutions exist only where the left side lies between −1-1 and +1+1. This gives allowed energy bands separated by forbidden gaps (at ka=nπka=n\pi). As P→0P\to0 electrons are free; as P→∞P\to\infty the bands shrink to the discrete levels of an isolated well. The model explains why crystals have energy bands, band gaps, and effective mass, and thus the distinction between conductors, semiconductors and insulators.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2075 · 5 marks

A large wheel of radius 0.4m and moment of inertia 1.2 kgm^2, pivoted at the center, is free to rotate without friction. A rope is wound around it and a 2kg weight is attached to the rope, when the weight has descended 1.5m from its starting position, (a) what is its downward velocity? (b) what is the rotational velocity of the wheel?

Answer

Given: R=0.4R=0.4 m, I=1.2 kg m2I=1.2\ \text{kg m}^2, m=2m=2 kg, h=1.5h=1.5 m, g=9.8 m/s2g=9.8\ \text{m/s}^2; the system starts from rest.

The rope unwinds without slipping, so v=ωRv=\omega R. By conservation of energy, the lost potential energy of the weight becomes the kinetic energy of the weight and of the wheel:

mgh=12mv2+12Iω2=12mv2+12Iv2R2.mgh=\tfrac12mv^2+\tfrac12I\omega^2=\tfrac12mv^2+\tfrac12I\frac{v^2}{R^2}.

2(9.8)(1.5)=29.4=12(2)v2+121.20.16v2=v2+3.75v2=4.75v22(9.8)(1.5)=29.4=\tfrac12(2)v^2+\tfrac12\frac{1.2}{0.16}v^2=v^2+3.75v^2=4.75v^2

(a) v2=29.44.75=6.189v^2=\dfrac{29.4}{4.75}=6.189, so

v≈2.49 m/s (downward).v\approx2.49\ \text{m/s (downward)}.

(b)

ω=vR=2.4880.4≈6.22 rad/s.\omega=\frac vR=\frac{2.488}{0.4}\approx6.22\ \text{rad/s}.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2075 · 5 marks

A small particle of mass 10^-6 gm moves along the x-axis; its speed is uncertain by 10^-6 m/s. (a) What is the uncertainty in the x coordinate of the particle? (b) Repeat the calculation for an electron assuming that the uncertainty in its velocity is also 10^-6 m/s. Use the known values for electrons and Planck’s constant.

Answer

Use the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, Δx Δp≥ℏ2\Delta x\,\Delta p \ge \dfrac{\hbar}{2}, with Δp=m Δv\Delta p = m\,\Delta v and ℏ=1.055×10−34\hbar = 1.055\times10^{-34} J s.

Δx≥ℏ2m Δv\Delta x \ge \frac{\hbar}{2m\,\Delta v}

(a) Particle: m=10−6 g=10−9m = 10^{-6}\ \text{g} = 10^{-9} kg, Δv=10−6\Delta v = 10^{-6} m/s.

Δx≥1.055×10−342(10−9)(10−6)=5.3×10−20 m\Delta x \ge \frac{1.055\times10^{-34}}{2(10^{-9})(10^{-6})} = 5.3\times10^{-20}\ \text{m}

This is far smaller than any atomic or nuclear size, so the position of such a macroscopic particle can be regarded as sharply defined.

(b) Electron: m=9.11×10−31m = 9.11\times10^{-31} kg, Δv=10−6\Delta v = 10^{-6} m/s.

Δx≥1.055×10−342(9.11×10−31)(10−6)=5.8×10−2 m≈5.8 cm\Delta x \ge \frac{1.055\times10^{-34}}{2(9.11\times10^{-31})(10^{-6})} = 5.8\times10^{-2}\ \text{m} \approx 5.8\ \text{cm}

The electron's position is uncertain by several centimetres, which is enormous on the atomic scale. Quantum uncertainty is therefore important for the electron but negligible for the ordinary particle.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2075 · 5 marks

Assuming that atoms are in a crystal structure and arranged as close-packed spheres, what is the ratio of the volume of the atoms to the volume available for the simple cubic structure? Assume a one-atom basis.

Answer

For a simple cubic (SC) lattice with a one-atom basis, atoms sit at the corners of the cube and touch along the cube edge aa. For close-packed (touching) spheres of radius rr:

a=2ra = 2r

Number of atoms per unit cell: 8×18=18\times\tfrac18 = 1.

Volume of the atoms in a cell:

Vatoms=43πr3V_\text{atoms} = \frac{4}{3}\pi r^3

Volume of the cell:

Vcell=a3=(2r)3=8r3V_\text{cell} = a^3 = (2r)^3 = 8r^3

VatomsVcell=43πr38r3=π6≈0.524\frac{V_\text{atoms}}{V_\text{cell}} = \frac{\tfrac43\pi r^3}{8r^3} = \frac{\pi}{6} \approx 0.524

So about 52.4% of the volume is filled by atoms (the packing fraction), and 47.6% is empty space.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2077 · 10 marks

Explain RTL and TTL gates. How memory and clock circuits can be made by using these gates? Explain how they work?

Answer

RTL (Resistor-Transistor Logic)

RTL is the earliest transistor logic family. The inputs are connected through resistors to the base of a transistor whose emitter is grounded and whose collector, joined to VCCV_{CC} through a load resistor, is the output.

Working (RTL NOR gate): Several transistors share one collector resistor, each with its own base resistor.

  • If all inputs are LOW (about 0 V), every transistor is cut off, no current flows through the collector resistor and the output is HIGH.
  • If any input is HIGH, that transistor is driven into saturation and pulls the output down to about 0.2 V (LOW).

So the output is Y=A+B‾Y = \overline{A+B}, a NOR gate. Because NOR is universal, every other gate can be built from it. RTL is simple but slow, has poor noise margin, high power use and low fan-out.

TTL (Transistor-Transistor Logic)

In TTL the input stage is a multi-emitter transistor, followed by a phase splitter and a totem-pole (push-pull) output stage of two transistors (Q3Q_3 on top, Q4Q_4 at the bottom, with a diode).

Working (TTL NAND gate):

  • If any input is LOW, the base-emitter junction of the input transistor conducts, so the base of the phase splitter Q2Q_2 is starved; Q2Q_2 and Q4Q_4 are off, Q3Q_3 is on, and the output is HIGH (about 3.5 V).
  • If all inputs are HIGH, the input transistor operates in reverse-active mode and drives Q2Q_2 into saturation. Q2Q_2 turns on Q4Q_4 and turns off Q3Q_3, so the output is LOW (about 0.2 V).

Thus Y=AB‾Y = \overline{AB}. The totem-pole output gives fast switching, low output impedance, good fan-out (about 10) and good noise immunity. The propagation delay is about 10 ns, and the supply is 5 V.

Memory from gates (flip-flop)

A one-bit memory is built by cross-coupling two NAND (or NOR) gates so that each output feeds the other's input (an SR latch).

For two cross-coupled NAND gates, with inputs S‾\overline{S} and R‾\overline{R}:

S‾\overline{S}R‾\overline{R}QAction
11unchangedmemory (hold)
011set
100reset
001, 1forbidden

The feedback keeps the state after the input is removed, so the circuit stores one bit. Adding a clock-controlled pair of gates in front of the latch gives a clocked SR flip-flop. A master-slave arrangement or edge triggering gives the JK and D flip-flops, and a group of flip-flops forms a register (memory word).

Clock circuit from gates

A clock (astable multivibrator) is made by connecting an odd number of inverters (or two NAND/NOR gates cross-coupled through capacitors) in a ring.

  • Two inverters are coupled through RC networks. When one output is HIGH the capacitor charges through the resistor until the other gate's input reaches its threshold; the gate then switches, and the roles are exchanged.
  • The circuit has no stable state and oscillates continuously. The frequency is set by the RC time constant, approximately f≈11.4 RCf \approx \dfrac{1}{1.4\,RC} for a TTL-type ring.
  • A crystal in the feedback path gives a stable frequency.

The square-wave output is used as the clock to synchronise flip-flops, counters and registers.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2077 · 10 marks

Describe the Frank-Hertz experiment. Discuss its result and outline limitations.

Answer

Franck-Hertz experiment (1914)

Purpose: to show directly that atoms have discrete energy levels, as Bohr postulated.

Apparatus: A glass tube contains mercury vapour at low pressure with three electrodes. Electrons are emitted by a heated cathode KK, accelerated towards a grid GG by a variable potential VV, and then face a small retarding potential (about 0.5 V) between the grid and the collecting plate PP. The plate current II is measured with a galvanometer while VV is raised.

Observations:

  • Up to V≈4.9V \approx 4.9 V the current rises steadily, because the electrons collide only elastically with Hg atoms and lose almost no energy.
  • At V=4.9V = 4.9 V the current drops sharply.
  • It rises again, then drops at 9.89.8 V, 14.714.7 V, and so on, at equal intervals of 4.94.9 V.

Explanation: When the electron's kinetic energy reaches 4.9 eV it can excite a mercury atom from the ground state to its first excited state. The collision is then inelastic, the electron loses almost all its energy, and it cannot overcome the retarding potential, so the plate current falls. Beyond that, the electron regains energy, and at 9.89.8 V it can make two inelastic collisions, and so on. The excited atom returns to the ground state by emitting ultraviolet light of

λ=hcE=12400 eV A˚4.9 eV≈2530 A˚,\lambda = \frac{hc}{E} = \frac{12400\ \text{eV Å}}{4.9\ \text{eV}} \approx 2530\ \text{Å},

which agrees with the observed Hg line at 2537 Å.

Result and significance: Atoms absorb energy only in discrete amounts equal to the difference between their energy levels. This confirms the quantisation of atomic energy and Bohr's model.

Limitations:

  • Only the first excitation energy is clearly shown; higher levels and other transitions are not resolved well in the basic set-up.
  • The current peaks are broadened because electrons leave the cathode with a spread of energies and the contact potential between electrodes shifts the voltage scale.
  • Lower-energy electrons can lose energy in several successive collisions, and elastic collisions are not entirely absent, so the drops are not perfectly sharp.
  • Mercury vapour pressure and temperature must be controlled carefully.
  • It shows quantisation but does not give the structure of the levels, such as fine structure, spin, or selection rules.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2077 · 5 marks

Describe the following process of IC production: (a) Oxidation, (b) Pattern definition, and (c) Doping.

Answer

IC production steps (silicon planar process)

(a) Oxidation: The silicon wafer is heated to about 1000-1200 °C in oxygen (dry) or steam (wet), and a layer of silicon dioxide grows on the surface:

Si+O2→SiO2\text{Si} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{SiO}_2

The oxide is a good insulator. It protects the surface and acts as a mask against the diffusion of dopants, and it is also used as the dielectric for the gate and for capacitors. Its thickness (0.1-1 µm) is controlled by time and temperature.

(b) Pattern definition (photolithography):

  1. The oxidised wafer is coated with a light-sensitive photoresist.
  2. Ultraviolet light is shone through a mask carrying the desired pattern, so the exposed resist changes its solubility.
  3. The resist is developed, leaving windows where the oxide is exposed.
  4. The oxide in the windows is etched away with hydrofluoric acid (HF), and the remaining resist is stripped.

This opens windows in the oxide at precisely the places where impurities are to be introduced.

(c) Doping: Impurities are introduced through the oxide windows to create n- or p-type regions (for example phosphorus or arsenic for n-type; boron for p-type).

  • Diffusion: the wafer is heated to 900-1200 °C in a dopant atmosphere, so the atoms diffuse in; depth is controlled by time and temperature.
  • Ion implantation: dopant ions are accelerated and fired into the silicon, followed by annealing to repair damage and activate them. It gives accurate control of dose and depth.

Repeating oxidation, lithography and doping with different masks forms transistors, diodes and resistors, and metal interconnections are then added.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2077 · 5 marks

A roulette wheel with moment of inertia I = 0.5 kgm^2 rotating initially at 2 rev/sec coasts to a stop from the constant friction torque of bearing. If the torque of the bearing. If the torque is 0.4 Nm, how long does it take to stop?

Answer

Initial angular speed:

ω0=2 rev/s=2(2π)=4π=12.57 rad/s\omega_0 = 2\ \text{rev/s} = 2(2\pi) = 4\pi = 12.57\ \text{rad/s}

Constant frictional torque gives a constant angular deceleration:

α=τI=0.40.5=0.8 rad/s2\alpha = \frac{\tau}{I} = \frac{0.4}{0.5} = 0.8\ \text{rad/s}^2

The wheel stops when ω=0\omega = 0:

0=ω0−αt  ⇒  t=ω0α=12.570.8≈15.7 s0 = \omega_0 - \alpha t \;\Rightarrow\; t = \frac{\omega_0}{\alpha} = \frac{12.57}{0.8} \approx 15.7\ \text{s}

(Equivalently, L=Iω0=0.5×12.57=6.28L = I\omega_0 = 0.5\times 12.57 = 6.28 kg m2^2/s, and t=L/τ=6.28/0.4=15.7t = L/\tau = 6.28/0.4 = 15.7 s.)

The roulette wheel takes about 15.7 s to stop.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2077 · 5 marks

Two large parallel plates are separated by a distance of 5 cm. The plates have equal but opposite charges that create an electric field in the region between the plate. An α particle ( q = 3.2 × 10^-27 kg) is released from the positively charged plate, and it strikes the negatively charged plate 2 × 10^-6 second later. Assuming that the electric field between the plates is uniform and perpendicular to the plates. what is the strength of the electric field?

Answer

The quantity given as "q=3.2×10−27q = 3.2\times10^{-27} kg" is a mass (the units are kg), so take m=3.2×10−27m = 3.2\times10^{-27} kg, and the charge of the α\alpha particle is q=2e=3.2×10−19q = 2e = 3.2\times10^{-19} C.

The particle starts from rest and moves d=5 cm=0.05d = 5\ \text{cm} = 0.05 m in t=2×10−6t = 2\times10^{-6} s with constant acceleration:

d=12at2  ⇒  a=2dt2=2(0.05)(2×10−6)2=2.5×1010 m/s2d = \tfrac12 a t^2 \;\Rightarrow\; a = \frac{2d}{t^2} = \frac{2(0.05)}{(2\times10^{-6})^2} = 2.5\times10^{10}\ \text{m/s}^2

The force is qE=maqE = ma, so

E=maq=(3.2×10−27)(2.5×1010)3.2×10−19=2.5×102 N/CE = \frac{ma}{q} = \frac{(3.2\times10^{-27})(2.5\times10^{10})}{3.2\times10^{-19}} = 2.5\times10^{2}\ \text{N/C}

The electric field strength is 250 N/C (V/m), directed from the positive to the negative plate.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2077 · 5 marks

The energy gap in silicon is 1.1 eV, whereas in diamond it is 6eV. What conclusion can you draw about the transparency of the two materials to visible light(4000 A° to 7000 A°)?

Answer

A photon can be absorbed by a semiconductor or insulator only if its energy is at least the band gap, hν≥Egh\nu \ge E_g.

Energy of visible photons, E=hcλ=12400 eV A˚λE = \dfrac{hc}{\lambda} = \dfrac{12400\ \text{eV Å}}{\lambda}:

λ=7000 A˚:  E=124007000=1.77 eV\lambda = 7000\ \text{Å}: \; E = \frac{12400}{7000} = 1.77\ \text{eV}

λ=4000 A˚:  E=124004000=3.1 eV\lambda = 4000\ \text{Å}: \; E = \frac{12400}{4000} = 3.1\ \text{eV}

So visible photons have energies from about 1.8 eV to 3.1 eV.

Silicon (Eg=1.1E_g = 1.1 eV): all visible photons have energy greater than 1.1 eV, so each can lift an electron across the gap and is absorbed. Silicon is therefore opaque to visible light. (It becomes transparent only for λ>12400/1.1≈11300\lambda > 12400/1.1 \approx 11300 Å, in the infrared.)

Diamond (Eg=6E_g = 6 eV): the visible photons (at most 3.1 eV) are below the gap, so none can be absorbed. Diamond is transparent to visible light. It begins to absorb only for λ<12400/6≈2070\lambda < 12400/6 \approx 2070 Å, in the ultraviolet.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2078 · 10 marks

Design electrical conductivity of semiconductors. Derive expression for conductivity in terms of impurity ionization energy. Give a plot to discuss “Theoretical temperature dependence of the electrical conductivity of an impurity semiconductor”.

Answer

Electrical conductivity of semiconductors

Conduction is by both electrons (concentration nn, mobility μe\mu_e) and holes (concentration pp, mobility μh\mu_h). Current density is J=σEJ = \sigma E with

σ=e (nμe+pμh)\sigma = e\,(n\mu_e + p\mu_h)

For an intrinsic semiconductor n=p=nin = p = n_i, so σi=eni(μe+μh)\sigma_i = e n_i(\mu_e+\mu_h). For an n-type extrinsic semiconductor the electrons dominate, σ≈enμe\sigma \approx e n\mu_e. The temperature dependence comes mainly from nn (and weakly from the mobility, which varies as a power of TT).

Conductivity in terms of the impurity ionization energy

Take an n-type semiconductor with donor concentration NdN_d and donor level a distance Ei=Ec−EdE_i = E_c - E_d below the conduction band edge (the ionization energy). At low temperature only a small fraction of donors are ionized, and n≪Ndn \ll N_d.

Electron concentration in the conduction band (non-degenerate):

n=Nc e−(Ec−EF)/kT,Nc=2(2πm∗kTh2)3/2n = N_c\,e^{-(E_c-E_F)/kT},\qquad N_c = 2\left(\frac{2\pi m^*kT}{h^2}\right)^{3/2}

The number of ionized donors, with the donor level occupied with probability [1+12e(Ed−EF)/kT]−1\left[1+\tfrac12 e^{(E_d-E_F)/kT}\right]^{-1}, is

Nd+≈Nd1+2e(EF−Ed)/kT≈Nd2 e−(EF−Ed)/kT(EF well above Ed)N_d^+ \approx \frac{N_d}{1+2e^{(E_F-E_d)/kT}} \approx \frac{N_d}{2}\,e^{-(E_F-E_d)/kT}\quad(E_F \text{ well above } E_d)

Charge neutrality at low TT (acceptors and holes negligible) requires n=Nd+n = N_d^+:

Nc e−(Ec−EF)/kT=Nd2 e−(EF−Ed)/kTN_c\,e^{-(E_c-E_F)/kT} = \frac{N_d}{2}\,e^{-(E_F-E_d)/kT}

Solving for EFE_F gives

EF=Ec+Ed2+kT2ln⁡Nd2NcE_F = \frac{E_c+E_d}{2} + \frac{kT}{2}\ln\frac{N_d}{2N_c}

so EFE_F lies midway between the donor level and the conduction band at T→0T\to 0. Substituting into nn:

n=(NcNd2)1/2exp⁡ ⁣(−Ec−Ed2kT)=(NcNd2)1/2e−Ei/2kTn = \left(\frac{N_cN_d}{2}\right)^{1/2}\exp\!\left(-\frac{E_c-E_d}{2kT}\right) = \left(\frac{N_cN_d}{2}\right)^{1/2} e^{-E_i/2kT}

Therefore

σ=eμe(NcNd2)1/2exp⁡ ⁣(−Ei2kT)\boxed{\sigma = e\mu_e\left(\frac{N_cN_d}{2}\right)^{1/2}\exp\!\left(-\frac{E_i}{2kT}\right)}

Since Nc∝T3/2N_c\propto T^{3/2}, σ∝μeT3/4 e−Ei/2kT\sigma \propto \mu_e T^{3/4}\,e^{-E_i/2kT}, and

ln⁡σ≈const−Ei2k 1T\ln\sigma \approx \text{const} - \frac{E_i}{2k}\,\frac{1}{T}

For a p-type semiconductor the same result holds with acceptors and the acceptor ionization energy Ea=Ea−EvE_a = E_a - E_v.

Temperature dependence (plot of ln⁡σ\ln\sigma versus 1/T1/T)

Plotting ln⁡σ\ln\sigma against 1/T1/T gives three regions (from right, low TT, to left, high TT):

  1. Freeze-out (ionization) region, low TT: The donors are only partly ionized and σ\sigma rises with TT following the formula above. It is a straight line with slope −Ei/2k-E_i/2k, so EiE_i can be found from it.
  2. Exhaustion (saturation) region, intermediate TT: All donors are ionized, n≈Ndn \approx N_d stays constant, and the intrinsic carriers are still negligible. σ=eNdμe(T)\sigma = eN_d\mu_e(T) is nearly flat and changes only slowly with TT, because the mobility falls (lattice scattering, μ∝T−3/2\mu\propto T^{-3/2}) as TT rises. This is the normal working range of devices.
  3. Intrinsic region, high TT: Thermal excitation of electrons across the band gap gives ni∝T3/2e−Eg/2kTn_i \propto T^{3/2}e^{-E_g/2kT}, which exceeds NdN_d. σ\sigma rises steeply again as a straight line with slope −Eg/2k-E_g/2k, which is steeper than in the freeze-out region because Eg≫EiE_g \gg E_i.

The curve therefore rises steeply, flattens (or dips slightly) in the plateau, and then rises steeply again. A higher doping level NdN_d shifts the plateau up and moves the intrinsic region to higher temperature.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2078 · 10 marks

Find expression for force on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field to find the force experienced by a single charge.

Answer

Force on a current-carrying wire

A charge qq moving with velocity v⃗\vec v in a magnetic field B⃗\vec B experiences the Lorentz magnetic force

F⃗=q v⃗×B⃗\vec F = q\,\vec v\times\vec B

Wire: Consider a straight wire of cross-section area AA and length LL carrying current II in a uniform field B⃗\vec B. Let the number of free charge carriers per unit volume be nn, each with charge qq and drift velocity v⃗d\vec v_d along the wire.

The current is

I=nqvdAI = nqv_dA

The number of carriers in the length LL is N=nALN = nAL. The force on each is qv⃗d×B⃗q\vec v_d\times\vec B, so the total force is

F⃗=N q v⃗d×B⃗=nAL q v⃗d×B⃗\vec F = N\,q\,\vec v_d\times\vec B = nAL\,q\,\vec v_d\times\vec B

Taking L⃗\vec L along the direction of the current (the direction of v⃗d\vec v_d for positive carriers), nqAvd L⃗=IL⃗nqAv_d\,\vec L = I\vec L, so

F⃗=I L⃗×B⃗\boxed{\vec F = I\,\vec L\times\vec B}

Its magnitude is F=BILsin⁡θF = BIL\sin\theta, where θ\theta is the angle between the wire and the field. The force is zero when the wire is parallel to B⃗\vec B and has the maximum value BILBIL when it is perpendicular. Its direction is perpendicular to both L⃗\vec L and B⃗\vec B, given by the right-hand rule (Fleming's left-hand rule).

For a wire of arbitrary shape the force on an element is dF⃗=I dL⃗×B⃗d\vec F = I\,d\vec L\times\vec B and the total force is F⃗=I∫dL⃗×B⃗\vec F = I\int d\vec L\times\vec B.

Force on a single charge

Dividing by the number of carriers NN in the wire gives the force on one charge:

F⃗1=IL⃗×B⃗N=nqAvd L⃗×B⃗nAL=q v⃗d×B⃗\vec F_1 = \frac{I\vec L\times\vec B}{N} = \frac{nqAv_d\,\vec L\times\vec B}{nAL} = q\,\vec v_d\times\vec B

which is the Lorentz force F⃗=qv⃗×B⃗\vec F = q\vec v\times\vec B, with magnitude qvBsin⁡θqvB\sin\theta. It acts perpendicular to the velocity, so it does no work and changes only the direction of motion (for v⃗⊥B⃗\vec v\perp\vec B the charge moves in a circle of radius r=mv/qBr = mv/qB).

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2078 · 5 marks

Give spectrum of Hydrogen atom and discuss its lines.

Answer

Spectrum of hydrogen

In Bohr's theory the energy of the electron in level nn is

En=−13.6n2 eVE_n = -\frac{13.6}{n^2}\ \text{eV}

When an electron falls from level nin_i to nfn_f (ni>nfn_i>n_f) a photon is emitted with

1λ=R(1nf2−1ni2),R=1.097×107 m−1\frac{1}{\lambda} = R\left(\frac{1}{n_f^2}-\frac{1}{n_i^2}\right),\qquad R = 1.097\times10^{7}\ \text{m}^{-1}

The lines fall into series:

Seriesnfn_fnin_iRegionLimit
Lyman12, 3, 4, ...Ultraviolet912 Å
Balmer23, 4, 5, ...Visible3646 Å
Paschen34, 5, 6, ...Infrared8204 Å
Brackett45, 6, ...Infrared1.46 µm
Pfund56, 7, ...Far infrared2.28 µm

Discussion of the lines:

  • The spectrum consists of sharp, discrete lines, not a continuum, because the energy levels are quantised.
  • Within each series the lines get closer together and weaker towards shorter wavelength and converge to the series limit (ni→∞n_i\to\infty). Beyond the limit there is a continuum corresponding to ionisation.
  • The Balmer series is the one seen in the visible: HαH_\alpha (6563 Å, red, 3→23\to2), HβH_\beta (4861 Å, blue-green, 4→24\to2), HγH_\gamma (4340 Å, violet) and HδH_\delta (4102 Å).
  • The longest wavelength of a series (first line) is 1/λ=R(1/nf2−1/(nf+1)2)1/\lambda = R(1/n_f^2 - 1/(n_f+1)^2); for Lyman it is 1216 Å.
  • Emission lines appear bright in a discharge tube; the same wavelengths appear as dark absorption lines when white light passes through hydrogen gas.
  • With high resolution the lines show fine structure (spin-orbit coupling and relativistic effects), and they split further in electric (Stark) and magnetic (Zeeman) fields.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2078 · 5 marks

Describe a brief account of Kronig-Penny model.

Answer

Kronig-Penney model

The Kronig-Penney model explains the formation of energy bands in a crystal by treating the periodic potential seen by an electron as a one-dimensional array of rectangular potential wells and barriers.

Potential: Wells of width aa (where V=0V=0) are separated by barriers of height V0V_0 and width bb. The period is a+ba+b.

Method: The Schrödinger equation −ℏ22mψ′′+Vψ=Eψ-\dfrac{\hbar^2}{2m}\psi'' + V\psi = E\psi is solved in each region, with wave number α=2mE/ℏ\alpha = \sqrt{2mE}/\hbar in the well (0<x<a0<x<a) and, for E<V0E<V_0, β=2m(V0−E)/ℏ\beta = \sqrt{2m(V_0-E)}/\hbar in the barrier. The solutions must satisfy Bloch's theorem, ψ(x+a+b)=eik(a+b)ψ(x)\psi(x+a+b) = e^{ik(a+b)}\psi(x), and ψ\psi and ψ′\psi' must be continuous at the boundaries. This leads to the condition

β2−α22αβsinh⁡βb sin⁡αa+cosh⁡βb cos⁡αa=cos⁡k(a+b)\frac{\beta^2-\alpha^2}{2\alpha\beta}\sinh\beta b\,\sin\alpha a + \cosh\beta b\,\cos\alpha a = \cos k(a+b)

In the limit where the barrier becomes a delta function (b→0b\to0, V0→∞V_0\to\infty, with P=mV0ba/ℏ2P = mV_0ba/\hbar^2 fixed) this becomes

P sin⁡αaαa+cos⁡αa=cos⁡kaP\,\frac{\sin\alpha a}{\alpha a} + \cos\alpha a = \cos ka

Conclusions:

  • The left side has magnitude greater than 1 for some ranges of αa\alpha a, where no real kk exists. These are forbidden energy gaps. Where the left side lies between −1-1 and +1+1, solutions exist: allowed energy bands.
  • Bands are separated by gaps at ka=nπka = n\pi.
  • As P→0P\to0 the electron is free and the bands merge into the free-electron parabola. As P→∞P\to\infty the allowed bands shrink to the discrete levels of an isolated well, αa=nπ\alpha a = n\pi.
  • Larger PP (stronger binding) gives narrower allowed bands and wider gaps. Higher bands are wider.

The model thus shows how a solid has bands of allowed energy and gaps, the basis for classifying materials as metals, semiconductors and insulators.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2078 · 5 marks

Describe the term “space quantization”.

Answer

Space quantization

In quantum mechanics the angular momentum of an electron in an atom is quantised not only in magnitude but also in direction. The magnitude of the orbital angular momentum is

∣L⃗∣=l(l+1) ℏ,l=0,1,2,…,n−1|\vec L| = \sqrt{l(l+1)}\,\hbar,\qquad l = 0,1,2,\dots,n-1

When the atom is placed in a magnetic field (taken along the zz axis), the vector L⃗\vec L cannot point in an arbitrary direction. Its component along the field takes only discrete values:

Lz=mlℏ,ml=−l,−l+1,…,0,…,l−1,lL_z = m_l\hbar,\qquad m_l = -l,-l+1,\dots,0,\dots,l-1,l

So there are 2l+12l+1 allowed orientations of L⃗\vec L relative to the field. The angle of orientation satisfies

cos⁡θ=mll(l+1)\cos\theta = \frac{m_l}{\sqrt{l(l+1)}}

This restriction on the orientation of the orbital plane is called space quantization.

Example: For l=1l=1, ∣L⃗∣=2ℏ|\vec L| = \sqrt2\hbar and Lz=−ℏ,0,+ℏL_z = -\hbar, 0, +\hbar, so θ=135∘,90∘,45∘\theta = 135^\circ, 90^\circ, 45^\circ. The vector never lies exactly along the zz axis, because ∣Lz∣<∣L⃗∣|L_z|<|\vec L| always (consistent with the uncertainty principle: LxL_x and LyL_y cannot be zero when LzL_z is known).

The same holds for the spin, with Sz=msℏS_z = m_s\hbar, ms=±12m_s=\pm\tfrac12.

Evidence: The Stern-Gerlach experiment: a beam of silver atoms passing through a non-uniform magnetic field splits into a small number of discrete beams instead of a continuous smear. The Zeeman effect (splitting of spectral lines in a magnetic field) also follows from it, since the energy U=−μzB=mlμBBU=-\mu_z B = m_l\mu_B B takes discrete values.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2078 · 5 marks

A given spring stretches 0.1m when a force of 20N pulls on it. A 2-kg block attached to it on a frictionless surface is pulled to the right 0.2m and released.
  • What is the frequency of oscillation of the block?
  • What are the velocity and acceleration when x = 0.12m, on the block’s first passing this point?

Answer

Spring constant:

k=Fx=200.1=200 N/mk = \frac{F}{x} = \frac{20}{0.1} = 200\ \text{N/m}

(a) Frequency: The angular frequency is

ω=km=2002=10 rad/s\omega = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}} = \sqrt{\frac{200}{2}} = 10\ \text{rad/s}

f=ω2π=102π≈1.59 Hzf = \frac{\omega}{2\pi} = \frac{10}{2\pi} \approx 1.59\ \text{Hz}

(b) The amplitude is A=0.2A = 0.2 m (released from rest at x=0.2x = 0.2 m). At x=0.12x = 0.12 m:

v=±ωA2−x2=±100.22−0.122=±100.0256=±1.6 m/sv = \pm\omega\sqrt{A^2-x^2} = \pm 10\sqrt{0.2^2-0.12^2} = \pm10\sqrt{0.0256} = \pm 1.6\ \text{m/s}

On the first passage the block is moving back towards the equilibrium position (to the left), so v=−1.6v = -1.6 m/s.

a=−ω2x=−(10)2(0.12)=−12 m/s2a = -\omega^2 x = -(10)^2(0.12) = -12\ \text{m/s}^2

The acceleration is 12 m/s² directed towards the equilibrium position (to the left).

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2078 · 5 marks

A proton is moving with a velocity v = (3 x 10^5 i + 7 x 10^5 k) m/sec in a region where there is a magnetic field B = 0.4j T. Find the force experienced by the proton.

Answer

The magnetic force on a moving charge is F⃗=q v⃗×B⃗\vec F = q\,\vec v\times\vec B, with q=1.6×10−19q = 1.6\times10^{-19} C,

v⃗=(3×105 i^+7×105 k^) m/s,B⃗=0.4 j^ T\vec v = (3\times10^5\,\hat i + 7\times10^5\,\hat k)\ \text{m/s},\qquad \vec B = 0.4\,\hat j\ \text{T}

Using i^×j^=k^\hat i\times\hat j = \hat k and k^×j^=−i^\hat k\times\hat j = -\hat i:

v⃗×B⃗=(3×105)(0.4) k^+(7×105)(0.4)(−i^)=(−2.8×105 i^+1.2×105 k^) V/m\vec v\times\vec B = (3\times10^5)(0.4)\,\hat k + (7\times10^5)(0.4)(-\hat i) = (-2.8\times10^5\,\hat i + 1.2\times10^5\,\hat k)\ \text{V/m}

F⃗=(1.6×10−19)(−2.8×105 i^+1.2×105 k^)\vec F = (1.6\times10^{-19})(-2.8\times10^5\,\hat i + 1.2\times10^5\,\hat k)

F⃗=(−4.48×10−14 i^+1.92×10−14 k^) N\boxed{\vec F = (-4.48\times10^{-14}\,\hat i + 1.92\times10^{-14}\,\hat k)\ \text{N}}

Magnitude:

F=(4.48)2+(1.92)2×10−14=4.87×10−14 NF = \sqrt{(4.48)^2+(1.92)^2}\times10^{-14} = 4.87\times10^{-14}\ \text{N}

(Check: F=qvBsin⁡90∘=(1.6×10−19)(7.62×105)(0.4)=4.87×10−14F = qvB\sin90^\circ = (1.6\times10^{-19})(7.62\times10^5)(0.4) = 4.87\times10^{-14} N, since v⃗⊥B⃗\vec v\perp\vec B.)

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2079 · 10 marks

What do you mean by the wavefunction? Discuss its physical significance. Set up time-independent and time-dependent Schrodinger wave equation. What are the implications of this equation? Discuss.

Answer

Wavefunction

In quantum mechanics a particle's state is described by a complex function Ψ(r⃗,t)\Psi(\vec r,t), the wavefunction. It contains all the information that can be known about the particle.

Physical significance: Ψ\Psi itself has no direct physical meaning, but (Born's interpretation)

∣Ψ∣2=Ψ∗Ψ|\Psi|^2 = \Psi^*\Psi

is the probability per unit volume (probability density) of finding the particle at the point r⃗\vec r at time tt. The probability of finding it in dVdV is ∣Ψ∣2dV|\Psi|^2dV.

Conditions: Ψ\Psi must be single-valued, finite, continuous with a continuous first derivative, and normalisable:

∫−∞∞∣Ψ∣2 dx=1\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\Psi|^2\,dx = 1

Schrödinger equations

A free particle of momentum p=ℏkp=\hbar k and energy E=ℏωE=\hbar\omega is represented by a plane wave Ψ=Aei(kx−ωt)\Psi = Ae^{i(kx-\omega t)}. Differentiating:

∂Ψ∂t=−iωΨ  ⇒  iℏ∂Ψ∂t=EΨ,∂2Ψ∂x2=−k2Ψ  ⇒  −ℏ2∂2Ψ∂x2=p2Ψ\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial t} = -i\omega\Psi \;\Rightarrow\; i\hbar\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial t} = E\Psi,\qquad \frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2} = -k^2\Psi \;\Rightarrow\; -\hbar^2\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2} = p^2\Psi

Using E=p22m+V(x)E = \dfrac{p^2}{2m}+V(x) and multiplying by Ψ\Psi gives the time-dependent equation:

iℏ∂Ψ∂t=−ℏ22m∂2Ψ∂x2+V(x)Ψ\boxed{i\hbar\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial t} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2} + V(x)\Psi}

When VV does not depend on time, separate variables, Ψ(x,t)=ψ(x) f(t)\Psi(x,t)=\psi(x)\,f(t):

iℏ1fdfdt=1ψ[−ℏ22mψ′′+Vψ]=Ei\hbar\frac{1}{f}\frac{df}{dt} = \frac{1}{\psi}\left[-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\psi''+V\psi\right] = E

The time part gives f(t)=e−iEt/ℏf(t) = e^{-iEt/\hbar}, and the space part is the time-independent equation:

−ℏ22md2ψdx2+V(x)ψ=Eψ\boxed{-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + V(x)\psi = E\psi}

In three dimensions d2dx2→∇2\dfrac{d^2}{dx^2}\to\nabla^2, or in operator form H^ψ=Eψ\hat H\psi = E\psi.

Implications

  • The equation is linear, so solutions can be superposed (interference of probability amplitudes).
  • It is first order in time, so the state at one instant fixes its future; probability is conserved, since ∫∣Ψ∣2dx\int|\Psi|^2dx does not change with time.
  • For bound systems, the requirement that ψ\psi be finite and continuous allows solutions only for certain energies EnE_n. Energy quantisation arises naturally (particle in a box, harmonic oscillator, hydrogen atom).
  • For free particles all energies are allowed. Where E<VE<V, ψ\psi decays exponentially but does not vanish, so a particle can penetrate a barrier (tunnelling).
  • Stationary states Ψn=ψne−iEnt/ℏ\Psi_n = \psi_n e^{-iE_nt/\hbar} have ∣Ψn∣2|\Psi_n|^2 independent of time. The general state is a superposition of them.
  • It reduces to Newtonian mechanics when ℏ\hbar effects are negligible (Ehrenfest's theorem), and it yields the uncertainty principle.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2079 · 5 marks

Derive expression for electrical conductivity of semiconductor in terms of impurity ionization energy.

Answer

Consider an n-type semiconductor with donor concentration NdN_d and donor level at EdE_d, a distance Ei=Ec−EdE_i = E_c-E_d (the impurity ionization energy) below the conduction band edge. The conductivity is

σ=e n μe\sigma = e\,n\,\mu_e

At low temperature only part of the donors are ionized. The electron concentration in the conduction band is

n=Nc e−(Ec−EF)/kT,Nc=2(2πm∗kTh2)3/2n = N_c\,e^{-(E_c-E_F)/kT},\qquad N_c = 2\left(\frac{2\pi m^*kT}{h^2}\right)^{3/2}

The concentration of ionized donors is, with the Fermi-Dirac occupancy of the donor level (spin degeneracy 2),

Nd+=Nd1+2e(EF−Ed)/kT≈Nd2 e(Ed−EF)/kTN_d^+ = \frac{N_d}{1+2e^{(E_F-E_d)/kT}}\approx \frac{N_d}{2}\,e^{(E_d-E_F)/kT}

Since every electron in the conduction band comes from an ionized donor, n=Nd+n = N_d^+:

Nc e(EF−Ec)/kT=Nd2 e(Ed−EF)/kTN_c\,e^{(E_F-E_c)/kT} = \frac{N_d}{2}\,e^{(E_d-E_F)/kT}

Solving for the Fermi level:

EF=Ec+Ed2+kT2ln⁡Nd2NcE_F = \frac{E_c+E_d}{2}+\frac{kT}{2}\ln\frac{N_d}{2N_c}

Substituting back into nn:

n=(NcNd2)1/2e−(Ec−Ed)/2kTn = \left(\frac{N_cN_d}{2}\right)^{1/2}e^{-(E_c-E_d)/2kT}

Hence

σ=eμe(NcNd2)1/2exp⁡ ⁣(−Ei2kT)\boxed{\sigma = e\mu_e\left(\frac{N_cN_d}{2}\right)^{1/2}\exp\!\left(-\frac{E_i}{2kT}\right)}

Because Nc∝T3/2N_c\propto T^{3/2}, the factor T3/4T^{3/4} varies slowly compared with the exponential, so ln⁡σ\ln\sigma plotted against 1/T1/T is nearly a straight line of slope −Ei/2k-E_i/2k. This gives a way of measuring the ionization energy. The result holds in the freeze-out region; at higher TT all donors are ionized (n≈Ndn\approx N_d) and σ\sigma becomes nearly constant, until intrinsic conduction takes over.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2079 · 5 marks

Describe behavior of mobile negative charges in the Hall effect experiment.

Answer

In the Hall effect experiment a flat conducting strip (width ww, thickness tt) carries a current II along the xx-axis, and a uniform magnetic field B⃗\vec B is applied along the zz-axis, perpendicular to the strip.

Motion of the negative carriers. Conventional current flows in +x+x, so the mobile negative charges (electrons) drift in the −x-x direction with drift velocity vdv_d. The magnetic force on a charge −e-e is

F⃗B=(−e) v⃗d×B⃗\vec F_B = (-e)\,\vec v_d \times \vec B

With v⃗d=−vdx^\vec v_d = -v_d\hat x and B⃗=Bz^\vec B = B\hat z, we get v⃗d×B⃗=−vdB(x^×z^)=+vdB y^\vec v_d\times\vec B = -v_dB(\hat x\times\hat z) = +v_dB\,\hat y, so F⃗B=−evdB y^\vec F_B = -e v_d B\,\hat y. The electrons are therefore pushed towards the −y-y edge of the strip.

Build-up of the Hall field. Electrons pile up on one edge, leaving the opposite edge with a net positive charge (uncovered positive ion cores). A transverse electric field EHE_H (the Hall field) appears, directed from the positive edge to the negative edge. It exerts a force −eEH-eE_H on the electrons, opposing the magnetic force.

Steady state. The accumulation continues until the forces balance:

eEH=evdB⇒EH=vdBeE_H = e v_d B \quad\Rightarrow\quad E_H = v_d B

After that the electrons move straight along the strip again. The Hall voltage is

VH=EHw=vdBw,vd=Inewt ⇒ VH=IBnetV_H = E_H w = v_d B w, \qquad v_d=\frac{I}{n e w t}\ \Rightarrow\ V_H=\frac{IB}{n e t}

Hall coefficient and sign. RH=EHJB=−1neR_H = \dfrac{E_H}{J B} = -\dfrac{1}{ne}. The negative sign (the edge where electrons collect is at lower potential) shows that the carriers are negative; for positive carriers (holes) the polarity of VHV_H and the sign of RHR_H reverse. Measuring VHV_H therefore gives the sign and the concentration nn of the carriers.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2079 · 5 marks

Set up differential equation for an oscillation of a spring using Hooke’s and Newton’s second law.

Answer

Consider a mass mm attached to a spring of force constant kk, moving along the xx-axis on a frictionless surface, with x=0x=0 at the equilibrium position.

Hooke's law. For a displacement xx the spring exerts a restoring force

F=−kxF = -kx

the minus sign showing that the force is opposite to the displacement.

Newton's second law. F=ma=md2xdt2F = ma = m\dfrac{d^2x}{dt^2}. Equating the two:

md2xdt2=−kxm\frac{d^2x}{dt^2} = -kx

d2xdt2+kmx=0⇒d2xdt2+ω2x=0,ω=km\frac{d^2x}{dt^2} + \frac{k}{m}x = 0 \quad\Rightarrow\quad \frac{d^2x}{dt^2}+\omega^2x=0,\qquad \omega=\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}

This is the differential equation of simple harmonic motion.

Solution. x(t)=Acos⁡(ωt+ϕ)x(t)=A\cos(\omega t+\phi), where the amplitude AA and phase ϕ\phi are fixed by the initial conditions. The period is T=2πm/kT=2\pi\sqrt{m/k} and the frequency is f=12πk/mf=\dfrac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{k/m}.

(If a damping force −bv-bv is also present, the equation becomes mx¨+bx˙+kx=0m\ddot x + b\dot x + kx = 0.)

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  • 2079 · 5 marks

What are (a) the energy, (b) the momentum, and (c) the tavelength of the photon that is
emitted when a hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from the state n = 4 to n = 2?

Answer

For hydrogen, En=−13.6n2E_n = -\dfrac{13.6}{n^2} eV.

(a) Energy.

E=E4−E2=13.6(122−142)=13.6×316=2.55 eVE = E_4 - E_2 = 13.6\left(\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{4^2}\right) = 13.6\times\frac{3}{16} = 2.55\ \text{eV}

This is 2.55×1.602×10−19=4.08×10−192.55\times1.602\times10^{-19} = 4.08\times10^{-19} J.

(b) Momentum. For a photon p=E/cp = E/c:

p=4.08×10−193×108=1.36×10−27 kg m/sp = \frac{4.08\times10^{-19}}{3\times10^{8}} = 1.36\times10^{-27}\ \text{kg m/s}

(c) Wavelength.

λ=hcE=1240 eV nm2.55 eV=486 nm\lambda = \frac{hc}{E} = \frac{1240\ \text{eV nm}}{2.55\ \text{eV}} = 486\ \text{nm}

This is the blue-green Hβ_\beta line of the Balmer series.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2079 · 5 marks

An α particle is emitted from a radioactive nuclei with an energy of 6.8 MeV. Calculate its wavelength and compare it with the size of the emitting nucleus that has a radius of 8 x 10^-15 m.

Answer

Wavelength. Since K=6.8K = 6.8 MeV is far smaller than the rest energy of the α\alpha particle (≈3727\approx 3727 MeV), use the non-relativistic relation p=2mKp=\sqrt{2mK}.

mα=6.64×10−27 kg,K=6.8×106×1.602×10−19=1.089×10−12 Jm_\alpha = 6.64\times10^{-27}\ \text{kg},\qquad K = 6.8\times10^{6}\times1.602\times10^{-19} = 1.089\times10^{-12}\ \text{J}

p=2(6.64×10−27)(1.089×10−12)=1.447×10−38=1.203×10−19 kg m/sp=\sqrt{2(6.64\times10^{-27})(1.089\times10^{-12})}=\sqrt{1.447\times10^{-38}}=1.203\times10^{-19}\ \text{kg m/s}

λ=hp=6.626×10−341.203×10−19≈5.5×10−15 m\lambda=\frac{h}{p}=\frac{6.626\times10^{-34}}{1.203\times10^{-19}}\approx 5.5\times10^{-15}\ \text{m}

Comparison. The nuclear radius is R=8×10−15R = 8\times10^{-15} m, so

λR=5.5×10−158×10−15≈0.69\frac{\lambda}{R}=\frac{5.5\times10^{-15}}{8\times10^{-15}}\approx 0.69

The de Broglie wavelength of the α\alpha particle is comparable to (about 70% of) the size of the nucleus. The particle therefore cannot be treated as a point-like classical particle inside the nucleus, and its wave nature (for example tunnelling through the Coulomb barrier) must be taken into account.

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  • 2080 · 10 marks

Distinguish rigid and non rigid body. Derive an experssion for rotational kinetic energy and discuss the condition for conservation of energy. A wheel of radius 0.4 m and moment of inertia 1.2 kg-m^2 pivoted at rthe center, is free to rotate without friction. A rope is wound around it and a 2-kg weight is attached to the rope. When the weight has descended 1.5 m from its starting position, find the rotational velocity of the wheel.

Answer

Rigid and non-rigid bodies. A rigid body is an idealised body in which the distance between every pair of particles stays fixed whatever forces act on it, so it does not deform. Its motion is a translation of the centre of mass plus a rotation about an axis, and it has a definite moment of inertia. A non-rigid body (a spring, a fluid, a rubber ball) can change shape under forces, so the distances between its particles vary, and the moment of inertia can change during the motion.

Rotational kinetic energy. Take a rigid body rotating with angular velocity ω\omega about a fixed axis. A particle of mass mim_i at perpendicular distance rir_i from the axis has speed vi=ωriv_i=\omega r_i and kinetic energy 12mivi2\tfrac12 m_i v_i^2. Summing over all particles:

Krot=∑i12miri2ω2=12(∑imiri2)ω2=12Iω2K_{rot}=\sum_i \tfrac12 m_i r_i^2\omega^2=\tfrac12\Big(\sum_i m_i r_i^2\Big)\omega^2=\tfrac12 I\omega^2

where I=∑miri2I=\sum m_i r_i^2 is the moment of inertia. For a body that also translates, K=12Mvcm2+12Icmω2K=\tfrac12Mv_{cm}^2+\tfrac12I_{cm}\omega^2.

Conservation of energy. The total mechanical energy E=Ktrans+Krot+UE=K_{trans}+K_{rot}+U is conserved when only conservative forces (gravity, an ideal spring) do work. This needs no friction at the axle, no slipping at contact points, and no air resistance or other non-conservative forces doing net work. For example, a rolling body without slipping conserves energy because static friction does no work. When these conditions fail, the change in mechanical energy equals the work done by the non-conservative forces.

Numerical problem. r=0.4r=0.4 m, I=1.2I=1.2 kg m2^2, m=2m=2 kg, h=1.5h=1.5 m. The system starts from rest and there is no friction, so energy is conserved. The weight's speed is related to the angular velocity by v=ωrv=\omega r.

mgh=12mv2+12Iω2=12mr2ω2+12Iω2mgh=\tfrac12 mv^2+\tfrac12 I\omega^2=\tfrac12 m r^2\omega^2+\tfrac12 I\omega^2

2(9.8)(1.5)=12(2)(0.4)2ω2+12(1.2)ω22(9.8)(1.5)=\tfrac12(2)(0.4)^2\omega^2+\tfrac12(1.2)\omega^2

29.4=(0.16+0.60) ω2=0.76 ω229.4=(0.16+0.60)\,\omega^2=0.76\,\omega^2

ω2=38.68⇒ω≈6.2 rad/s\omega^2=38.68\quad\Rightarrow\quad \omega\approx 6.2\ \text{rad/s}

The speed of the weight is then v=ωr=2.5v=\omega r = 2.5 m/s.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2080 · 10 marks

Setup Schrodinger equation for Hydrogen atom using spherical polar coordinate. Separate radial and angular part of this equation using appropriate seperation constant. Discuss the separation constant and hence the quantum numbers associated with these two equations.What information can be drawn from the angular part of Schrodinger equation ? Explain .

Answer

Schrodinger equation in spherical polar coordinates. For an electron of mass mm in the Coulomb potential V(r)=−e24πε0rV(r)=-\dfrac{e^2}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 r} of the proton (with ψ=ψ(r,θ,ϕ)\psi=\psi(r,\theta,\phi)):

−ℏ22m[1r2∂∂r ⁣(r2∂ψ∂r)+1r2sin⁡θ∂∂θ ⁣(sin⁡θ∂ψ∂θ)+1r2sin⁡2θ∂2ψ∂ϕ2]+V(r)ψ=Eψ-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\left[\frac{1}{r^2}\frac{\partial}{\partial r}\!\left(r^2\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial r}\right)+\frac{1}{r^2\sin\theta}\frac{\partial}{\partial\theta}\!\left(\sin\theta\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial\theta}\right)+\frac{1}{r^2\sin^2\theta}\frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial\phi^2}\right]+V(r)\psi=E\psi

Separation of variables. Put ψ=R(r) Θ(θ) Φ(ϕ)\psi=R(r)\,\Theta(\theta)\,\Phi(\phi), multiply by −2mr2sin⁡2θℏ2RΘΦ\dfrac{-2mr^2\sin^2\theta}{\hbar^2 R\Theta\Phi} and rearrange.

Azimuthal part. The only ϕ\phi-dependent term is isolated:

1Φd2Φdϕ2=−ml2⇒Φ(ϕ)=eimlϕ\frac{1}{\Phi}\frac{d^2\Phi}{d\phi^2}=-m_l^2\quad\Rightarrow\quad \Phi(\phi)=e^{im_l\phi}

The constant is −ml2-m_l^2, and single-valuedness Φ(ϕ+2π)=Φ(ϕ)\Phi(\phi+2\pi)=\Phi(\phi) requires ml=0,±1,±2,…m_l=0,\pm1,\pm2,\dots

Polar part. With a second separation constant l(l+1)l(l+1):

1sin⁡θddθ ⁣(sin⁡θdΘdθ)+[l(l+1)−ml2sin⁡2θ]Θ=0\frac{1}{\sin\theta}\frac{d}{d\theta}\!\left(\sin\theta\frac{d\Theta}{d\theta}\right)+\left[l(l+1)-\frac{m_l^2}{\sin^2\theta}\right]\Theta=0

Radial part.

1r2ddr ⁣(r2dRdr)+2mℏ2[E+e24πε0r−ℏ2l(l+1)2mr2]R=0\frac{1}{r^2}\frac{d}{dr}\!\left(r^2\frac{dR}{dr}\right)+\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}\left[E+\frac{e^2}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 r}-\frac{\hbar^2 l(l+1)}{2mr^2}\right]R=0

Separation constants and quantum numbers.

  • The constant ml2m_l^2 (azimuthal equation) gives the magnetic quantum number mlm_l.
  • The constant l(l+1)l(l+1) is fixed by requiring Θ\Theta to be finite at θ=0,π\theta=0,\pi. The solutions (associated Legendre functions) exist only if l=0,1,2,…l=0,1,2,\dots and ∣ml∣≤l|m_l|\le l, which gives 2l+12l+1 values of mlm_l. This ll is the orbital quantum number.
  • In the radial equation, l(l+1)ℏ2/2mr2l(l+1)\hbar^2/2mr^2 is the centrifugal term. Requiring RR to be normalisable for bound states (E<0E<0) gives En=−13.6n2E_n=-\dfrac{13.6}{n^2} eV with the principal quantum number n=1,2,3,…n=1,2,3,\dots and l=0,1,…,n−1l=0,1,\dots,n-1.

Information from the angular part. The angular equations do not contain V(r)V(r), so their solutions Ylml(θ,ϕ)=ΘΦY_l^{m_l}(\theta,\phi)=\Theta\Phi (spherical harmonics) hold for any central potential. They give:

  1. Quantization of the orbital angular momentum magnitude: L=l(l+1) ℏL=\sqrt{l(l+1)}\,\hbar.
  2. Quantization of its zz-component: Lz=mlℏL_z=m_l\hbar (space quantization), with 2l+12l+1 allowed orientations.
  3. The shape of the probability distribution ∣Ylml∣2|Y_l^{m_l}|^2 (s orbitals spherical, p orbitals dumbbell-shaped, and so on).
  4. Degeneracy: the energy depends only on nn, so each level has n2n^2 degenerate states (without spin).

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2080 · 10 marks

What are RTL and TTL gates. How memory and clock circuits can be made by using these gates? Show it. Explain the working scheme. Is it true that the TTL logic gates are typically fabricated onto a single integrated circuit(IC).

Answer

RTL and TTL gates. These are logic families named after the way the transistor inputs are coupled.

  • RTL (resistor-transistor logic): the inputs are connected through resistors to the bases of bipolar transistors. For an RTL NOR gate, two (or more) transistors share a collector resistor and have their emitters grounded. If any input is HIGH, its transistor conducts and pulls the output LOW. The output is HIGH only when all inputs are LOW. This is simple and cheap, but it has slow switching, high power consumption and poor noise margin.
  • TTL (transistor-transistor logic): the input stage is a multi-emitter transistor, followed by a phase splitter and a totem-pole output stage. A LOW input forward-biases an emitter junction and the output goes HIGH, whereas with all inputs HIGH the output transistor saturates and the output is LOW (NAND action). It is fast (a few ns), has good noise margin and drives loads well. It operates from a 5 V supply, with logic levels of roughly 0-0.8 V (LOW) and 2-5 V (HIGH).

Memory from gates (flip-flop). Cross-coupling two NAND (or NOR) gates, so that the output of each feeds one input of the other, gives a bistable circuit, the SR latch.

For two cross-coupled NOR gates: Q=(R+Qˉ)′Q=(R+\bar Q)' and Qˉ=(S+Q)′\bar Q=(S+Q)'.

SRQ (next)
00holds previous Q (memory)
101 (set)
010 (reset)
11not allowed

Because of the feedback, the circuit keeps its state after the inputs return to 0, so it stores one bit. Adding a clock-controlled gating stage gives clocked SR/D/JK flip-flops, the building blocks of registers and RAM.

Clock circuit from gates. An odd number of inverters (NOT gates, for example three) connected in a ring forms a ring oscillator. Because each gate has a propagation delay tpt_p, the output keeps toggling with period T≈2ntpT\approx 2nt_p (nn = number of inverters). A more stable clock uses two inverters or NAND gates with an RC network (an astable multivibrator), where the capacitor charges and discharges through RR so that the output switches alternately. Its frequency is of order 1/(RC)1/(RC). For accurate timing a quartz crystal is inserted into the feedback loop.

Working scheme. The clock sends regular pulses to the flip-flops, and at each clock edge the flip-flops sample their data input and store it. Gates between the flip-flops perform logic on the stored bits, so the entire system operates in step with the clock.

Is it true that TTL gates are fabricated on a single IC? Yes. TTL gates are typically built as integrated circuits, with the transistors, diodes and resistors fabricated together on a single silicon chip. For example, the 7400 series packs four 2-input NAND gates in one 14-pin package.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2080 · 5 marks

Describe classical free electron model.

Answer

The classical free electron model (Drude model, 1900) treats a metal as a lattice of fixed positive ion cores immersed in a gas of free valence electrons.

Assumptions.

  1. Valence electrons are detached from their atoms and move freely throughout the metal. The ion cores stay fixed, and electron-electron and electron-ion interactions are neglected between collisions.
  2. The electrons behave like molecules of an ideal gas and obey Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics, with mean thermal energy 32kBT\tfrac32 k_BT.
  3. Collisions with the ions are instantaneous and change the velocity abruptly. The mean time between collisions is the relaxation time τ\tau.
  4. After each collision the electron emerges with a random direction, in thermal equilibrium with the local temperature.

Electrical conductivity. In a field EE an electron gains an average drift velocity vd=−eEτmv_d=-\dfrac{eE\tau}{m}. The current density is J=−nevd=ne2τmEJ=-nev_d=\dfrac{ne^2\tau}{m}E, so

σ=ne2τm\sigma=\frac{ne^2\tau}{m}

which is Ohm's law, with resistivity ρ=m/(ne2τ)\rho = m/(ne^2\tau).

Successes. It explains Ohm's law, the high electrical and thermal conductivities of metals, and the Wiedemann-Franz law (κ/σT=L\kappa/\sigma T=L, with a constant LL).

Failures. It predicts an electronic heat capacity of 32nkB\tfrac32 nk_B, but this is not observed; the actual value is about 100 times smaller. It gives the wrong temperature dependence of resistivity (ρ∝T\rho\propto\sqrt T instead of ∝T\propto T), and it cannot explain the difference between metals, semiconductors and insulators, or the sign of the Hall coefficient in some metals. These problems are resolved by the quantum free electron (Sommerfeld) model, which uses Fermi-Dirac statistics, and by band theory.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2080 · 5 marks

How electric and magnetif fields are incorporated in electromagnetic wave? Explain.

Answer

An electromagnetic wave consists of coupled oscillating electric and magnetic fields. This coupling follows from Maxwell's equations.

Mutual generation.

  • Faraday's law, ∇×E⃗=−∂B⃗∂t\nabla\times\vec E=-\dfrac{\partial\vec B}{\partial t}: a time-varying magnetic field produces an electric field.
  • The Ampere-Maxwell law, ∇×B⃗=μ0ε0∂E⃗∂t\nabla\times\vec B=\mu_0\varepsilon_0\dfrac{\partial\vec E}{\partial t} (in free space): a time-varying electric field (displacement current) produces a magnetic field.

Each changing field regenerates the other, so the disturbance sustains itself and travels through empty space without a medium.

Wave equations. In free space (ρ=0\rho=0, J⃗=0\vec J=0), taking the curl of the curl equations gives

∇2E⃗=μ0ε0∂2E⃗∂t2,∇2B⃗=μ0ε0∂2B⃗∂t2\nabla^2\vec E=\mu_0\varepsilon_0\frac{\partial^2\vec E}{\partial t^2},\qquad \nabla^2\vec B=\mu_0\varepsilon_0\frac{\partial^2\vec B}{\partial t^2}

so both fields propagate as waves with speed c=1μ0ε0=3×108c=\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{\mu_0\varepsilon_0}}=3\times10^8 m/s.

Plane wave solution. For propagation along xx:

Ey=E0sin⁡(kx−ωt),Bz=B0sin⁡(kx−ωt)E_y=E_0\sin(kx-\omega t),\qquad B_z=B_0\sin(kx-\omega t)

Properties.

  1. E⃗⊥B⃗⊥\vec E\perp\vec B\perp direction of propagation, so the wave is transverse and E⃗×B⃗\vec E\times\vec B points along the direction of travel.
  2. E⃗\vec E and B⃗\vec B are in phase and their amplitudes are related by E0=cB0E_0=cB_0.
  3. The energy is shared equally between the electric and magnetic fields; the energy flow is given by the Poynting vector S⃗=1μ0E⃗×B⃗\vec S=\dfrac{1}{\mu_0}\vec E\times\vec B.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2080 · 5 marks

Describe the following process of IC production: (a) Oxidation and (b) Doping. Explain photolithography in brief.

Answer

IC fabrication starts from a thin, highly pure single-crystal silicon wafer cut from a grown ingot. Circuits are built on it layer by layer.

(a) Oxidation. The wafer is heated to about 900-1200 C in an atmosphere of pure oxygen (dry oxidation, Si+O2→SiO2\text{Si}+\text{O}_2\to\text{SiO}_2) or steam (wet oxidation, Si+2H2O→SiO2+2H2\text{Si}+2\text{H}_2\text{O}\to\text{SiO}_2+2\text{H}_2). A thin, uniform layer of silicon dioxide grows on the surface. The oxide is an excellent insulator; it serves as a mask against dopant diffusion, as the gate dielectric of MOS devices, as an insulation layer between conductors, and as protection (passivation) of the surface. Wet oxidation grows thick oxide faster, while dry oxidation gives denser, higher-quality films.

(b) Doping. Controlled amounts of impurities are introduced into selected regions of the silicon to create n-type (phosphorus, arsenic) or p-type (boron) regions, forming junctions, resistors and transistor regions.

  • Diffusion: the wafer is placed in a furnace (about 1000 C) with a gas containing the dopant. Atoms diffuse into the silicon through the openings in the oxide mask. The profile depends on temperature and time.
  • Ion implantation: dopant ions are accelerated to high energy and shot into the wafer. This allows precise control of dose and depth. A subsequent anneal repairs crystal damage and activates the dopants.

Photolithography. This is the process of transferring the circuit pattern onto the wafer.

  1. The wafer is coated with a light-sensitive photoresist, spun to form a uniform film, and baked.
  2. It is exposed to ultraviolet light through a mask (photomask) carrying the pattern.
  3. Development removes the exposed resist (positive resist) or the unexposed resist (negative resist), leaving windows in the pattern.
  4. The oxide in the windows is removed by etching (for example with HF), and the wafer can then be doped or metallised through the openings.
  5. The remaining resist is stripped.

Repeating oxidation, lithography, etching, doping and metal deposition builds up the complete IC.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2080 · 5 marks

Calculate uncertainty in the momentum of electron if uncertainty in its position is 1Å (10^-10).

Answer

By the Heisenberg uncertainty principle,

Δx Δp ≥ ℏ2\Delta x\,\Delta p\ \ge\ \frac{\hbar}{2}

With Δx=10−10\Delta x = 10^{-10} m:

Δp ≥ 1.055×10−342×10−10=5.3×10−25 kg m/s\Delta p\ \ge\ \frac{1.055\times10^{-34}}{2\times10^{-10}}=5.3\times10^{-25}\ \text{kg m/s}

The minimum uncertainty in the momentum is about 5.3×10−255.3\times10^{-25} kg m/s. This corresponds to an uncertainty in speed of Δv=Δp/m≈5.8×105\Delta v = \Delta p/m \approx 5.8\times10^{5} m/s.

(If the form ΔxΔp≈h\Delta x\Delta p\approx h is used, Δp≈6.6×10−24\Delta p\approx 6.6\times10^{-24} kg m/s.)

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2081 · 10 marks

What do you mean by the contact potential? Give a schematic of a p-n Junction by illustrating:
  • (a) Potential difference V, resulting from the positive donor ions in the n-side of the depletion layer and the negative acceptor ions in the p-side of the depletion layer.
  • (b) Potential energy barrier faced by the majority charge carriers (electrons) in the n-side of the diode as they attempt to cross the junction.
  • (c) Potential energy barrier faced by the majority side of the diode as they attempt to cross the junction.

Answer

Contact potential. When p-type and n-type semiconductors are joined, electrons diffuse from the n-side (high electron concentration) to the p-side, and holes diffuse the other way. The diffusing carriers recombine near the junction, leaving behind uncompensated, immobile ionised donors (positive) on the n-side and ionised acceptors (negative) on the p-side. This region is the depletion layer. The charges set up an electric field directed from n to p, which opposes further diffusion. At equilibrium, diffusion and drift currents cancel and there is a potential difference V0V_0 across the junction, called the contact (built-in) potential:

V0=kBTeln⁡NANDni2V_0=\frac{k_BT}{e}\ln\frac{N_AN_D}{n_i^2}

For silicon, V0≈0.6V_0\approx0.6-0.70.7 V, and for germanium about 0.20.2-0.30.3 V.

Schematic of the p-n junction.

   p-side             depletion layer             n-side
 (holes majority)                              (electrons majority)
  + + + + |  - - - -  |  + + + +  | - - - -
          |(acceptor   |  (donor    |
          |  ions)  <-- E field --  ions)
          |<--------- width W ----->|

 (a) Potential V(x):      p-side low  ________
                                              \
                                               \______  n-side high
                          step of height V0 across depletion layer

 (b) Electron potential energy (n-side electrons):
                                        ______ n-side (electron energy low)
         p-side (high) ______/   <- barrier of height eV0
     electrons in n-side must climb eV0 to cross to p-side

 (c) Hole potential energy (p-side holes):
       p-side (low) ______
                          \_______ n-side (high)
     holes in p-side must climb eV0 to cross to n-side

(a) The positive donor ions on the n-side and negative acceptor ions on the p-side of the depletion layer form a dipole layer. The resulting potential rises from the p-side to the n-side by V0V_0, with the field EE pointing from n to p.

(b) The majority carriers on the n-side (electrons) face a potential energy barrier of height eV0eV_0 (the electron energy is higher on the p-side). Only electrons with thermal energy greater than eV0eV_0 can diffuse across the junction.

(c) The majority carriers on the p-side (holes) likewise face a barrier of height eV0eV_0 when trying to cross to the n-side. Minority carriers, on the other hand, are swept across by the field (drift current), which exactly balances the diffusion current in equilibrium.

Forward bias lowers the barrier to e(V0−V)e(V_0-V) and a large current flows, while reverse bias raises it to e(V0+V)e(V_0+V) and only a small leakage current flows.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2081 · 10 marks

Discuss single crystal growth by discussing the following techniques:
  • (a) Czochralski Method,
  • (b) Bridgman-Stockbarger Method,
  • (c) Floating Zone Method, and
  • (d) Vapor-Phase Epitaxy.

Answer

Single crystals are needed for semiconductor devices because their properties are uniform and free of grain boundaries. They are grown from a melt, solution or vapour.

(a) Czochralski method. The starting material (for example high-purity silicon) is melted in a crucible just above its melting point under an inert atmosphere. A small oriented seed crystal is dipped into the melt and then slowly pulled upward (a few mm per minute) while being rotated (the crucible is usually rotated in the opposite direction). The melt freezes on the seed with the same crystal orientation, forming a large cylindrical ingot (boule). The diameter is controlled by the pull rate and the melt temperature. Dopants can be added to the melt. It is the main method for silicon wafers, though the crucible can contaminate the crystal with oxygen.

(b) Bridgman-Stockbarger method. The material is melted in a sealed crucible (often with a pointed tip) inside a furnace with a temperature gradient. The crucible is slowly lowered from the hot zone (above the melting point) to the cold zone (below it). Solidification starts at the pointed tip, where a single nucleus, or one selected seed, grows and propagates through the melt as the crucible moves. The crucible may be moved vertically or horizontally. It is used for GaAs, CdTe, fluorides and other compounds with high vapour pressure.

(c) Floating zone method. A polycrystalline rod is held vertically with a seed crystal at its lower end. A narrow molten zone is created with an RF induction coil (or focused lamps) and held in place by surface tension. The coil moves slowly along the rod, so the molten zone moves with it. Behind the zone the material re-solidifies as a single crystal on the seed. Since no crucible is involved, the crystal is very pure, and impurities, which prefer the melt, are swept to the end of the rod (zone refining). It is used for high-purity, high-resistivity silicon for power devices.

(d) Vapour-phase epitaxy (VPE). Epitaxy is the deposition of a thin single-crystal layer on a single-crystal substrate such that the layer copies the substrate's orientation. In VPE, gaseous compounds (for example SiCl4_4 or SiH4_4 with H2_2) are passed over heated substrates at high temperature (about 1100-1200 C). The gas decomposes or reacts at the surface, and for example SiCl4+2H2→Si+4HCl\text{SiCl}_4+2\text{H}_2\to\text{Si}+4\text{HCl} deposits silicon atoms that arrange themselves on the substrate lattice. The doping of the grown layer can be controlled by adding dopant gases (PH3_3, B2_2H6_6). It is used to grow device layers with a doping different from the substrate.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2081 · 5 marks

Explain group velocity.

Answer

A single wave of one frequency extends over all space and carries no information. A real signal, or a localised particle, is described by a wave packet formed by superposing waves of slightly different wave numbers. The packet's envelope moves with a different speed from the individual waves, and this speed is the group velocity.

Derivation. Consider two waves of equal amplitude with (ω+Δω, k+Δk)(\omega+\Delta\omega,\ k+\Delta k) and (ω−Δω, k−Δk)(\omega-\Delta\omega,\ k-\Delta k):

y=Acos⁡[(k+Δk)x−(ω+Δω)t]+Acos⁡[(k−Δk)x−(ω−Δω)t]=2Acos⁡(Δk x−Δω t)cos⁡(kx−ωt)y=A\cos[(k+\Delta k)x-(\omega+\Delta\omega)t]+A\cos[(k-\Delta k)x-(\omega-\Delta\omega)t]=2A\cos(\Delta k\,x-\Delta\omega\,t)\cos(kx-\omega t)

The fast factor cos⁡(kx−ωt)\cos(kx-\omega t) travels at the phase velocity vp=ω/kv_p=\omega/k. The slowly varying envelope cos⁡(Δk x−Δω t)\cos(\Delta k\,x-\Delta\omega\,t) travels at

vg=ΔωΔk → dωdkv_g=\frac{\Delta\omega}{\Delta k}\ \to\ \frac{d\omega}{dk}

Relations.

vg=dωdk=vp+kdvpdkv_g=\frac{d\omega}{dk}=v_p+k\frac{dv_p}{dk}

In a non-dispersive medium vpv_p is independent of kk, so vg=vpv_g=v_p. In a dispersive medium, vg≠vpv_g\ne v_p.

Matter waves. For a free particle, ω=ℏk22m\omega=\dfrac{\hbar k^2}{2m}, so vg=ℏkm=pm=vv_g=\dfrac{\hbar k}{m}=\dfrac{p}{m}=v, the particle velocity, while vp=ωk=v2v_p=\dfrac{\omega}{k}=\dfrac v2. Therefore the wave packet moves with the particle's velocity, and the group velocity is the speed at which energy and information are carried.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2081 · 5 marks

Set up Schrodinger equation and discuss the wavefunction.

Answer

Schrödinger equation. A particle of mass mm has de Broglie wavelength λ=h/p\lambda = h/p. Its state is described by a wavefunction Ψ(x,t)\Psi(x,t). For a free particle of energy EE and momentum pp, a travelling wave is

Ψ(x,t)=A ei(kx−ωt),k=pℏ,ω=Eℏ\Psi(x,t) = A\,e^{i(kx-\omega t)},\qquad k=\frac{p}{\hbar},\quad \omega=\frac{E}{\hbar}

Differentiating gives

∂Ψ∂t=−iωΨ  ⇒  iℏ∂Ψ∂t=EΨ,∂2Ψ∂x2=−k2Ψ  ⇒  −ℏ2∂2Ψ∂x2=p2Ψ\frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial t} = -i\omega\Psi \;\Rightarrow\; i\hbar\frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial t}=E\Psi,\qquad \frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2}=-k^2\Psi \;\Rightarrow\; -\hbar^2\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2}=p^2\Psi

Using the energy relation E=p22m+V(x)E=\dfrac{p^2}{2m}+V(x) and multiplying by Ψ\Psi:

EΨ=p22mΨ+VΨE\Psi=\frac{p^2}{2m}\Psi+V\Psi

Replacing EΨE\Psi and p2Ψp^2\Psi by the operators above gives the time-dependent Schrödinger equation

iℏ∂Ψ∂t=−ℏ22m∂2Ψ∂x2+V(x)Ψi\hbar\frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial t}=-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2}+V(x)\Psi

For a time-independent potential, put Ψ(x,t)=ψ(x)e−iEt/ℏ\Psi(x,t)=\psi(x)e^{-iEt/\hbar} to get the time-independent equation

d2ψdx2+2mℏ2(E−V(x))ψ=0\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2}+\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}\big(E-V(x)\big)\psi=0

In three dimensions, ∇2ψ+2mℏ2(E−V)ψ=0\nabla^2\psi+\dfrac{2m}{\hbar^2}(E-V)\psi=0.

Discussion of the wavefunction.

  • ψ\psi is generally complex and has no direct physical meaning by itself.
  • ∣ψ∣2=ψ∗ψ|\psi|^2=\psi^*\psi is the probability density. ∣ψ∣2 dx|\psi|^2\,dx is the probability of finding the particle between xx and x+dxx+dx.
  • Normalisation: since the particle must be somewhere, ∫−∞∞∣ψ∣2 dx=1\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi|^2\,dx=1.
  • Acceptable wavefunctions must be single-valued, finite and continuous, with a continuous first derivative (where VV is finite), and must vanish at infinity for bound states.
  • The expectation value of an observable QQ is ⟨Q⟩=∫ψ∗Q^ψ dx\langle Q\rangle=\int\psi^*\hat Q\psi\,dx.
  • The equation is linear, so the superposition principle holds.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2081 · 5 marks

A proton is accelerated through a potential difference of 200V. It then enters a region which there is a magnetic field B = 0.5 T. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the direction of motion of the proton. Find the force experienced by the proton.

Answer

Step 1: speed of the proton. After acceleration through V=200V=200 V the kinetic energy is

K=eV=1.6×10−19×200=3.2×10−17 JK=eV=1.6\times10^{-19}\times200=3.2\times10^{-17}\ \text{J}

v=2Kmp=2×3.2×10−171.67×10−27=3.83×1010≈1.96×105 m/sv=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m_p}}=\sqrt{\frac{2\times3.2\times10^{-17}}{1.67\times10^{-27}}}=\sqrt{3.83\times10^{10}}\approx1.96\times10^{5}\ \text{m/s}

Step 2: magnetic force. The field is perpendicular to the velocity, so sin⁡θ=1\sin\theta=1:

F=qvB=(1.6×10−19)(1.96×105)(0.5)≈1.57×10−14 NF=qvB=(1.6\times10^{-19})(1.96\times10^{5})(0.5)\approx1.57\times10^{-14}\ \text{N}

The force acts perpendicular to both v⃗\vec v and B⃗\vec B, so it bends the path into a circle without changing the speed.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2081 · 5 marks

A small particle of mass 10^-6 g moves along the x axis; its speed is uncertain by 10^-6 m/sec. (a) What is the uncertainty in the x coordinate of the particle? (b) Repeat the calculation for an electron assuming that the uncertainty in its velocity is also 10^-6 m/sec.

Answer

Use the uncertainty principle Δx Δp≥ℏ2\Delta x\,\Delta p\ge\dfrac{\hbar}{2} with ℏ=1.055×10−34\hbar=1.055\times10^{-34} J s, taking the minimum uncertainty.

(a) Particle of mass 10−610^{-6} g =10−9=10^{-9} kg.

Δp=m Δv=10−9×10−6=10−15 kg m/s\Delta p=m\,\Delta v=10^{-9}\times10^{-6}=10^{-15}\ \text{kg m/s}

Δx=ℏ2Δp=1.055×10−342×10−15≈5.3×10−20 m\Delta x=\frac{\hbar}{2\Delta p}=\frac{1.055\times10^{-34}}{2\times10^{-15}}\approx5.3\times10^{-20}\ \text{m}

This is far too small to detect.

(b) Electron, m=9.11×10−31m=9.11\times10^{-31} kg.

Δp=9.11×10−31×10−6=9.11×10−37 kg m/s\Delta p=9.11\times10^{-31}\times10^{-6}=9.11\times10^{-37}\ \text{kg m/s}

Δx=1.055×10−342×9.11×10−37≈58 m\Delta x=\frac{1.055\times10^{-34}}{2\times9.11\times10^{-37}}\approx58\ \text{m}

The position of the electron is uncertain by tens of metres, so quantum effects dominate for the electron but are negligible for the macroscopic particle.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2081 · 5 marks

A beam of hydrogen atoms is used in a Stern-Gerlach type experiment. The atoms emerge from the oven with a velocity v = 10^4m/sec. They enter a region 20 cm long where there is a magnetic field gradient dBdz=3×104 T/m\frac{dB}{dz} = 3 \times 10^4 \text{ T/m}. The field gradient is perpendicular to the incident velocity of the atoms. The mass of the hydrogen atom is 1.67×10−27 kg 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \text{ kg}. What is the separation of the two components of the beam as they emerge from the magnet?

Answer

A hydrogen atom in its ground state has zero orbital angular momentum, and its magnetic moment component along zz is μz=±μB\mu_z=\pm\mu_B, with μB=9.27×10−24\mu_B=9.27\times10^{-24} J/T. The beam therefore splits into two components.

Force on an atom.

Fz=μzdBdz=(9.27×10−24)(3×104)=2.78×10−19 NF_z=\mu_z\frac{dB}{dz}=(9.27\times10^{-24})(3\times10^{4})=2.78\times10^{-19}\ \text{N}

Acceleration.

a=Fm=2.78×10−191.67×10−27=1.67×108 m/s2a=\frac{F}{m}=\frac{2.78\times10^{-19}}{1.67\times10^{-27}}=1.67\times10^{8}\ \text{m/s}^2

Time in the magnet.

t=Lv=0.20104=2×10−5 st=\frac{L}{v}=\frac{0.20}{10^{4}}=2\times10^{-5}\ \text{s}

Deflection of each component (in opposite directions):

z=12at2=12(1.67×108)(2×10−5)2=3.33×10−2 mz=\tfrac12at^2=\tfrac12(1.67\times10^{8})(2\times10^{-5})^2=3.33\times10^{-2}\ \text{m}

Separation between the two components as they leave the magnet:

d=2z≈6.7×10−2 m≈6.7 cmd=2z\approx6.7\times10^{-2}\ \text{m}\approx6.7\ \text{cm}

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  • 2081 · 5 marks

The energy gaps of some alkali halides are KCI = 7.6 eV, KBr = 6.3 eV, KI = 5.6 eV. Which of these are transparent to visible light? At what wavelength does each become opaque?

Answer

A crystal absorbs a photon only if hν≥Egh\nu\ge E_g. Visible light spans about 400 nm to 700 nm, that is photon energies of about 1.8 eV to 3.1 eV. All three gaps are larger than 3.1 eV, so no visible photon can lift an electron across the gap.

Hence KCl, KBr and KI are all transparent to visible light.

Each becomes opaque for wavelengths shorter than

λc=hcEg=1240 eV nmEg\lambda_c=\frac{hc}{E_g}=\frac{1240\ \text{eV nm}}{E_g}

  • KCl: λc=12407.6≈163\lambda_c=\dfrac{1240}{7.6}\approx163 nm
  • KBr: λc=12406.3≈197\lambda_c=\dfrac{1240}{6.3}\approx197 nm
  • KI: λc=12405.6≈221\lambda_c=\dfrac{1240}{5.6}\approx221 nm

All these cut-off wavelengths lie in the ultraviolet, so the crystals begin to absorb only in the UV.

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  • 2082 · 10 marks

Define the terms critical potential, excitation potential and ionization potential. Describe the Frank-Hertz experiment for determining the critical potentials. Show how the results of the experiment confirm Bohr’s postulates.

Answer

Definitions.

  • Excitation (resonance) potential: the potential through which an electron must be accelerated so that, on collision, it can raise an atom from its ground state to the first excited state.
  • Critical potentials: the general name for the excitation potentials and the ionization potential, the accelerating voltages at which an inelastic collision first becomes possible.
  • Ionization potential: the potential through which an electron must be accelerated to remove an electron completely from the atom. It is the energy needed to ionize the atom, divided by ee.

Franck-Hertz experiment. A tube contains mercury vapour at low pressure (about 1 mm Hg), a heated cathode KK, a grid GG and a plate PP. A variable accelerating voltage VV is applied between KK and GG. A small retarding voltage (about 0.5 V) is applied between GG and PP, so that electrons that have lost nearly all their energy cannot reach PP.

The plate current II is measured as VV is increased.

  • For small VV, collisions of electrons with Hg atoms are elastic, so the electrons lose almost no energy. II rises steadily with VV.
  • At V=4.9V=4.9 V the electrons gain just enough energy to excite Hg atoms. They lose their energy in inelastic collisions near the grid and cannot overcome the retarding voltage, so II drops sharply.
  • As VV is increased further, II rises again. A second drop occurs at 9.89.8 V, since an electron can now have two inelastic collisions. Further drops follow at 14.714.7 V, and so on, at equal intervals of 4.94.9 V.
  • At about 10.410.4 V ionization of Hg begins. This is the ionization potential, seen as a sudden large rise in current.

The Hg atoms de-excite and emit a line of wavelength

λ=hceV=12404.9≈253 nm\lambda=\frac{hc}{eV}=\frac{1240}{4.9}\approx253\ \text{nm}

which is observed in the ultraviolet.

Confirmation of Bohr's postulates.

  1. Discrete energy levels. Electrons lose energy only in discrete amounts (4.9 eV), and nothing in between. So atoms have only discrete, quantized energy states, as in Bohr's first postulate.
  2. Energy absorption. An atom absorbs energy only when the energy difference between two stationary states is supplied, E2−E1=eV0=4.9E_2-E_1=eV_0=4.9 eV. Smaller amounts are not absorbed (elastic collisions).
  3. Radiation condition. The emitted line has hν=E2−E1h\nu=E_2-E_1. The measured wavelength of 253.7 nm gives hν=4.9h\nu=4.9 eV, the same as the excitation energy from the electron-collision experiment. This is Bohr's frequency condition.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2082 · 10 marks

What are the postulates of wave mechanics? Derive the Schrödinger wave equation. Discuss the significance of the wave function.

Answer

Postulates of wave mechanics.

  1. Every physical system is described by a wavefunction Ψ(r⃗,t)\Psi(\vec r,t), which contains all the information about the system. It is single-valued, finite and continuous.
  2. ∣Ψ∣2 dτ|\Psi|^2\,d\tau is the probability of finding the particle in the volume element dτd\tau, and ∫∣Ψ∣2dτ=1\int|\Psi|^2d\tau=1 (normalisation).
  3. Each observable is represented by a linear Hermitian operator, for example p^=−iℏ∇\hat p=-i\hbar\nabla, H^=−ℏ22m∇2+V\hat H=-\dfrac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2+V.
  4. The only possible results of a measurement of an observable are the eigenvalues of its operator. The average value is ⟨Q⟩=∫Ψ∗Q^Ψ dτ\langle Q\rangle=\int\Psi^*\hat Q\Psi\,d\tau.
  5. The time development of the state is given by the Schrödinger equation iℏ ∂Ψ/∂t=H^Ψi\hbar\,\partial\Psi/\partial t=\hat H\Psi.

Derivation of the Schrödinger equation. The de Broglie relations give a plane wave for a free particle of momentum p=ℏkp=\hbar k and energy E=ℏωE=\hbar\omega:

Ψ(x,t)=Aei(kx−ωt)\Psi(x,t)=Ae^{i(kx-\omega t)}

Differentiating:

∂Ψ∂t=−iωΨ ⇒ EΨ=iℏ∂Ψ∂t\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial t}=-i\omega\Psi\ \Rightarrow\ E\Psi=i\hbar\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial t}

∂2Ψ∂x2=−k2Ψ ⇒ p2Ψ=−ℏ2∂2Ψ∂x2\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2}=-k^2\Psi\ \Rightarrow\ p^2\Psi=-\hbar^2\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2}

The total energy of a particle in a potential V(x)V(x) is E=p22m+VE=\dfrac{p^2}{2m}+V. Multiplying by Ψ\Psi and substituting the two results:

 iℏ∂Ψ∂t=−ℏ22m∂2Ψ∂x2+V(x)Ψ \boxed{\,i\hbar\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial t}=-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2\Psi}{\partial x^2}+V(x)\Psi\,}

This is the time-dependent Schrödinger equation. When VV does not depend on time, separate variables, Ψ=ψ(x) T(t)\Psi=\psi(x)\,T(t):

iℏTdTdt=1ψ[−ℏ22md2ψdx2+Vψ]=E\frac{i\hbar}{T}\frac{dT}{dt}=\frac{1}{\psi}\left[-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2}+V\psi\right]=E

so T=e−iEt/ℏT=e^{-iEt/\hbar} and

−ℏ22md2ψdx2+Vψ=Eψ⟺d2ψdx2+2mℏ2(E−V)ψ=0-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2}+V\psi=E\psi\quad\Longleftrightarrow\quad\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2}+\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}(E-V)\psi=0

Significance of the wavefunction.

  • Ψ\Psi is in general complex, so it is not itself measurable, but ∣Ψ∣2=Ψ∗Ψ|\Psi|^2=\Psi^*\Psi is real and gives the probability density of finding the particle.
  • Normalisation, ∫∣Ψ∣2dx=1\int|\Psi|^2dx=1, expresses that the particle exists somewhere in space.
  • Boundary conditions (ψ\psi finite, continuous, single-valued, with dψ/dxd\psi/dx continuous, and ψ→0\psi\to0 at infinity for bound states) lead to quantized energies.
  • Expectation values of observables, such as ⟨x⟩=∫Ψ∗xΨ dx\langle x\rangle=\int\Psi^*x\Psi\,dx, follow from Ψ\Psi.
  • The equation is linear, so superposition of states is allowed, giving interference of matter waves.

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  • 2082 · 10 marks

Explain potential energy barriers for the charge carriers in BJT. Describe how the transistor works as a voltage amplifier.

Answer

Potential energy barriers in a BJT. Consider an nn-pp-nn transistor with a heavily doped emitter, a thin lightly doped base and a collector. Each pp-nn junction has a depletion region with a built-in potential difference, which acts as a potential energy barrier for the charge carriers.

  • Equilibrium (no bias). Both the emitter-base (EB) and collector-base (CB) junctions have barriers of height eV0eV_0. Electrons in the emitter conduction band and holes in the base cannot cross. Only a few carriers with energy above the barrier cross, and the net current is zero.
  • Normal active biasing. The EB junction is forward biased, so the barrier is lowered to e(V0−VEB)e(V_0-V_{EB}). Many electrons from the emitter are injected over this lowered barrier into the base. Holes diffuse from base to emitter in small numbers, because the base is lightly doped.
  • The CB junction is reverse biased, so the barrier is raised to e(V0+VCB)e(V_0+V_{CB}). This barrier opposes majority carriers (holes in the base, electrons in the collector). But for the electrons injected into the base, which are minority carriers there, it is a downhill slope. The strong field sweeps them into the collector.
  • Since the base is thin (about 1 μ\mum or less), most of the injected electrons diffuse across it without recombining and reach the collector. Thus IC=αIEI_C=\alpha I_E with α≈0.98\alpha\approx0.98-0.990.99, and IE=IB+ICI_E=I_B+I_C.

Transistor as a voltage amplifier (common-emitter). The emitter is common and the supply VCCV_{CC} is connected to the collector through a load resistor RLR_L. The base is biased so that the transistor stays in the active region. The signal viv_i is applied between base and emitter.

Because the EB junction is forward biased, its input resistance is low (about ri=ΔVBE/ΔIBr_i=\Delta V_{BE}/\Delta I_B of the order of 1 kΩ1\ \text{k}\Omega). A small change ΔVBE\Delta V_{BE} produces a change ΔIB\Delta I_B in the base current, and hence a much larger change in collector current:

ΔIC=β ΔIB\Delta I_C=\beta\,\Delta I_B

The output voltage across RLR_L is

ΔVo=−ΔICRL=−β ΔIBRL\Delta V_o=-\Delta I_C R_L=-\beta\,\Delta I_B R_L

so the voltage gain is

Av=ΔVoΔVi=−β ΔIBRLΔIB ri=−βRLriA_v=\frac{\Delta V_o}{\Delta V_i}=\frac{-\beta\,\Delta I_BR_L}{\Delta I_B\,r_i}=-\beta\frac{R_L}{r_i}

Example: β=100\beta=100, RL=5 kΩR_L=5\ \text{k}\Omega, ri=1 kΩr_i=1\ \text{k}\Omega gives Av=−500A_v=-500.

The negative sign shows a 180∘180^\circ phase shift between input and output. The collector (output) circuit has high resistance, so a large voltage swing is obtained for a small input voltage, which gives amplification of the signal voltage. The extra signal power is supplied by the dc source VCCV_{CC}.

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  • 2082 · 5 marks

Develop the differential equation for the oscillation of a mass-spring system and write its solution.

Answer

Consider a mass mm attached to a spring of force constant kk on a smooth horizontal surface. Let xx be the displacement from the equilibrium position.

Differential equation. By Hooke's law the restoring force is F=−kxF=-kx. Newton's second law F=m d2xdt2F=m\,\dfrac{d^2x}{dt^2} gives

md2xdt2=−kx⇒d2xdt2+ω02x=0,ω0=kmm\frac{d^2x}{dt^2}=-kx\quad\Rightarrow\quad\frac{d^2x}{dt^2}+\omega_0^2x=0,\qquad \omega_0=\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}

This is the equation of simple harmonic motion.

Solution. Try x=eλtx=e^{\lambda t}, which gives λ2+ω02=0\lambda^2+\omega_0^2=0, so λ=±iω0\lambda=\pm i\omega_0. The general solution is

x(t)=C1cos⁡ω0t+C2sin⁡ω0t=Acos⁡(ω0t+ϕ)x(t)=C_1\cos\omega_0t+C_2\sin\omega_0t=A\cos(\omega_0t+\phi)

Here AA is the amplitude and ϕ\phi the phase constant, both fixed by the initial conditions x(0)x(0) and x˙(0)\dot x(0).

The period and frequency are

T=2πmk,f=12πkmT=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{m}{k}},\qquad f=\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}

The total energy E=12mx˙2+12kx2=12kA2E=\tfrac12m\dot x^2+\tfrac12kx^2=\tfrac12kA^2 is constant.

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  • 2082 · 5 marks

Discuss the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor.

Answer

Conduction in a semiconductor. In a semiconductor, current is carried by two kinds of charge carriers, free electrons in the conduction band and holes in the valence band. Under an electric field EE they acquire drift velocities

vn=μnE (opposite to E),vp=μpE (along E)v_n=\mu_nE\ (\text{opposite to }E),\qquad v_p=\mu_pE\ (\text{along }E)

where μn\mu_n and μp\mu_p are the mobilities. Both contribute current in the same direction, so the current density is

J=(neμn+peμp)E=σEJ=(ne\mu_n+pe\mu_p)E=\sigma E

and the conductivity is

σ=e (nμn+pμp)\boxed{\sigma=e\,(n\mu_n+p\mu_p)}

Intrinsic semiconductor. Here n=p=nin=p=n_i, so σi=eni(μn+μp)\sigma_i=en_i(\mu_n+\mu_p), with

ni∝T3/2e−Eg/2kTn_i\propto T^{3/2}e^{-E_g/2kT}

The conductivity rises rapidly with temperature, because more electron-hole pairs are generated. This is the opposite of the behaviour of metals, which have a positive temperature coefficient of resistance.

Extrinsic semiconductor.

  • nn-type (donor doping): n≈ND≫pn\approx N_D\gg p, so σ≈eNDμn\sigma\approx eN_D\mu_n.
  • pp-type (acceptor doping): p≈NA≫np\approx N_A\gg n, so σ≈eNAμp\sigma\approx eN_A\mu_p.

With temperature, conductivity first increases as impurities ionize, then stays nearly constant in the exhaustion (saturation) range, where all impurities are ionized and mobility falls slightly because of lattice scattering. At high temperature, intrinsic carriers dominate and conductivity increases rapidly again.

Doping can therefore change the conductivity by many orders of magnitude, between those of an insulator and a metal.

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  • 2082 · 5 marks

Explain the Bloch theorem for a particle moving in a periodic potential.

Answer

Statement. For a particle moving in a periodic potential V(x+a)=V(x)V(x+a)=V(x) (for example an electron in a crystal lattice of period aa), the solutions of the Schrödinger equation have the form

ψk(x)=eikx uk(x),uk(x+a)=uk(x)\psi_k(x)=e^{ikx}\,u_k(x),\qquad u_k(x+a)=u_k(x)

That is, the wavefunction is a plane wave modulated by a function uku_k having the same periodicity as the lattice. In three dimensions, ψk⃗(r⃗)=eik⃗⋅r⃗uk⃗(r⃗)\psi_{\vec k}(\vec r)=e^{i\vec k\cdot\vec r}u_{\vec k}(\vec r).

Equivalent form. Translating by one lattice period only multiplies the wavefunction by a phase factor:

ψ(x+a)=eika ψ(x)\psi(x+a)=e^{ika}\,\psi(x)

Reasoning. The Hamiltonian commutes with the translation operator T^a\hat T_a because VV is periodic. So ψ\psi can be chosen as an eigenfunction of T^a\hat T_a with eigenvalue λ\lambda. Normalisation requires ∣λ∣=1|\lambda|=1, so λ=eika\lambda=e^{ika}, which gives the form above.

Consequences.

  • The probability density ∣ψ∣2=∣uk∣2|\psi|^2=|u_k|^2 is periodic, so the electron is not localised at any one ion. It is equally likely to be found in every unit cell.
  • kk is a good quantum number (crystal momentum). It is defined only up to 2π/a2\pi/a, so it can be restricted to the first Brillouin zone, −π/a<k≤π/a-\pi/a<k\le\pi/a.
  • Applying Bloch's theorem with the potential gives allowed energy bands separated by forbidden gaps, E=En(k)E=E_n(k). This is the basis of the Kronig-Penney model and the band theory of solids.

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  • 2082 · 5 marks

Suppose the body of an ice skater has a moment of inertia 4 kg·m² and her arms have a mass of 5 kg each with the center of mass at 0.4 m from her body. She starts to turn at 0.5 rev/s on the point of her skate with her arms outstretched. She then pulls her arms inward so that their center of mass is at the axis of her body. What will be her speed of rotation?

Answer

There is no external torque about the vertical axis, so angular momentum is conserved: I1ω1=I2ω2I_1\omega_1=I_2\omega_2.

Initial moment of inertia. The arms (2 arms of 5 kg at 0.4 m) contribute

Iarms=2×5×(0.4)2=1.6 kg m2I_{\text{arms}}=2\times5\times(0.4)^2=1.6\ \text{kg m}^2

I1=4+1.6=5.6 kg m2I_1=4+1.6=5.6\ \text{kg m}^2

Final moment of inertia. With the arms' centres of mass on the axis, their contribution is negligible, so

I2=4 kg m2I_2=4\ \text{kg m}^2

Final speed of rotation.

ω2=I1I2 ω1=5.64×0.5=0.7 rev/s\omega_2=\frac{I_1}{I_2}\,\omega_1=\frac{5.6}{4}\times0.5=0.7\ \text{rev/s}

In angular units this is 2π×0.7≈4.42\pi\times0.7\approx4.4 rad/s, a rise of 40% from 0.5 rev/s (3.14 rad/s).

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  • 2082 · 5 marks

Consider a copper wire of cross-sectional area 1 mm² carrying a current 1 A. What is the drift velocity of the electrons? Cu is monovalent, that is, there is one free electron per atom. The density and the molecular weight of Cu are 9 g/cc and 64 g/mole, respectively.

Answer

The drift velocity is given by I=nAevdI=nAev_d, so vd=InAev_d=\dfrac{I}{nAe}.

Number density of free electrons. One free electron per atom, so nn equals the number of atoms per unit volume:

n=ρNAM=9 g/cm3×6.02×1023 mol−164 g/mol=8.47×1022 cm−3=8.47×1028 m−3n=\frac{\rho N_A}{M}=\frac{9\ \text{g/cm}^3\times6.02\times10^{23}\ \text{mol}^{-1}}{64\ \text{g/mol}}=8.47\times10^{22}\ \text{cm}^{-3}=8.47\times10^{28}\ \text{m}^{-3}

Drift velocity with A=1 mm2=10−6 m2A=1\ \text{mm}^2=10^{-6}\ \text{m}^2, I=1I=1 A:

vd=1(8.47×1028)(10−6)(1.6×10−19)=11.355×104≈7.4×10−5 m/sv_d=\frac{1}{(8.47\times10^{28})(10^{-6})(1.6\times10^{-19})}=\frac{1}{1.355\times10^{4}}\approx7.4\times10^{-5}\ \text{m/s}

So vd≈0.074v_d\approx0.074 mm/s, which is very small compared with the random thermal speed of the electrons.

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  • 2082 · 5 marks

Suppose that the effective mass of holes in a material is four times that of electrons. At what temperature would the Fermi level be shifted by 10% from the middle of the forbidden energy gap? Consider Eg = 1 eV.

Answer

For an intrinsic semiconductor the Fermi level is

EF=Eg2+34kTln⁡mh∗me∗E_F=\frac{E_g}{2}+\frac{3}{4}kT\ln\frac{m_h^*}{m_e^*}

measured from the top of the valence band. Since mh∗=4me∗>me∗m_h^*=4m_e^*>m_e^*, EFE_F moves above the middle of the gap by

ΔE=34kTln⁡4\Delta E=\frac34kT\ln4

Condition. A shift of 10% of the gap: ΔE=0.1 Eg=0.1\Delta E=0.1\,E_g=0.1 eV. Then

kT=ΔE34ln⁡4=0.10.75×1.386=0.11.040=0.0962 eVkT=\frac{\Delta E}{\tfrac34\ln4}=\frac{0.1}{0.75\times1.386}=\frac{0.1}{1.040}=0.0962\ \text{eV}

T=0.09628.617×10−5 eV/K≈1.1×103 KT=\frac{0.0962}{8.617\times10^{-5}\ \text{eV/K}}\approx1.1\times10^{3}\ \text{K}

So the Fermi level is displaced by 10% of the gap at about T≈1116T\approx1116 K.

(If the 10% is taken of the half-gap Eg/2E_g/2, that is 0.05 eV, the temperature would be about 558 K.)

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

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  • 2082 · 5 marks

Find the truth table for the circuit shown in the given figure (two NAND gates feeding a third NAND gate, with inputs V_A, +5V, and V_B). What logic function does the circuit perform?

Answer

Reading the figure as two NAND gates, with inputs (VAV_A, +5 V) and (VBV_B, +5 V), feeding a third NAND gate.

Gate 1. One input is held at +5 V, that is logic 1:

Y1=A⋅1‾=AˉY_1=\overline{A\cdot1}=\bar A

Gate 2.

Y2=B⋅1‾=BˉY_2=\overline{B\cdot1}=\bar B

Gate 3.

Y=Y1⋅Y2‾=Aˉ⋅Bˉ‾=A+BY=\overline{Y_1\cdot Y_2}=\overline{\bar A\cdot\bar B}=A+B

by De Morgan's theorem.

Truth table.

VAV_AVBV_BY1=AˉY_1=\bar AY2=BˉY_2=\bar BYY
00110
01101
10011
11001

The circuit performs the OR function, Y=A+BY=A+B. Each of the first two gates, with one input tied to +5 V, acts as an inverter.

Answer checked by Claude Sonnet · Oct 21, 2026

Test yourself · 2 MCQs

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